As you are looking to download question papers of Entrance Exam conducted by AIIMS for admission in MDS Course held in May, here I am providing question paper:

AIIMS MDS Entrance Exam Question Paper May 2011


1. Which of the following is the most common impaction of mandibular 3rd molar ?
Mesioangular
Distoangular
Horizontal
Vertical

Ans: 1 – Peterson 3rd ed pg 226

2. In Lingual splaying with Guardsman fracture with ORIF, which is the clinical feature seen ?
Increased intracanthal distance
Increased interpupillary distance
Increases Gonion Gnathion distance
Increased interangular distance

Ans: 4 – Raymond and Robert Oral and maxillofacial trauma 1st ed Pg no 516

3. In condylar fracture with greater than 5mm overlapping and greater than 37 degrees angulation with fracture segment, what is the line of treatment ?
Closed reduction and IMF
Open reduction and IMF
Soft Diet
No treatment

Ans: 2 – Maxillofacial surgery by Peter ward booth Pg no 82

4. Nitrous Oxide that is used as anesthetic agent has mechanism of action as ?
Gasserian ganglion block
Block peripheral nerves
Reversible (indirect) depression of CNS
Block Neural trunk

Ans: 3

5. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, what variable should be considered ?
Position of strike
Area of strike
Angulation of strike
Location of strike

Ans: 3

6. The treatment of choice in comminuted fracture of mandible is ?
2.5 mm plate
1.5 mm plate
Dynamic compression plate with eccentric holes
Reconstruction plates with central holes

Ans: 4

7. In condylar fracture and bone plate synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension and compression zones, the most acceptable place for plating is ?
One plate fixed laterally in neck of condyle
One plate in anterior and One plate in posterior border of mandible
One plate on posterior border only
One plate on Anterior border only

Ans: 2

8. Maximum complications seen in which of the following fractures ?
Body fracture
Angle fracture
Condylar fracture
Symphyseal fracture

Ans: 3

9. Transverse symphyseal fracture of mandible can be managed by all of the following except ?
Lag screws
2mm compression plates
2.5mm compression plates
1.5mm single miniplate

Ans: 4

10. In fracture of Atrophic mandible with bone loss, what is the best treatment modality ?
Bone grafting and load bearing
Bone grafting and load sharing
Semi rigid fixation
IMF with open reduction

Ans: 1

11. The anesthetic drug injected for paravertebral block is least likely tp diffuse into ?
Epidural space
Subarachonoid space
Intercostal space
Superior and inferior paravertebral spaces

Ans: 2

12. Which of the following is not a sign of successful stellate ganglion block ?
Nasal stuffiness
Guttmann sign
Horner’s syndrome
Bradycardia

Ans: 4

13. Criteria for an ideal anelgesic drug ?
Rapid onset of action, high efficacy, intermediate duration
Rapid onset of action, intermediate efficacy, long duration
Rapid onset of action, high efficacy, long duration
Intermediate onset of action, high efficacy, intermediate duration

Ans: 3

14. Which of the following is associated with etiology of periodontal disease ?
Actinomyces
Capnocytophaga
Veillonella
Eubacterium

Ans: 4.

15. Which is not true about Juvenile periodontitis ?
Rate of bone loss is faster than normal periodotitis
There is prediliction for female patients
The inflammatory process starts as bone loss
Frequently bilateral symmeteical patterns of bone loss occurs

Ans: 3

16. The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is ?
Gram positive aerobic cocci
Gram positive anaerobic cocci
Gram negative aerobic rods
Gram negative anaerobic rods

Ans: 4 – actinomycetmcomitans and capnocytophaga are both gram negative and anaerobic rods

17. Trauma from occlusion is least likely to affect ?
Enamel
Cementum
Periodontal ligament
Epithelial attachment

Ans: 4

18. Which of the following is not used as an abrasive in dentifrices ?
Calcium carbonate
Sodium carbonate
Silicate
Amylose

Ans: 4

19. Tooth brush abrasions are more common on ?
Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the arch
Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch
Maxillary teeth, on the right side of the arch
Maxillary teeth, on the left side of the arch

