#1
July 2nd, 2014, 09:12 AM
| |||
| |||
AIPMT Solved Papers
Can you give me question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance examination ?
|
#2
July 2nd, 2014, 03:16 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: AIPMT Solved Papers
Here I am giving you question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance examination in file attached with it so you can get it easily. BIOLOGY Q. 1. The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are 1. Axillary buds 2. Root buds 3. Flower buds 4. Shoot buds Sol: Axillary buds developing at nodes/notch/eyes. Answer: (1) Q. 2. Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a 1. Hot spring 2. Sulphur rock 3. Cattle yard 4. Polluted stream Sol: Methanogens are archaebacteria abundant in cattle yard, and paddy fields. Answer: (3) Q. 3. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature? 1. Angiosperms 2. Fungi 3. Insects 4. Birds Sol: The largest phylum in animal kingdom is arthropoda, and the largest class is insecta with 7,50,000 species. Answer: (3) Q. 4. Archegoniophore is present in 1. Funaria 2. Marchantia 3. Chara 4. Adiantum Sol: Stalk bearing archegonial cluster at tip in Marchantia thallus Answer: (2) Q. 5. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be 1. Smaller and to have smaller sex organs 2. Smaller but to have larger sex organs 3. Larger but to have smaller sex organs 4. Larger and to haver larger sex organs Sol: Gametophytes are reduced and few celled in all vascular plants. Answer: (1) Q. 6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in 1. Pinus 2. Polytrichum 3. Adiantum 4. Marchantia Sol: In gymnosperms and angiosperms gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte. Answer: (1) Q. 7. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is 1. Lysosome 2. Vacuole 3. Golgi apparatus 4. Plastid Sol: Golgi complex performs glycosyl transferase activity for addition of glycans on lipids and proteins. Answer: (3) Q. 8.Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in 1. Ribosomes 2. Chloroplast 3. Mitochondria 4. Chromoplast Sol: Ribosomes are site of peptide bond formation. Answer: (1) Q. 9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is 1. Cell wall 2. Plasma membrane 3. Nucleus 4. Ribosomes Sol: Lipoprotein cell membrane is found in both but ribosomes are of different kinds. Answer: (2) Q. 10. Mutations can be induced with 1. Gamma radiations 2. Infra Red radiations 3. I A A 4. Ethylene Sol: Mutation can be induced with high energy radiations like UV rays, gamma rays, which cause change in the structure of DNA. Answer: (1) Q. 11. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called 1. Genome 2. Herbarium 3. Germplasm 4. Gene library Sol: Germplasm can be selected as seed or plantlets for their superior traits. Answer: (3) Q. 12. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell? 1. 23 sr RNA 2. 5 sr RNA 3. sn RNA 4. hn RNA Sol: 23 S rRNA is catalytic RNA. Answer: (1) Q. 13. Which one of the following statements is correct? 1. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot 2. In tomato, fruit is a capsule 3. Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperms 4. Placentation in primose is basal Sol: Tomato — Berry, Orchid seed — no endosperm formation, Primrose — Free central placentation. Answer: (1) Q. 14. The correct floral formula of chilli is Sol: Chilli belongs to Solanaceae. Answer: (3) Q. 15. Nitrifying bacteria 1. Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen 2. Oxidize ammonia to nitrates 3. Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds 4. Convert proteins into ammonia Sol: Step (1) — Nitrification by Nitrosomonas Step (2) — Nitratification by Nitrocystis Answer: (2) Q. 16. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is 1. Expression of nif gene 2. Inhibition of nitrogenase activity 3. Oxygen removal 4. Nodule differentiation Sol: LHB is O2 scavanger. Answer: (3) Q. 17. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised? 1. Sulphur 2. Phosphorus 3. Calcium 4. Potassium Sol: Calcium is not remobilised, as it is a structural component in cell. Answer: (3) Q. 18. A drupe develops in 1. Tomato 2. Mango 3. Wheat 4. Pea Sol: Tomato — Berry, Wheat — Caryopsis, Pea — Legume Answer: (2) Q. 19. Ground tissue includes 1. All tissues internal to endodermis 2. All tissues external to endodermis 3. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles 4. Epidermis and cortex Sol: Ground tissue system includes — cortex, endoderm, pericycle and pith. Answer: (3) Q. 20 . In land plants the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having 1. Chloroplasts 2. Cytoskeleton 3. Mitochondria 4. Endoplasmic reticulum Sol: Guard cells are specialised chlorophyllous epidermal cells. Answer: (1) Q. 21. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of 1. Guava 2. Peach 3. Cucumber 4. Cotton Sol: Ovary is half inferior in perigynous flowers. Answer: (2) Q. 22. