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CMC Vellore PG Entrance exam question paper

1. True regarding the following statements is all except
1. 500 ml of normal saline contains 77 mEq of Na+
2. 50 ml 25% dextrose gives 50 kcals of energy
3. 20 ml 15% potassium chloride contains 40 meq of K+
4. 10 ml of calcium chloride contains 9 meq of Ca++ Ans. 2
2. External ear is developed from
1. First branchial arch
2. First and second branchial arch
3. Second and Third branchial arch
4. Second branchial arch Ans. 2
3. True about tympanic membrane is all except
1. Tympanic membrane is attached to annulus ring made of fibrous cartilage
2. Lined by stratified epithelium in continuity with external auditory canal
3. It is inclined at an angle of 35 degrees to the meatus
4. It has sensory supply via the auriculotemporal branch of the Mandibular Nerve Ans. 3
4. A 12 year old child came presenting with nasal obstruction. On examination there was a bilobed polyp protruding from the right nasal cavity. The management of this child is
1. Medical treatment till she is 18 years of age
2. Caldwell luc operation to be done
3. Endoscopic sinus operation
4. Polypectomy Ans. 4
5. Treatment of choice for a patient with inverted papilloma of right side of nasal cavity is
1. Partial Maxillectomy
2. Total Maxillectomy
3. Local excision
4. Radiotherapy Ans. 2
6. A child presenting with history of nasal obstruction since 5 years and with epistaxis since 1 year. CT scan showed a tumor arising in left nasal cavity and extending into the nasopharynx as well. It was decided that she requires surgery. The best approach required for resection of
the tumor is
1. Transpalatal
2. Sublabial
3. Transmaxillary
4. Lateral rhinotomy Ans. 4
7. A child presented with history of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge from the same side. The diagnosis is
1. Antrachoanal polyp
2. Foreign body
3. Angiofibroma
4. Rhinosporidiosis Ans. 3
8. In which of the following operations is the Eustachian tube closed
1. Modified radical mastoidectomy
2. Radical mastoidectomy
3. Endolymphatic decompression
4. Attico antrotomy Ans. 2
9. Modified Radical operation is done in all the following conditions except
1. Cholesteatoma
2. Coalescent mastoidectomy
3. Deafness with fascial palsy
4. Cholestatoma with sensory neural deafness Ans. 2
10. Schwartz sign is seen in
1. Glomus jugulare
2. Otosclerosis
3. Tympanic granuloma Ans. 2
11. Tympanic membrane and ossicles efficiently transmit sound to the inner ear at which of the following frequencies
1. 200-1000 hrz
2. 500-3000 hrz
3. 2000-3000 hrz
4. 3000-5000 hrz Ans. 2
12. In a patient with acoustic neuroma all are seen except
1. Fascial nerve may be involved
2. Tinnitus is present
3. Deafness
4. Acute episodes of vertigo occur Ans. 1
13. A patient is suspected to have vestibular shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
1. Contrast enhanced CT scan
2. Gadolinium enhanced MRI
3. SPECT
4. PET scan Ans. 2
14. In a patient with trauma with middle cranial fossa fracture complains of loss of tear secretion. This occurs due to injury to
1. Ciliary ganglion
2. Greater superficial Petrosal nerve
3. Stellate ganglion
4. Trigeminal nerve Ans. 2
15. Sensory nerve supply over the angle of mandible is due to
1. Superficial cervical nerve
2. Greater auricular nerve
3. Posterior auricular nerve
4. Lingual nerve Ans. 2
16. True regarding venous drainage of thyroid is all except
1. Middle thyroid vein drains into internal jugular vein
2. Inferior thyroid vein drains into external jugular vein
3. The veins of thyroid are valveless
4. Superficial thyroid vein is closely related with external branch of superficial laryngeal
nerve Ans. 2
17. All the following tumors of the larynx involve cervical lymph nodes except
1. Transglottic
2. Glottic
3. Supraglottic
4. Infraglottic Ans. 2
18. Most common tumor to have metastatic involvement of upper deep cervical lymph nodes is
1. Pharynx
2. Colon
3. Breast
4. Kidney Ans. 1
19. All are causes of grey white membrane in throat except
1. Streptococcus
2. Ludwig angina
3. adenovirus
4. Diphtheria Ans. 2
20. Which of the following acts on the uveoscleral tract
1. Levobunol
2. Epinephrine
3. Latanoprost
4. Timolol maleate Ans. 3
