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1. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following lung carcinoma’s
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Epidermoid carcinoma
d. Oat cell carcinoma
2. By knowing the half life of a drug it would help in knowing the
a. Median lethal dose
b. Median effective dose
c. Potency of drug
d. Frequency of dosing
3. Which of the following types of human papiloma viruses is implicated in causation of carcinoma cervix
a. 6
b. 11
c. 16
d. 42
4. The best way to visualize the corneoscleral angle is
a. Slit lamp microscopy
b. Gonioscopy
c. Opthalmoscope
d. Keratometer
5. Mebendazole is used for treatment of all of the following except
a. Intestinal ameobiasis
b. Trichuriasis
c. Ankylostoma
d. Round worm
6. Which of the following causes visceral larva migrane
a. Toxocara catis
b. Ankylostoma doudenale
c. Loa Loa
d. Trichuris trichura
7. Which of the following is content of littre’s hernia
a. Sigmoid colon
b. Urinary bladder
c. Meckel’s diverticulum
d. Ileus
8. Amino Acid Score (AAS) refers to
a. The ratio of number of essential amino acids present in the given diet to reference protein
b. The ratio of number of limiting amino acids present in given diet to the reference protein
c. The number of limiting amino acids present in the given diet
d. The number of essential amino acids present in the given diet
9. Most common tumor of the appendix is
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Carcinoid
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Metastasis
10. Formation of ammonium ions to remove the excess acid in urine is produced by which of the following enzymes
a. Glutaminase
b. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase
c. Glutamate dehydrogenase
d. Carboxylase
11. The normal PR interval is in seconds
a. 0.05-0.08
b. 0.12-0.16
c. 0.8-1.6
d. 1.2-2.3
12. The normal sperm count is
a. 4-5 million/mm3
b. 60-120 million/ml
c. 60-120 lakhs/ml
d. 40-50 lakhs/mm3
13. To balance pressure natriuresis, the renal sodium excretion is
a. Increased with increased arterial pressure
b. Decreased with increased pressure
c. Decreased with decreased pressure
d. Increased with decreased pressure
14. The limiting amino acid in wheat is
a. Lysine
b. Threonine
c. Tryptophan
d. Cysteine
15. Chronic retropharyngeal abcess is formed due to
a. Acute cervical lymphadenitis
b. Caries spine
c. Tonsillitis
d. Trauma
16. Post cricoid malignancy is commonly in
a. Alcoholics
b. Smokers
c. Plummer vinsons syndrome
d. Reflux esophagitis
17. The Henderson Hassalbach equation is used for measuring
a. The sodium potassium balance
b. The acid base balance
c. The kinetics of enzymatic reaction
d. Anion gap
18. All of the following are anabolic except
a. Growth hormone
b. Cortisol
c. Insulin
d. IGF-1
19. In right homonymous hemianopia the lesion is in
a. The right optic nerve
b. Optic chiasma
c. The left Optic tract
d. The Optic radiations in the left cortex
20. Osteochondritis of the lunate bone is known as
a. Friebergs
b. Keinbocks
c. Perthes
d. Kohlers
21. The incubation period of mumps is
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 18 days
d. 25 days
22. To differentiate between osmotic and secretory diarrhea it is best to measure
a. The stool osmolol gap
b. The stool and plasma osmolality
c. The stool anion gap
d. The water content of the stools
23. Cobble stone appearance is seen in
a. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
b. Vernal conjunctivitis
c. Trachoma
d. Herpes Infection
24. The difference between use of a selective alpha1 blocker to using a non selective alpha blocker is
a. Less reflux tachycardia
b. Decreased postural hypotension
c. More vasodilation
d. Vasoconstriction
25. All of the following are actions of epinephrine on beta receptors except
a. Tachycardia
b. Ventricular arrythmia’s
c. A-V block
d. Increased cardiac output
26. Symes amputation is of which of the following types
a. Provisional non end bearing
b. Provisional end bearing
c. Definitive non end bearing
d. Definitive end bearing
27. All of the following are true about amiodarone
a. It acts on fast sodium channels
b. Increase action potential
c. It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres
d. It increases refractory period in A-V node
28. The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteoclast
c. Undifferintiated cells
d. Giant cells
29. In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is
a. Friction
b. &nbsn style='color:navy;layout-grid-mode:line'>c. It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres