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called 1. Phellem 2. Phelloderm 3. Phellogen 4. Periderm Sol: Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called periderm. Answer: (4) Q. 23. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? 1. Cassia – Imbricate aestivation 2. Root pressure – Guttation 3. Puccinia – Smut 4. Root – Exarch protoxylem Sol: Puccinia — rust fungi. Answer: (3) Q 24. Flowers are Zygomorphic in 1. Datura 2. Mustard 3. Gulmohur 4. Tomato Sol: Datura, mustard and tomato have actinomorphic flowers. Answer: (3) Q. 25. CAM helps the plants in 1. Reproduction 2. Conserving water 3. Secondary growth 4. Disease resistance Sol: These are succulent plants with water storing cells. Answer: (2) Q. 26. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is 1. More than 80% 2. About 70% 3. About 60% 4. Less than 50% Sol: Plants capture 2-10% of PAR. Answer: (4) Q. 27. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in 1. Pisum 2. Alnus 3. Cycas 4. Cicer Sol: Anabaena cycadae is a BGA found in coralloid roots of Cycas Answer: (3) Q. 28. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of 1. Brassica 2. Citrus 3. Gossypium 4. Triticum Sol: Nucellus polyembryony is common in Citrus,mango and Opuntia. Answer: (2) Q. 29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of 1. Zygote 2. Suspensor 3. Egg 4. Synergid Sol: These are fingure like projections at micropylar end of synergids. Answer: (4) Q .30. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells? 1. 21 2. 42 3. 63 4. 84 Sol: Aleurone is triploid and root tip is diploid. Answer: (3) Q .31. Wind pollination is common in 1. Orchids 2. Legumes 3. Lilies 4. Grasses Sol: Wind pollination is common in grasses and gymnosperms. Answer: (4) Q .32. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous? 1. Cleistogamy 2. Geitonogamy 3. Xenogamy 4. Chasmogamy Sol: Self pollination is favoured by cleistogamy. Answer: (1) Q .33. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called 1. Standing state 2. Standing crop 3. Detritus 4. Humus Sol: Standing state represent all non-living matter in an area at a given time. Answer: (2) Q .34. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy? 1. It took place in the night of December 2/3/1984 2. Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place 3. Thousands of human beings died 4. Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal Sol: It was not a tragedy related to radioactivity Answer: (4) Q. 35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a 1. Biological process 2. Physical process 3. Mechanical process 4. Chemical process Sol: Secondary sewage treatment involves aerobic and anaerobic microbes. Answer: (1) Q. 36. Eutrophication is often seen in 1. Mountains 2. Deserts 3. Fresh water lakes 4. Ocean Sol: It is process of enrichment of lakes by phosphates, nitrates etc. Answer: (3) Q. 37. Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in 1. Alpine forests 2. Temperate forests 3. Mangroves 4. Tropical rainforests Sol: Lianas and epiphytes are more common in tropical rain forest. Answer: (4) Q. 38. Which one of the following expanded forms of the followings acronyms is correct? 1. IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources 2. IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change 3. UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy 4. EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency Sol: IPCC — Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change Answer: (1) Q. 39. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession? 1. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace 2. It begins on a bare rock 3. It occurs on a deforested site 4. It follows primary succession Sol: Secondary biotic succession occurs in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests and lands that have been flooded. Answer: (3) Q. 40. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India? 1. Mango 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Maize Sol: Rice has more than 50,000 genetically different strains, while mango has 1000 varieties in India. Answer: (3) Q. 41. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer? 1. Mycorrhiza 2. Agrobacterium 3. Rhizobium 4. Nostoc Sol: Agrobacteriumis a gene transfer agent. Answer: (2) Q. 42. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body? 1. Skin 2. Epithelium of Urogenial tract 3. Tears 4. Monocytes Sol: Physiological barriers to the entry of micro-organisms in human body are tears in eyes, saliva in mouth and HCl in stomach. Answer: (3) Q. 43. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants? 1. Anabaena 2. Glomus 3. Rhizobium 4. Frankia Sol: Glomus is a endomycorrhiza for phosphorus absorption. Answer: (2) Q. 44. 'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of 1. Wheat 2. Chilli 3. Maize 4. Sugarcane Sol: This variety is resistant against leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt. Answer: (1) Q. 45. Which of the followings is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage? 1. Marsh gas 2. Laughing gas 3. Propane 4. Mustard gas Sol: It is by the activity of methanogens. Answer: (1) Q. 46. