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GPAT sample test paper

1. Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hypercaliemia
b. A decrease in intraocular pressure
c. Emesis
d. Muscle pain

2. Correct statements about cortisol (hydrocortisone. include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Cortisol is synthesized from cholesterol
b. ACTH governs cortisol secretion
c. Most cortisol is inactivated in the liver
d. The half-life of cortisol in the circulations is normally about 60-90 hours

3. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
a. Tubocurarine
b. Succinylcholine
c. Pancuronium
d. Gallamine

4. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug?
a. Prednisolon
b. Dexamethasone
c. Triamcinolone
d. All of the above

5. Which of the following diseases can augment the neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing musclerelaxants?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Burns
c. Asthma
d. Parkinsonism

6. the drug which belongs to nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
a. Didanosine
b. Gancyclovir
c. Nevirapine
d. Vidarabine

7. The unwanted effects of zidovudine:
a. Hallucinations, dizziness
b. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia
c. Hypertension, vomiting
d. Peripheral neuropathy

8. Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing drugs:
a. Atropine
b. Neostigmine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Pralidoxime

9. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly?
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Ephedrine
d. Methoxamine

10. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. ALFA receptors increase arterial resistence, whereas beta receptor promote smooth muscle relaxation
b. The skin and splanchic vessels have predominantly alfa receptors
c. Vessels in a skeletal muscle may constrict or dilate depending on whether alfa or beta receptors are activated
d. Skeletal muscle vessels hav predominantly alfa receptors and constrict in the presence of epinephrine and norepinephrine

11. the group of hormonal drugs used for cancer treatment:
a. Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
b. Glucocorticoids and gonadal hormones
c. Gonadal hormones and somatotropin
d. Insulin

12. Methotrexate is:
a. A purine antagonist
b. A folic acid antagonist
c. An antibiotic
d. An alkylating agent


13. The action mechanism of anticancer drugs belonging to plant alkaloids:
a. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis
b. Cross-linking of DNA
c. Mitotic arrest at a metaphase
d. Nonselective inhibition of aromatases

14. Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Acute peptic ulcers
b. Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome
c. Salicylism
d. Hypomania or acute psychosis

15. Side effect of cyclosporine A is:
a. Tremor
b. Anorexia
c. Chills
d. Myalgia

16. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT:
a. Bronchial muscles
b. Heart
c. Pupillary dilator muscle
d. Fat cells

17. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a.Αlfa agonists cause miosis
b.Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis
c. Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor
d.Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye

18. drug used for influenza A prevention
a. Acyclovir
b. Rimantadine
c. Saquinavir
d. Foscarnet

19. A bronchial smooth muscle contains:
a. Alfa 1 receptor
b. Αlfa 2 receptor
c. Beta 1 receptor
d. Beta 2 receptor
20. Enzyme drug used for acute leukemia treatment:
a. Dihydrofolate reductase
b. Asparaginase
c. Aromatase
d. DNA gyrase
/
21. Which of the following antivitamins prevent a vitamin A from exerting its typical metabolic effects?
a. Lipooxidase
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Antibiotics
d. All of the above

22. Which of the following antienzymes is a proteolysis inhibitor?
a. Contrical
b. Sulbactam
c. Aminocaproic acid
d. Disulfiram

23. All pharmacy colleges conducting degree/diploma in pharmacy has
to submitte SIF every year on OR before?
A. 30 th August
B. 30 th September
C. 1 st April
D. None

24. The first pharmacy council of India was constituted by the central Government in
A. 1948
B. 1949
C. 1991
D. 1956

25. Substance specified under which schedule be labeled with the words “Poison: For External Use Only”
A. Schedule G
B. Schedule H
C. Schedule E
D. Schedule P



26. Life period of drug, Ampicillin Sodium” in Cool place is for
A. 12 months B. 24 months
C. 36 months D. 48 months

27. Which color label is used for blood group “O”
A. Blue
B. Yellow
C. Pink
D. White

28. rescription related to Narcotic drug has symbol on the top
A. NRx
B. PRx
C. Rx
D. Nx