21. Fibrous attachment of lid to the eye globe is known as
1. Symbelpharon
2. Ankyloblepharon
3. Ectropion
4. Syndesmosis Ans. 1
22. In a susceptible patient which of the following drugs precipitate glaucoma
1. Phenylalanine
2. Phentolamine
3. Homatropine
4. Epinephrine Ans. 3
23. In a patient with cataract, capsulotomy with removal of lens nucleus followed by aspiration of cortical content is known as
1. Intracapsular cataract extraction
2. Extracapsular cataract extraction
3. Discission
4. Lensectomy Ans. 2
24. Dilator pupillae is supplied by
1. Adrenergic fibres of Oculomotor nerve
2. Cholinergic fibers of Oculomotor nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Fascial nerve Ans. 1
25. A patient presented with unilateral ptosis and diplopia and on examination was found to have decreased movement of eyeball in all directions. The patient also complains of difficulty reading newsprint. The diagnosis is
1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Oculomotor palsy Ans. 2
26. In Oculomotor palsy all the following are seen except
1. Ptosis
2. Eye deviated upward and medially
3. Mydriasis
4. Proptosis Ans. 2
27. Cherry red spot is seen in
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Central retinal artery occlusion
3. Optic neuritis
4. Adreno leukodystrophy Ans. 2
28. Anisometropia means
1. Both the eye are not oriented in the same parallel axis
2. There is high difference of refractive errors between the two eye
3. Sublaxation of one of the eye
4. Difference in image sizes’ Ans. 2
29. In a patient presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus. All are true except
1. It is caused by varicella
2. It is lodged in the gasserian ganglion
3. Corneal involvement is always associated with tip of nasal involvement and ulcers
4. Punctate Keratitis may coalesce and unite to form dendritic ulcers which simulate
Herpes simplex Ans. 4
30. Night blindness is caused by all except
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Cone dystrophy
3. Xeroderma pigmentosa
4. *** Ans. 2
31. Fleicher’s ring is seen in
1. Pterygium
2. Chalcosis
3. Keratoconus
4. Trauma Ans. 3
32. All the following are true regarding acute anterior uveitis in Ankylosing spondylitis except
1. More common in females
2. Recurrent attacks occur
3. Fibrous reaction in anterior chamber
4. Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of sacroiliac joint Ans. 1
33. In a patient with color blindness all the following are true except
1. It is a misnomer as it is actually a color defect and not blindness
2. There is normal visual acuity
3. Most common anomaly is blue green defect
4. More common in males Ans. 3
34. True regarding point source epidemic is
1. Secondary waves occur
2. There is a rapid rise in the wave which platues
3. All cases occur in a single incubation period of the disease
4. It is propagative Ans. 3
35. Positive predictive value is most affected by
1. Prevalence
2. Sensitivity
3. Specificity
4. Relative risk Ans. 1
36. Which of the following is true about case control studies
1. Attributable risk is calculated
2. Gives central tendency
3. Prevalence can be calculated
4. Incidence can be calculated Ans. 2
37. In a population to prevent coronary artery disease changing harmful lifestyles by education is referred to as
1. High risk strategy
2. Primary prevention
3. Secondary prevention
4. Tertiary prevention Ans. 2
38. All the following get immune protection from maternal antibodies except
1. Pertussis
2. Tetanus
3. Measles
4. Diphtheria Ans. 1
39. Live vaccines are all except
1. Oral polio vaccine
2. MMR
3. DPT
4. Hepatitis B Ans. 1&2
40. Which of the following is true about tuberculin test
1. It gives the immune status of patient
2. It may be negative in dissociated tuberculosis
3. It tells about prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis only
4. It is highly positive in a post measles case Ans. 2
41. True about measles is all except
1. Kopliks spots appear as rash disappears
2. It is prevented by both active and passive immunization
3. Otitis media and meningitis are the most common complications
4. TB is aggravated in post measles Ans. 1
42. True regarding pertussis is all except
1. It is associated with an inspiratory whoop