Ans: 4

20. Which dentifrices should be used for periodontal patients ?
Tooth powders with high abrasive content
Tooth pastes with high abrasive content
Tooth pastes with minimum abrasive content
All of the above

Ans: 3

21. Which of the following organisms is not implicated in the etiology of periodontal disease ?
Bacteroids
Wollinella
Neisseria
Eikenella

Ans: 3

22. The component of future TMJ shows development at ?
6 weeks
10 weeks
18 weeks
16 weeks

Ans: 2

23. An 8 yr old child comes to your clinic with large front teeth having jagged margins, what is the treatment plan for this patient ?
Smoothen the jagged margins and apply fluoride varnish
Build up other teeth to large size
Extraction of big teeth
Assure him and send him back

Ans: 4

24. The preferred route of anesthesia for a child patient are all except ?
Oral
Intravenous
Submucosal
Intradermal

Ans: 3 – Submucosal, Rectal and Subcutaneous routes are rarely used in children

25. Alveolar grafting in a patient of cleft palate should ideally be done ?
Before maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and before cuspid eruption
Before maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and after cuspid eruption
After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and after cuspid eruption
After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and before cuspid eruption

Ans: 4

26. The caries of Enamel surface leads to accentuation of ?
Incremental lines of Retzius
Perikymata
Imbrication lines of Pickrill
Wickhams Striae

Ans: 1

27. Extracellular polysaccharides formed by mucroorganisms causing caries are formed mainly from which sugar ?
Sucrose
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose

Ans: 1

28. In Class 5 cavity preparation direction of Mesio Distal walls depend on ?
Direction of enamel rods
Contours of gingiva
Size of carious lesion
Location of contact area

Ans: 1

29. In cases involving conventional endodontics, the most frequent cause of failure is ?
External root resorption
Apical overfilling of the canal
Inadequate filling of the accessory canals
Incomplete obliteration of the main canal

Ans: 4

30. Most advantageous indication of acid etching is ?
Decreases micro leakage
Decreases polymerization shrinkage
Decreases coefficient of thermal expansion
Decreases porosity in restorative material

Ans: 1

31. Fluoride release from GIC restoration is replaced by ?
Hydroxyl ion
Aluminium ion
Silicate ion
Carboxylate ion

Ans: 1

32. It is essential to lubricate rubber dam before applying it. Which of these is not a suitable lubricant ?
Shaving cream
Liquid soap
Scrub gel
Vaseline

Ans: 4

33. Which is the wrong way to apply rubber dam using wingless clamp ?
Put the clamp on the tooth and then pull the dam over it
Place the dam on the tooth with fingers, and then position the clamp over it
Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders over the dam
Attach the dam over the clamp frame outside the motu, and then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders under the dam

Ans: 3

34. Mechanism of adhesion of GIC restoration with tooth surface is by means of ?
Carboxy group
Chelates with metal ions
C=C double bond
Polymer chains

Ans: 1

35. Which of the following is the most stable restoration for a GV Black class V unstable erosive lesion ?
Acid Etch composite
GIC
Resin modified GIC
Compomer

Ans: 3

36. In treating a lateral incisor with periapical abscess and draining sinus, the treatment of choice for the sinus is ?
No special treatment
Cauterisation
Curettage of sinus
Use of cautery to eliminate the sinus

Ans: 1

37. Magnitude of normal Mandibular Plane angle is ?
17-30
115-130
25-40
>130

Ans: 1

38. Y-axis is formed by joining ?
Sella Gnathion line with Frankfort horizontal plane
Mandibular plane and Sella Gnathion line
Another name of Mandibular plane
Mandibular plane with FH plane

Ans: 1

39. In Cephalometrics 5 feet distance is set between ?
Left ear of the patient and the X-ray Film
Mid Sagittal plane of the patient and the X-ray film
Left ear of the patient and the X-ray Source
Mid Sagittal plane of the patient and the X-ray Source