d. It increases refractory period in A-V node
28. The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteoclast
c. Undifferintiated cells
d. Giant cells
29. In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is
a. Friction
b. Congestion
c. Infection
d. Mechanical
30. DIC is seen in all of the following except
a. Intra uterine death
b. Extraamniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate
c. Blood loss
d. Amniotic fluid embolism
31. All of the following are conservative management used in ectopic pregnancy except
a. Salpingostomy
b. Salpingotomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Methotrexate
32. Hyperemisis Gravidarium in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of the following except
a. H.Mole
b. Twins
c. Preeclampsia
d. Primigravida
33. Volume of synovial fluid in knee joint is
a. 0.5-4 ml
b. 4-8 ml
c. 10-20 ml
d. 8-12 ml
34. The increased production of vitamin D induced transport protein increases absorption of
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Zinc
35. The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are
a. Directed against parietal cells
b. Prevents binding of IF and B12
c. Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex
d. Are directed against enterocytes in ileum
36. Most common site of urethral rupture is
a. Prostatic
b. Penile
c. Bulbar
d. Membranous
37. WHO day is celebrated all over the day on
a. April 10
b. April 7th
c. May 31st
d. Dec 1st
38. Small Pox was declared globally eradicated on
a. 7th May 1977
b. 1975
c. 8th May 1980
d. 14th April 1977
39. The membranous separating the region between the feotal skull bones is called as
a. Fontanels
b. Wormian Bones
c. Sutures
d. Ostia
40. Bisphosphonates act by
a. Preventing calcium absorption in GIT
b. Inhibiting osteoclast mediated bone resorption
c. Preventing Ca excretion
41. Altering blood pH and preventing Ca resorption
a. Odd’s ratio measures the strength of association and
b. The ratio of incidence of disease in exposed to nonexposed
c. The risk factors and outcome
d. The ratio between exposed to the incidence of disease in the total population
42. The structures marking the seperation of the duodenum and the jejunum is
a. The superior mesenteric vein
b. The bile duct
c. The ligament of trietz
d. The caudate lobe of liver
43. In an immunosupressed individual suffering from viral , opportunistic fungal and parasitic infections is suffering mainly from a defect in
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Complement
d. Neutrophils
44. For contraception (post contraception) all of the following are used except
a. Mifepristone
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Levonorgestrol
d. Prostaglandins
45. All of the following are used in treatment of endometriosis except
a. Danazol
b. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
c. OCP’s
d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist
46. During a surgery ligation of which of the following small veins in the abdomen can lead to death of the patient
a. IVC
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Coronary vein
d. Splenic vein
47. All of the following are associated with maculopapular rash except
a. Typhoid
b. Dengue
c. Chicken pox
d. Measles
48. Punctate basophilia is seen in
a. Erythrocytes
b. Nuetrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
49. The fibrous layer is missing in
a. Pars tensa
b. Pars flaccida
c. Umbo
d. Anullus of tympanic membrane
50. Myotonic dystrophy inheritance is by
a. Autosomal Dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Multifactorial
51. X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in
a. Polycystic Kidney disease
b. Vitamin D resistant rickets
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Von willibrands disease
52. Von Willibrands disease is transmitted as
a. Autosomal recessive
b. Autosomal Dominant
c. X-linked recessive
d. Y-linked recessive
53. Internal hordeolum is
a. Chronic granulomatous infection of Meibomian glands
b. Acute supperative infection of Miebomian glands
c. Acute infection of glands of Zei’s
d. Lacrimal gland infection
54. The protein content in breast milk is
a. 0.8 gm/100 ml
b. 0.9 gm/10 ml
c. 1 gm/10ml
d. 2 gms/100 ml
55. Dysphagia lusoria is due to
a. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery
b. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery
c. Compression by aortic arch
d. Obstruction due to foreign body
56. Sensitivity is written in the formula as
a. TP/FP+FN
b. TP/FN+TN
c. TP/TN+TP
d. TP/TN+FP
57. Annual parasite incidence measures