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in 1. Gel electrophoresis 2. Spectrophotometry 3. Tissue culture 4. PCR Sol: Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in gel electrophoresis. Answer: (1) Q. 47. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of 1. Pig 2. Fish 3. Mice 4. Cow Sol: 95% of the existing transgenic animals are mice. Answer: (3) Q. 48. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to 1. Degrade sewage 2. Produce methane 3. Obtain antibiotics 4. Purify enzymes Sol: Continuous addition of sugar in fed 'batch' fermentation is done to purify enzymes. Answer: (4) Q. 49. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to 1. Insects 2. Nematodes 3. Fungi 4. Viruses Sol: RNAi i.e., RNA interference is used in the development of plants resistant to nematode like Meloidegyne incognita. Answer: (2) Q. 50. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of 1. Bajra 2. Maize 3. Rice 4. Wheat Sol: Jaya and Ratna are released throughout the rice growing belts of India. Answer: (3) Q. 51. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells 1. Amoeba proteus 2. Paramecium caudatum 3. Paramecium caudatum 4. Euglena viridis Sol: E. coli is a prokaryotic bacterium. Answer: (3) Q. 52. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category? 1. Housefly - Musca, an order 2. Tiger - Tigris, the species 3. Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class 4. Humans - Primata, the family Sol: The zoological name of tiger is Panthera tigris in which Panthera is genus and tigris is species. Answer: (2) Q. 53. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched? Genus name Two characters Class/ Phylum (1) Aurelia (a) cnidoblasts (b) Organ level of organization Coelenterata (2) Ascaris (a) Body segmented (b) Males and females distinct Annelida (3) Salamandra (a) A tympanum represents ear (b) Fertilization is external Amphibia (4) Pteropus (a) Skin possesses hair (b) Oviparous Amphibia Sol: Salamandra is a tailed amphibian, has tymphanum which represents ear. Answer: (3) Q. 54. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception? 1. Mammalia: give birth to young ones 2. Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle 3. Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw 4. Sol: All chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception Answer: (4) Q. 55. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following? 1. Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins 2. Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end 3. Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb 4. Female cockroach - Anal cerci Sol: In class chondrichthyes males possess claspers on the pelvic fins. Answer: (1) Q. 56. The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration) What do the two axises(x and y) represent? x-axis y-axis 1. Enzymatic activity Temeperature 2. Enzymatic activity pH 3. Temperature Enzyme Activity 4. Substrate concentration Enzymatic Activity Sol: X-axis represent temperature and Y-axis represent enzyme activity. All enzymes act at an optimum temperature, above and below this temperature the enzyme activity declines. Answer: (3) Q. 57. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in 1. Fallopian tubes and urethra 2. Eustachian tube and stomach lining 3. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes 4. Bile duct and oesophagus Sol: Ciliated columnar epithelium lines bronchioles and fallopian tubes. Answer: (3) Q. 58. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis 1. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get alingned along equatorial plate in metaphase 2. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase 3. Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase 4. Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase Sol: Chromatids show poleward movement in anaphase; golgi and ER disappears in late prophase. Answer: (1) Q. 59. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function? 1. A: Lecithin - a component of cell membrane 2. B: Adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids 3. A: Triglyceride - major source of energy 4. B: Uracil - a component of DNA Sol: A is the formula of Lecithin. Lecithin is a phospholipid and is the component of the cell membranes. B is the formula of adenine which is a nitrogenous base not a nucleotide. Answer: (1) Q. 60. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors? 1. Increasing brain capacity 2. Upright posture 3. Shortening of jaws 4. Binocular vision Sol: The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from the ancestors is increasing brain capacity. Answer: (1) Q. 61. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example? 1. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce make in Drosophila 2. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds 3. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper 4. XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex Sol: X/A ratio determines sex in Drosophila ; is heterogametic (ZW) in birds. In 'XO type' the 'O' determines maleness. Answer: (3) Q. 62. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend? 1. Type A 2. Type B 3. Type AB 4. Type O Sol: The person with blood group O is said to universal donor, because in this, there are no antigens on the surface of RBC. Answer: (4) Q. 63. What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope? 1. Base pairs 2. Genes 3. Nucleotides 4. Nucleosomes Sol: Nucleosome consist of octameric histone core wrapped by dsDNA Answer: (4) Q. 64. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function Source gland Hormone Function Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates resorption of water in the distal tubules in the nephron Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy Sol: Vasopressin (ADH) is synthesised in hypothalamus but released into the blood from posterior lobe of pituitary,so it is called as a hormone of posterior lobe. It stimulates reabsorption of water in distal tubules in the nephron. Answer: (3) Q. 65. Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common cockroach? 1. The food is ground by mandibles an gizzard 2. Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon 3. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin blood 4. Nitrogenous excretory product is urea Sol: In cockroach the food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard. In insects there is no oxygen transporting pigment and nitrogenous excretory product is uric acid. Answer: (1) Q. 66. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2 5. Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues 6. Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise 7. Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg 8. Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96% Sol: Our tissues are able to utilise only 25% of O2 carried by arterial blood. Our venous blood is still 75% saturated with O2. This O2 acts as a reserve during muscular exercise. Answer: (2) Q. 67. Which one of the following enzymes carries on the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans? 1. Trypsin 2. Pepsin 3. Rennin 4. Lipase Sol: In humans milk protein digesting enzyme in stomach is pepsin. In calves it is rennin. Rennin is also present in small amounts in human infants but not adults. Pepsin acts on water soluble caseinogen (milk protein) to form solubles 'casein'. This combines with calcium salts to form insoluble calcium paracaseinate, which gets readily digested enzymatically. Answer: (2) Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid? 1. Loops of Henle 2. Peritubular capillaries 3. Convoluted tubules 4. Collecting ducts Sol: In Bowman's capsule PCT and DCT are in renal cortex, whereas, loops of Henle are in medullary pyramids. Answer: (3) Q. 69. One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that 1. It has a long dorsal tubular heart 2. Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body 3. The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine 4. The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies Sol: In earthworm, mid dorsal villi typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine Answer: (3) Q. 70. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of 1. Tongue 2. Epiglottis 3. Diaphragm 4. Neck Sol: If a person suddenly starts coughing while swallowing food, it is due to improper movement of epiglottis. If the glottis is not properly closed some food can enter respiratory tract. Answer: (2) Q. 71. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which 1. Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ 2. Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs 3. Carry blood away from the heart to different organs 4. Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein Sol: Arteries are best defined as vessels which carry blood away from the heart to different organs. Answer: (3) Q. 72. 'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans? 1. Pancreas 2. Brain 3. Heart 4. Kidney Sol: 'Bundle of His' is a part of conducting system of human heart. Answer: (3) Q. 73. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of 1. Vitamin A 2. Vitamin B1 3. Vitamin C 4. Vitamin D Sol: Vitamin A is the precursor of the purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods (photoreceptor) cells of human eye. Answer: (1) Q. 74. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood? 1. Fibrinogen 2. An albumin 3. Serum amylase 4. A globulin Sol: Fibrinogen is a plasma protein involved in clotting of blood. Answer: (1) Q. 75. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is 1. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions 2. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions 3. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions 4. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions Sol: When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions. Answer: (1) Q. 76. Which one of following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron? 1. Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein 2. Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule 3. Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate 4. Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries Sol: Podocytes are specialised squamous epithelial cells in the inner wall of Bowman's capsule. They give rise to foot like processes which form filtration slits for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule. Answer: (2) Q. 77. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C GLANDS SECRETION EFFECT ON BODY A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans B Raises blood sugar level Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism Options A B C 1. Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin 2. Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone 3. Placenta Insulin Vasopressin 4. Ovary Insulin Calcitonin Sol: A. Ovary secretes oestrogen for maintenance of secondary sexual characters. B. Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon which raises blood sugar level. C. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes growth hormone. Its over secretion leads to gigantism. Answer: (2) Q. 78. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes in found in 1. Insects and Amphibians 2. Reptiles and Birds 3. Birds and Annelids 4. Amphibians and Reptiles Sol: Reptiles and birds are uricotelic. Answer: (2) Q. 79. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function? 1. B: Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly 2. C: Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues 3. A: alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases 4. D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here Sol: A is the alveolar cavity which is the main site of exchange of respiratory gases. Answer: (3) Q. 80. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood 1. 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney 2. 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment 3. 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure 4. 105/50 mmHg makes one very active Sol: Hypertension occurs if the blood pressure is 190/110. This can harm the vital organs like brain and kidneys. Answer: (1) Q. 81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation? 1. During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed 2. When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed 3. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release 4. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II Sol: When someone drinks lot of water which is not required by his body, the osmolarity of the blood will decrease. The decrease in osmolarity will inhibit the release of ADH. ADH not released DCT becomes less permeable to water, and excess of water is eliminated. Answer: (2) Q. 82. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans.Which one set of three parts out of I – VI have been correctly identified? 1. Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube 2. (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae 3. (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix 4. (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix Sol: III is infundibulum IV is fimbriae V is cervix Answer: (3) Q. 83. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for 1. Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex 2. Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature 3. Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs 4. Providing more space for the growth of epididymis Sol: The tests in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity in scrotal sacs. This is because the temperature of scrotal sacs is 2.5°C lesser than internal body temperature. Answer: (2) Q. 84. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present? 1. IUDs' (Intra uterine devices) 2. Cervical caps 3. Tubectomy 4. Diaphragms Sol: The most widely accepted method of contraception in India is IUDs. Answer: (1) Q. 85. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from 1. Vagina to uterus 2. Testes to epididymis 3. Epididymis to vas deferens 4. Ovary to uterus Sol: The path of transport of gametes is Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis. So, if vasa efferentia are blocked the gametes from testes will not enter epididymis. Answer: (2) Q. 86. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy? 1. Six weeks 2. Eight weeks 3. Twelve weeks 4. Eighteen weeks Sol: MTPs are considered safe upto twelve weeks of pregnancy. Answer: (3) Q. 87. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense? 1. The cuckoo (koel) lays its egg in crow's nest 2. The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans 3. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother 4. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair Sol: Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair is a parasite in true sense. Female mosquito is not considered as a parasite, though it needs human blood for reproduction. Koel that lays in crow's nest is just a brood parasite. Answer: (4) Q. 88. What type of human population is represented by the following pyramid? 1. Expanding population 2. Vanishing population 3. Stable population 4. Declining population Sol: It is an Urn shaped pyramid with least number of pre-reproductive individuals. Answer: (4) |