Ans: 4

40. 131 degrees of inter-incisal angle is present in ?
Teeth are retroclined
Teeth are proclined
Teeth are crowded
Maxillary teeth are retroclined

Ans: 2

41. Specificity of Screening test measures ?
True positive
False positive
False negative
True negative

Ans: 4

42. Which of the following statement about ‘Simple Random Sampling’ is true ?
Every element in the population has an equal probability to be included
Sampling is based on similar charecteristics
Suitable for large heterogenous population
Complete list of items within sampling frame is not required

Ans: 1

43. Which of the following statements regarding standard distribution curve is true ?
mean = 2 median
mean = median
mean = variance
Standard deviation = 2 variance

Ans: 2




44. The guidelines according to baby friendly hospital initiative includes all of the following except ?
Mother and infant to be together 24 hours a day
Mother to initiate breast feeding 4 hours after delivery
Giving new born infants no food or drink other than breast milk
Encouraging breast feeding on demand
Ans: 2

45. All of the following are approaches to health education except ?
Provision of incentives
Service approach
Regulatory approach
Health education approach

Ans: 1

46. All of the muscles are attached to oblique line of thyroid cartilage except ?
Superior Constrictor
Inferior Constrictor
Thyrohyoid
Sternohyoid

Ans: 1

47. Which organ is present posterior to pancreas ?
Kidney
Stomach
Liver
Duodenum

Ans: 1

48. Area that lies immediately lateral to the anterior perforating substance is ?
Orbital Gyrus
Uncus
Optic Chiasma
Limen Insulae

Ans: 4

49. All of the muscles pierce Buccinator muscle except ?
Parotid Duct
Molar glands of cheek
Buccal branch of facial nerve
Buccal branch of mandibular nerve

Ans: 4

50. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is ?
Raised blood pressure
Vasodialtion due to local metabloites
Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
Increases heart rate

Ans: 2

51. Intrinsic factor of castle is secreted by which of the following cells in gastric glands ?
Chief cells
Parietal cells
Enterochromaffin cells
B-cells

Ans: 2

52. Cortical representation of the body in the cerebrum is ?
Horizontal
Vertical
Random
Oblique

Ans: 2

53. Muscle Spindle detects ?
Tension
Length
Proprioception
Stretch

Ans: 4

54. Gall Stone Pain is not referred to ?
Right Shoulder
Right Hypochondrium
Epigastrium
Right iliac fossa

Ans: 4

55. Bezold-Jarisch Reflex ?
Teachycardia with hypovolemia
Bradycardia with hypovolemia
Tachycardia with hypervolemia
Bradycardia with hypervolemia

Ans: 2

56. In visual conduction, signal is transmitted as ?
Depolarization
Repolarization
Hyperpolarization
Hyperrepolarization

Ans: 1

57. A patient was diagnosed with isolated increase in LDL. His father and brother had the same disease with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis ?
Familial Type III Lipoproteinemia
Abeta Lipoprooteinemia
Familial Lipoprotein Lipase deficiency (Type I)
LDL receptor mutation

Ans: 4

58. Which test uses oligomer with single base pair substitution ?
PCR
RFLP
Error-coded mutation analysis
None of the above

Ans: 2

59. Safe disposal of mercury is ?
Collect carefully and recycle
Controlled combustion
Treatment with chemicals
Deep burial

Ans: 1

60. All are Dimorphic fungi except ?
Blastomyces Dermatitidis
Histoplasma Capsulatum
Penicillium marfenii
Phialophora

Ans: 4

61. Gas Gangrene is caused by all except ?
Cl. Histolyticum
Cl. Novyi
Cl. Septicum
Cl. Sporogenes

Ans: 4

62. Culture media of leptospirosis is ?
Korthoff Media
Perkin Media
Tinsdale Media
Bakers Media

Ans: 1

63. Autoinfection is seen with ?
Cryptosporidium
Giardia
Gnathostomadiasis
Cyclosporosis

Ans: 1

64. Which of the following is Microaerophilic ?
Campylobacter
Vibrio
Bacteroids
Pseudomonas

Ans: 1

65. Which of the following organelles plays a pivotal role in Apoptosis ?
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Nucleus
Golgi Apparatus