a. Number of confirmed cases due to malaria in 1 yr *1000 / Population under surveillance
b. Number of cases of malaria due to falciparam in 1 yr * 1000 / Total population
c. Number of slides examined *1000 / Total population
d. Number of faciparum malria cases in 2-10 yr old children*1000 / Total population
58. As per WHO TB is said to be under control when
a. <1% population is tuberculin positive
b. <1% population is sputum positive
c. <1% infection in children less then 14 years
d. <5% TB cases
59. Tullio Phenomenon refers to
a. Increased sensitivity to hearing
b. Better hearing in noisy surrounding
c. Impedence matching
d. Vertigo on hearing high freq sounds
60. Thornwalds disease is infection of
a. Pharyngeal bursa
b. Space of gillete
c. Crypta magna
d. Subhyoid infection
61. All of the following are true regarding ulcerative colitis except
a. Decreased goblet cells
b. Crypt abcess
c. Destruction of crypts
d. Transmural infarction
62. Avoiding reflex is due to
a. Right frontal lobe disease
b. Dominant parietal lobe disease
c. Non dominant parietal lobe disease
d. Left Frontal lobe disease
63. All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except
a. Hypotonia
b. Adiodokinesia
c. Resting tremors
d. Ataxia
64. Normal oxygen tension with decreased oxygen carrying capacity is seen in
a. Histotoxic hypoxia
b. Anemic hypoxia
c. Stagnant hypoxia
d. Hypoxic hypoxia
65. Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as
a. Dyslexia
b. Aphasia
c. Disconnection syndrome
d. Apraxia
66. Abelson oncogene is associated with which of the following leukemias
a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Acute leukemic leukemia
c. Chronic myeloid leukemia
d. Chronic leukemic leukemia
67. In CML the translocation occurring is
a. Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 21
b. Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 22
c. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 21
d. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 22
68. M4 in the classification of AML denotes which of the following stages
a. Promyelocytic
b. Monocytic
c. Myelomonocytic
d. Megakaryocytic
69. The M4 stage in AML is associated with the presence of
a. Megaloblasts
b. Myeloblasts
c. Both myeloblasts and megaloblasts
d. Promylocytes
70. KANAVEL’S sign is seen in
a. Acute tenosynovitis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Appendicitis
d. Ectopic pregnancy
71. The most common cause of multiple strictures in the small intestine is
a. TB
b. Ischeamic enteritis
c. Crohns disease
d. Ulcerative colitis
72. In a post appendectomy patient the cause of an external fistula formation is
a. TB
b. Intussuception
c. Crohns disease
d. Ulcerative colitis
73. Feacal fistula at the umbilicus is due to
a. Patent urachus
b. Vescico intestinal diverticulum
c. Omphalocele
d. Infection
74. Most common cause of vescico vaginal fistula in developing countries is due to
a. Obstructed labour
b. Werthiems hysterectomy
c. Ceasarian section
d. Forceps delivery
75. All of the following operations are done in incontinence except
a. Kelleys stitch
b. Aldridge’s operation
c. Marshal marchetti krantz operation
d. Shirodhkars sling operation
76. Most common type of incontinence seen in UTI is
a. False
b. Overflow
c. Urge
d. True
77. Deep tranverse arrest is commonly associated with which of the following types of pelvis
a. Platypelloid
b. Android
c. Anthrapoid
d. Gyenecoid
78. Which of the following is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the occipitoposterior position
a. Moderate size fetus
b. Gynecoid pelvis
c. Weak uterine contractions
d. Good levator ani muscle contractions
79. Which of the following sinuses is commonly associated with development of osteomyelitis in the face
a. Maxillary
b. Ethmoid
c. Frontal
d. Sphenoid
80. Atropine causes decrease salivation and bronchodilatation . These properties enable it to used in as
a. Preaneasthetic medication
b. Hyertension
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. MI
81. All of the following are true about succinylcholine except
a. Causes persistent depolarizing block
b. Metabolized by psuedocholinesterase
c. Block can be reversed by neostigmine
d. Has a short half life
82. Maculopaular rash is seen is all of the following except
a. Typhoid
b. Varicella
c. Dengue
d. Measles
83. Diastomatomyelia is
a. Discontinuity in spinal cord
b. Spur in spinal cord
c. Absence of dorsal column
d. Dislocated disc
84. The weight of the body is transmitted through the axis of the vertebrae passing through
a. Lamina