#3
July 2nd, 2014, 03:16 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: AIPMT Solved Papers
Q. 89. Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct? 1. It is upright in shape 2. Its base is broad 3. It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms 4. It is inverted in shape Sol: It is never inverted. Answer: (4) Q. 90. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of 1. Aspergillus 2. Aspergillus 3. Clostridium 4. Trichoderma Sol: Yeast species. Answer: (2) Q. 91. Consider the following four conditions (a - d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions (a) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature (b) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature (c) Bask in sun when temperature is low (d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis 1. (a), (b) 2. (c), (d) 3. (a), (c) 4. (b), (d) Sol: The adaptations in desert lizard are (i) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature (ii) bask in sun when temperature is low Answer: (3) Q. 92. Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of "Greenhouse Effect"? 1. CO2 and N2O 2. CO2 and O3 3. CO2 and CO 4. CFCs and SO2 Sol: CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC are common green house gases. Answer: (1) Q. 93. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite? 1. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito 2. Saliva of infected female Anophelesmosquito 3. Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria 4. Spleen of infected humans Sol: Sporozoites are the infective stage of malarial parasite. They present in the saliva of infected female Anophelesmosquito. Answer: (2) Q. 94. When two unrelated individuals or lines are corssed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both its parents. This phenomenon is called 1. Metamorphosis 2. Heterosis 3. Transformation 4. Spheing Sol: Heterosis is equivalent to hybrid vigour. Answer: (2) Q. 95. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection? 1. WIDAL 2. ELISA 3. MRI 4. Ultra sound Sol: ELISA is a diagnostic test for AIDS. Answer: (2) Q. 96. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? 1. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person 2. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells 3. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase 4. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these Sol: Symptoms of AIDs appear when there is depletion of helper T-cells. Answer: (4) Q. 97. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it? 5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3' 3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5' 1. Palindromic sequence of base pairs 2. Replication completed 3. Deletion mutation 4. Start codon at the 5' end Sol: 5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3' 3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5' is the palindromic sequence, recognised by EcoRI. Answer: (1) Q. 98. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is 1. Molasses 2. Corn meal 3. Soya meal 4. Ground gram Sol: Molasses are used commonly in distilleries for ethanol production Answer: (1) Q. 99. An organism used as biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is 1. Nostoc 2. Azotobacter 3. Azospirillum 4. Rhizobium Sol: Soyabean is a legume associated symbiotically with Rhizobium. Answer: (4) Q. 100. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for? 1. coli 2. colon 3. coelom 4. coenzyme Sol: In EcoRI, 'co' stands for coli (species of bacteria, from where it is obtained) Answer: (3) CHEMISTRY Q. 1. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32 Sol: Number of atomic orbitals in an orbit Answer : (3) Q. 2. The electrode potentials for are +0.15 V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of . (1) 0.150 V (2) 0.500 V (3) 0.325 V (4) 0.650 V sol. Answer : (3) Q. 3. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is (1) 1.7700 (2) 0.1770 (3) 0.0177 (4) 0.0344 Sol. Mole fraction of solute = 1/56.55 = 0.0177 Answer : (3) Q. 4. By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled? (1) 1.4 (2) 2.0 (3) 2.8 (4) 4.0 Sol. Answer : (1) Q. 5. A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals , what is the pH of this solution? (1) 8.73 (2) 9.08 (3) 9.43 (4) 11.72 Sol. Answer : (3) Q. 6. Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be (1) 25.00 u (2) 50.00 u (3) 12.25 u (4) 6.50 u Sol . Answer : (3) Q. 7. Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition? Sol: For an ideal gas, for free expansion q = 0; RT = 0 & w = 0 Answer : (4) Q. 8. For the reaction the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction What is K for the reaction ' Sol: Answer : (4) Q. 9. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process? Sol: x/m = P × T is the incorrect relation Answer : (1) Q.10. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be Sol: Answer : (1) Q. 11. The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively (1) Greater than one and greater than one (2) Less than one and greater than one (3) Less than one and less than one (4) Greater than one and less than one Sol . Fact Answer : (4) Q. 12. Standard electrode potential for couple is +0.15 V and that for the couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be (1) +1.83 V (2) +1.19 V (3) +0.89 V (4) +0.18 V Sol: Answer : (3) Q.13. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is (1) 1 atm (2) 0.5 atm (3) 0.8 atm (4) 0.9 atm Sol. Fact Answer : (2) Q. 14. If the for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of RG° and Keq? Sol: Answer : (1) Q. 15. The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86° cm -1 If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O,the freezing point is changed by –3.82°C. Calculate the van't Hoff factor for Na2SO4 (1) 0.381 (2) 2.05 (3) 2.63 (4) 3.11 Sol: Answer : (3) Q. 16. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. l1 and l2 will be (1) λ1 = 1/2 λ2 (2) λ1 = λ2 (3) λ1 = 2λ2 (4) λ1 = 4λ2 Sol. (3) λ1 = 2λ2 Answer : (3) Q. 17. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, +0.5 V and – 3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be (1) X > Y > Z (2) Y > Z > X (3) Y > X > Z (4) Z > X > Y Sol. Z > X > Y; higher the reduction potential lesser the reducing power Answer : (4) Q. 18. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect? (1) Order of reaction is always whole number (2) Order can be determined only experimentally (3) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants (4) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction Sol: Fact Answer : (1) Q. 19. Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6 kJ. The dissociation energy of H – H bond is (1) +217.4 kJ (2) –434.8 kJ (3) –869.6 kJ (4) +434.8 kJ Sol: The dissociation energy of H – H bond is 869.6/2 = 434.8 KJ Answer : (4) Q. 20. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be (1) ns → np(n -1)d → (n - 2)f (2) ns → n(n - 2)f → (n -1)d → np (3) ns → (n -1)d → (n - 2)f → np (4) ns → (n - 2)f → np → (n -1)d Sol: Fact Answer : (2) Q. 21. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point? (1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2 (3) CaBr2 (4) CaI2 Sol: CaI2 has lowest melting point Answer : (4) Q. 22. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method? (1) Ni and Fe (2) Ga and In (3) Zr and Ti (4) Ag and Au Sol . Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method Answer : (3) Q. 23. The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is (1) C -H < C - O < C - C < C = C (2) C -H < C = C < C -O < C - C (3) C -C < C = C < C - O < C -H (4) C -O < C - H < C - C < C = C Sol. Fact Answer : (2) Q. 24. Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of (1) CrSO4 (2) Cr2(SO4)3 (3) (4) Cr2(SO3)3 Sol. Answer : (2) Q. 25. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of + 2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (1) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (2) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co (3) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (4) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr (At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27) Sol. On the basis of electrode potentials, the correct order is Mn > Fe > Cr > Co Answer : (2Q. 26. Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals Sol. Answer: (1) Q. 27. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron? (1) Phosphorus (2) Manganese (3) Carbon (4) Silicon Sol: Fact Answer : (3) Q. 28. Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base? (1) OH- (2) H2O (3) NH3 (4) BF3 Sol. BF3 is an electron deficient species. Answer : (4) Q. 29. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action? (1) CaCl2 (2) CaOCl2 (3) Ca(OCl)2 (4) CaO2Cl Sol. Fact Answer : (3) Q. 30. The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 0 Sol. Answer : (2) ) Q. 31. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of is shared? (1) Three dimensional (2) Linear chain silicate (3) Sheet silicate (4) Pyrosilicate Sol: Answer : (4) Q. 32. The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6 ] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism? (1) Geometrical isomerism (2) Linkage isomerism (3) Ionization isomerism (4) Coordination isomerism Sol: Co-ordination isomerism Answer(4) |
|