2. It is a droplet infection
3. Parapertussis causes more sever disease then pertussis
4. Pneumonia is most complication Ans. 3
43. Disease under WHO surveillance are all except
1. Malaria
2. Relapsing fever
3. Polio
4. Diphtheria Ans. 4
44. In a 2 year old child calories as supplied in ICDS diet is
1. 200 k cal
2. 300-400 k cal
3. 500-600 k cal
4. 1000 k cal Ans. 2
45. All the following are true regarding echinococcus granulosis except
1. Man is intermediate host
2. Infection is most commonly from dogs
3. Eggs ingestion are the portal of entry
4. Demonstartion of eggs in stool is diagnostic Ans. 4
46. Which of the following helps in diagnosis , in biopsy of brain specimen in Rabies
1. Asteroid bodies
2. Sheurmann bodies
3. Negri bodies
4. Lewy bodies Ans. 3
47. Diagnostic investigation in Tuberculosis is
1. Auramine Rhodamine stain
2. Sputum examination
3. Sputum culture
4. PCR Ans. 4
48. All the following are true about malaria due to plasmodium vivax except
1. Merozoites can reinfect hepatocytes
2. Infected erythrocytes are pale and enlarged in size
3. Incubation period is 48 hrs
4. Commonly associated with greater then 10% parasitemia Ans. 1
49. In a pregnant lady diagnosed to have malaria due to P.vivax should be treated with
1. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine
2. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine and pyramethamine
3. Treatment with chloroquine and radical treatment with oribiquin
4. Presumptive treatment with Quinine Ans. 3
50. True regarding endotoxin is
1. It is composed of lipopolysacharide which is part of cell membrane
2. Implicated in causation of Toxic shock syndrome
3. It is secreted by the bacteria
4. It is present in gram positive organisms Ans. 1
51. All the following can be grown in cell free culture media except
1. Mycoplasma
2. Rickettsia
3. Mycobacteria
4. Campylobacter Ans. 2
52. Which of following is a motile organism
1. Pseudomonas
2. Klebsiella
3. Streptococcus
4. Campylobacter Ans. 1
53. In a splenectomized patient there is increased chances of infection by all the following organisms except
1. Pneumococci
2. Klebsiella
3. H.Influenza
4. Staphylococcus aureus Ans. 4
54. The common causes of Acute otitis media in children are
1. Branhamella and Moraxella
2. Streptococci and pertussis
3. Streptococci Pneumoniae and H.Influenza
4. E.coli and Pseudomonas Ans. 3
55. Most common cause of community acquired neonatal meningitis is
1. Pseudomonas
2. Entamoeba coli
3. Neisseria Meningitis
4. Klebsiella Ans. 4
56. In India which of the following is true regarding the cause of travelers diarrhea
1. Giardiasis
2. E.coli
3. Amebiasis
4. Idiopathic without any causative organism Ans. 2
57. The bubo caused by plague differs from those due to other causes by all except
1. Gradual onset
2. Tenderness
3. Absence of signs of ascending cholangitis
4. Associated systemic toxic symptoms Ans. 1
58. A child presented with diarrhea followed by development of rashes and petechiae. The diagnosis is
1. Campylobacter
2. Shigella
3. Giardia
4. Vibrio cholera Ans. 2
59. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is
1. Salmonella
2. Staphylococci
3. Pseudomonas
4. E.coli Ans. 2
60. True regarding Typhoid is
1. Stool culture is always indicative of disease
2. Blood culture be used for diagnosis in the 1st 7 to 10 days
3. Urine culture is positive in second week
4. Serology in 1st week Ans. 2
61. Mucosal immunity is due to
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE Ans. 2
62. All are stimulants of immune system except
1. Il-1
2. Il-6
3. Il-10
4. TNF alpha Ans. 3
63. All the following are true about primary CNS lymphoma except
1. Most common type is diffuse histiocytic type
2. Most are of T-cell origin
3. Multicentric location
4. Causes focal signs Ans. 2
64. To obtain double stranded cDNA from mRNA the enzyme involved is
1. DNA polymerase
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Ligase
4. Polymerase II Ans. 2
65. The mother is suffering from HIV. The earliest time where infection is seen in the fetus is
1. 8 weeks
2. 15 weeks
3. 28 weeks
4. 22 weeks Ans. 1

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Christian Medical College
Ida Scudder Road
Vellore, Tamil Nadu 632004