b. Vertebral Body
c. Pedicle
d. Dorsal arch
85. All of the following are selective beta blockers except
a. Atenolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Bisoprlol
d. Propranolol
86. All of the following are seen in Tetralogy of Fallot except
a. VSD
b. Overiding aorta
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Left ventricular hypertrophy
87. In most patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Normal
d. Absent
88. In Freidrichs type V hyperlipedemias the protein raised is
a. IDL
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. Chylomicronsii
89. Atoprine is used in treatment of all of the following except
a. Iridocyclitis
b. Angle closure glaucoma
c. Corneal ulcer
d. Before refraction assessment
90. Wickhams striae is characteristically is seen in
a. Psoriasis
b. Lichen planus
c. Pemphigus
d. Pemphigoid
91. Rhinitis sicca involves
a. Anterior nares
b. Septum
c. Posterior wall
d. Lateral wall
92. Acute pancreatitis is caused most commonly by
a. Gallstones
b. Alcohol
c. Truama
d. Drugs
93. All of the following about meperidine are true except
a. Has shorter half life then morphine
b. Greater spasmogenic action then morphine
c. Has dependency
d. Better oral avialabilty
94. The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by
a. Lacunar ligament
b. Femoral ligament
c. Femoral vein
d. Femoral nerve
95. Posterior relation of Winslows foramen is
a. IVC
b. Liver
c. Doudenum
d. Pancreas
96. The death sentence given by a judicial officer has to be confirmed by
a. Sessions court
b. Additional sessions court
c. High court
d. Supreme court
97. The asbestos which of least likely pathogenic is
a. Crocodolite
b. Crysolite
c. Amsolyte
d. Trenolite
98. Most common surgical complication of typhoid is
a. Myocarditis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Hemorrhage
d. Ileal perforation
99. In a patient with highly selective protienuria the protein lost is
a. Transferrin
b. Albumin and fibronogen
c. Transferrin and fibronogen
d. Fibronogen
100. The immunologic response giving protection to Hepatitis A for long periods
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgD
101. In window period in Hepatitis B infection, the severly shows
a. HbsAg
b. Anti HbsAg
c. HbeAg
d. Anti HbeAg
102. Characteristic skin lesion in Peutz Jeghers syndrome is
a. Freckles
b. Lentigenes
c. Café u-lait spots
d. Adenoma Sebacium
103. Characteristic lesion in tuberous sclerosis
a. Café u lait
b. Adenoma sebaceum
c. Lentigenes
d. Melanoma
104. All of the following are common uses of beta blockers and calcium channel blockers except
a. Atrial arrythmias
b. Hypertension
c. Variant angina
d. Migraine
105. Cardiac output is decreased by
a. Increased sympathetic activity
b. Tachycardia
c. Increased preload
d. Decreaesd venous return
106. The parasympathetic effect on bronchial smooth muscle causes
a. Increased tidal volume
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Bronchodilatation
d. No effect
107. All of the following are true about cochlea except
a. Lesion in cochlea causes nerve deafness
b. Contains the tectorial membrane which is fine tuned
c. It contains the hearing sense organs
d. Lesion causes vertigo
108. Myopia is best corrected by
a. Convex lenses
b. Concave lenses
c. Astigmatic lenses
d. Prisms
109. All of the following are causes of complicated cataract except
a. Malignant Myopia
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Retinitis Pigmentosa
d. Iridocyclitis
110. The most common cause of psuedohermaphroditism is
a. Ovarian dysgenesis
b. Ovarian tumor
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. PCOD
111. The D/D of rectal prolapse in a child is
a. Intusseception
b. Rectal polyp
c. Heamorrhoids
d. Tumor
112. Most common cause of stridor in newborn is
a. Subglottic stenosis
b. Laryngomalacia
c. Foreiegn Body
d. Infection
113. All of the following are functions of saliva except
a. Acts as lubricant for mastication
b. It helps in perception of taste by dissolving
c. It helps in digestion of carbohydrates
d. It helps in digestion of proteins
114. The blood supply of SA node is
a. Left coronary artery
b. Right coronary artery
c. Left circumflex artery
d. Anterior descending artery
115. The graph used to measure to unrelated variables like height and weight are
a. Scatter diagram
b. Bar chart
c. Pie chart
d. Histogram
116. Reverse intussuception occurs in
a. Ileocolic
b. Ileoceacal
c. Colocolic
d. Jejunogastric
117. Aspirin can be used in all of the following except
a. Dysmennorhes
b. Acute inflammation of joints
c. Post MI
d. Viral infection