Ans: 1

66. Marker of Polyposis colon cancer is ?
APC
BRACA 1
PTEN
P53

Ans: 1
67. All of the following are associated with increased ageing. Except ?
Increased cross linkages in collagen
Increased superoxide dismutase
Increased accumulation of free radicals
Accumulated mutations in somatic cells

Ans: 2

68. Adverse effects of Valproic acid derivative include the following, except ?
Alopecia
Liver Failure
Weight Gain
Osteomalacia

Ans: 4

69. Which of the following Cephalosporin does not need dose modifications even in presence of raised level of GFR ?
Cefipime
Cefoperazone
Cefotaxim
Cefuroxime

Ans: 2

70. All are true regarding Ifosfamide except ?
It is a Nitrogen mustard derivative
Metabolized by cytochrome P-450 enzyme
Chloracetylaldehyde is the metabolite of ifofusamide
Less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide

Ans: 4

71. All of the following statements about exanatide are true except ?
It is a glucagon like peptide 1 (GLP-1) analogue
It is used for treatment of type-1 diabetes mellitus
Decreases Glucagon
It is given Subcutaneously

Ans: 2

72. Insulin plus acarbose induced hypoglycemia is treated by ?
Maltose
Starch
Glucose
Sucrose

Ans: 3

73. Hypoglycemia is not caused by ?
Nateglinide
Glimepiride
Insulin
Acarbose

Ans: 4

74. True about Pioglitazone are all except ?
Metabolized in Liver CYP3A4
Selective agonist for nuclear peroxisomes proliperator activated receptor gamma
It causes transcription of gene for carbohydrate and Fat metabolism in the absence of insulin
It should be avoided in a patient with cardiovascular disease

Ans: 3

75. Which of the following drug is both antiresorptive and bone formative ?
Strontium Ranelate
Calcitonin
Ibadronate
Teriperatide

Ans: 1

76. Cardiovascular complications of HIV infection include all of the following except ?
Pericardial effusion
Cardiac Tamponade
Cardiomyopathy
Aortic Aneurysm

Ans: 4

77. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) includes all of the following except ?
Leucocytosis
Hyperthermia
Hypothermia
Thrombocytopenia

Ans: 4

78. All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition except ?
Hb < 11.5 gm/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy
Increased 1-4 year mortality rate
Birth weight < 2500 gm
Decreased weight for height

Ans: 1

79. Serum Fructosamine can be used in all except ?
Screening of Diabetes
Rapid change in DM treatment
Short term control of DM
Screening of DM in pregnancy

Ans: 1

80.Material which has high compressive strength and low tensile strength is classified with property of ?
Ductility
Brittleness
Malleability
Resilient

Ans: 2

81. After Amalgam polishing the outermost surface has crystals arranged flattened to tooth surface. This layer is known as ?
Beilby layer
Beillyl layer
Beibyl layer
None of the above

Ans: 1

82. On X-ray which of the following can be found most accurately ?
Acute pulpitis
Periapical granuloma
Mental foramen
Cementoma

Ans: 3

83. Exposure time of RVG in comparison to conventional radiograph is ?
Same
Half
Atleast 1/5th reduced
Greater

Ans: 2

84. Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large areas of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin is seen in ?
Hypocalcified dentin
Odonto dysplasia
Dentin dysplasia
Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

Ans: 2

85. Which of the following is the most common Developmental cyst ?
Nasopalatine duct cyst / Ant maxillary
Median mandibular
Globulomaxillary cyst
Median palatal cyst

Ans: 1

86. Which of the following is the most likely (among them) to turn malignant ?
Intradermal Nevus
Junctional Nevus
Blue Nevus
Compound Nevus

Ans: 2

87. Self healing carcinoma is known as ?
Benign Melanoma Nevus
Keratoacanthoma
Melanoma
Leukoplakia

Ans: 2

88. Natal Teeth are seen in all except ?
Vander woude syndrome
Sotos syndrome
Cleft palate
Ellis van syndrome

Ans: 1