118. All of the following are true about metropathia heamoragica except
a. Swiss cheese endometrium
b. Common nearing menopause
c. Anovulatory cycles
d. Metrorhagia
119. Savlon contains
a. Cetavlon + hibitane
b. Cetavlon + Chlorheximide
c. Hibitane + Chlorhexenol
d. Cetavlon + Chlorohexenol
120. Most common adverse effect of Ziduvudine is
a. Myopathy
b. Bone marrow toxicity
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Hepatitis
121. All of the following are advantages of using INH in antiTB treatment except
a. It reduces load of TB bacilli
b. It kills intracellular TB bacilli
c. It acts on dormant bacilli
d. It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy
122. The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is
a. Chlorpropamide
b. Thiazide
c. Desmopressin
d. Frusemide
123. All of the following are physiological cysts in the ovary except one which is a tumor
a. Theca cysts
b. Dermoid
c. Luteal cysts
d. Corpus luteum cysts
124. Development of testes is dependant upon which of the following
a. X chromosome
b. Y chromosome
c. XY chromosomes
d. XX chromosomes
125. Turners syndrome karyotype is
a. 45, XXY
b. 45 0
c. 45,XX
d. 45, XY
126. All of the following are indications of enucleation except
a. Malignant myopia
b. Pthysis bulbi
c. Panopthalmitis
d. Total anterior staphyloma
127. Purely ketogenic aminoacid
a. Proline
b. Tyrosine
c. Leucine
d. Phenylanine
128. Ponderal index is
a. Wt/Ht2
b. 100-ht in cms
c. Wt/cube root of Ht
d. Observed weight/Expected weight
129. WHO’s definition of blindness is
a. <6/60
b. <3/60
c. <20/60
d. <1/60
130. All of the following are seen in abruptio placentae except
a. Tenderness over the abdomen
b. Renal failure
c. Uterine inversion
d. DIC
131. PQLI includes
a. IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, economic growth product
b. IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, literacy
c. MMR, literacy, economic growth product
d. IMR, life expectancy at birth and knowledge
132. Freshly prepared bleaching powder yields what % of chlorine
a. 66%
b. 33%
c. 50%
d. 20%
133. Iodized salt at production level and at consumer level should be
a. 45 ppm and 15 ppm
b. 30 ppm and 15 ppm
c. 40 ppm and 20 ppm
d. 20 ppm and 10 ppm
134. The toxin implicated in lathyrism is
a. Pyrralizidone
b. BOAA
c. Sanguinarine
d. Aflatoxin
135. Chronic noise exposure above what level causes deafness
a. 100 Db
b. 85 Db
c. 70 Db
d. 140 Db
136. All of the following are seen in horners syndrome except
a. Ptosis
b. Miosis
c. Proptosis
d. Anhydrosis
137. Antigen drift involving infleunza indicates
a. Major shift in the structure of the antigens
b. Minor variations in the viral nucleocapsid
c. Minor antigenic variations in the heamagluttinin and neuroaminidase antigens
d. Recombination with host DNA
138. Skin contains which type of glands largely
a. Apocrine and sweat glands
b. Ecocrine and sweat glands
c. Holocrine and sweat glands
d. Sebacious and sweat glands
139. Acute flaccid paralysis is suddenly caused by
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypokalemia
140. In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from abnormality involving
a. Aldosterone
b. ADH
c. Insulin
d. Growth hormone
141. Chlamydia is best treated by
a. Tetracycline
b. Ampicillin
c. Gentamycin
d. Cephalexin
142. True about competitive inhibitor is
a. Decrease in Km and Vmax
b. Decrease in Vmax and Km is same
c. Increase in Km and Vmax is same
d. Decrease in Km and Vmax is same
143. Best drug to potentiate DOPA is
a. Pyridoxine
b. Carbidopa
c. Pergolide
d. Amantadine
144. Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following except
a. Air insufflation
b. Sonosalpingogography
c. Hysterosalpingography
d. Laproscopic chromotubation
145. Kernicterus is caused by
a. Bilirubin monoglucoronide
b. Albumin bound bilirubin
c. Unbound bilirubin
d. Bilirubin diglucoronide
146. Mechanism of action of cluvalinic acid is
a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibits beta lactamase
c. Acts on protein synthesis
d. Causes miss reading of DNA
147. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by
a. Growth hormone
b. Stomatostatin
c. Dopamine
d. TSH
148. In increased stage of endometrial carcinoma treatment given is
a. Tamoxifen
b. Medroxyprogesterone
c. Danazol
d. Methotrexate

149. Normal fluoride level for drinking purposes is in mgs/lt
a. 0.08-0.5
b. 0.8-1.2
c. 1-1.75
d. 1.5-3.5
150. Epinephrine can be used in all of the following except
a. Anaphylactic shock
b. Chronic bronchial asthma
c. Cardiac resuscitation
d. To prevent local bleed