29. National Institute of Pharmaceutical education and research was
first established at
A. Ahmedabad
B. Hyderabad
C. Mohali
D. Guwahati

30. Which section of D & C 1940 related with Adulterated drug?
A. 33E
B. 33EE
C. 33D
D. 33G

31. The drug controller general of India is a Ex-officio member of
A. DTAB
B. State Pharmacy council
C. Technical Education Board of State
D. Supreme court of India

32. Provision Applicable To The Production of Bacterial Vaccine Under
Which Schedule of D & C Act
A. Schedule E
B. Schedule C1
C. Schedule C
D. Schedule F

33. Haritaki is the Ayurvedic name of
A. Tinospora cordifolia
B. Terminalia belerica
C. Terminelia Arjuna
D. Terminelia chebula

34. One of the following is a “Steroidal Glycoside” as phytoconstituents, it is
A. Quilalia
B. Senna
C. Cascara
D. Digitalis

35. Chemical test for Caffeine is:
A. Keris test
B. Hal-Phens test
C. Murexide test
D. Boarfoeds test

36. Total ash value in the case of crude drug signifies:
A. Organic content of the drug
B. Woody matters present in the drug
C. Mineral matter in the drug
D. All Above

37. Salkowski reaction is used for identify
A. Steroids
B. Tri-terpenes
C. Alkaloids
D. Guggul lipids

38. Which drug is not steroidal saponins?
A. Dioscorea
B. Brahmi
C. Shatavari
D. Gokhru

39. Which one of the following drug does not contain steroidal alkaloid?
A. Kantakari
B. Kada chhal
C. Vacchanag
D. Green hellebore

40. Multiseriate medullary rays and steroidal alkaloids are present in
A. Veratrum
B. Kurchi bark
C. Ashwagandha root
D. Kantakari


41. Creatinine level in urine is analyzed by
A. Hay’s test B. Gmelin test
C. Schiff’s test D. Jaffe’s test

42. Vitiligo is treated by using
A. Embellica officinalis
B. Saraca Indica
C. Azadirachta indica
D. Psoralea corylifolia

43. Rutin is a example of
A. Triterpenoid glycosides
B. Tropane alkaloids
C. Saponin glycoside
D. Flavonoid glycoside

44. Theventia nerrifolia contain
A. Anthraquinone nucleus
B. Flavonol nucleus
C. Steroid nucleus
D. Triterpenoid nucleus

45. Chitin give yellowish brown colour with which reagent?
A. sudan red
B. chlor zinc chloride
C. alcohol chlorophyll solution
D. iodine solution + sulphuric acid
/
46. PANAXADIOL is a constituenet of
A. Ginger
B. Paper
C. Ginseng
D. Jatamansi

47. Dragandroff’s reagent doesn’t give a positive test with
A. Emetine
B. Morphine
C. Caffine
D. Codeine

48. In libbermannen Burchard test upper layer shows ____________ colour which shows presence of steroids
A. Red
B. Green
C. Violet
D. Blue

49. Alcohol acts as a clearing agent by dissolving:
A. Gums B. Mucilage
C. Resins D. All of above
50. Which solution is commonly known as cuoxam
A. Copper Dioxide + Ammoniacal solution B. Copper oxide + Silver nitrite solution
C. Copper oxide + Ammoniacal solution
D. None of them

51. Swelling index is defined as the volume in
A. Millilitres occupied by 1 g of a drug
B. Millilitres occupied by 1 mg of a drug
C. Millilitres occupied by 10 g of a drug
D. Millimetres occupied by 1 g of a drug

52. Murexide test is used for detection of
A. Tropane alkaloids
B. Quinoline alkaloids
C. Pyridine alkaloids
D. Purine alkaloids

53. Family for tea plant is
A. Rubiaceae
B. Apocyanaceae
C. Malvaceae
D. Theaceae

54. Determination of swelling index is used for
A. Opium
B. Isbagul
C. Senna
D. Digitalis


55. Lyophilization means
a. Sterilization
b. Freeze-drying
c. Burning to ashes
d. Exposure to formation

56. The term that is used for the bacteria
which can withstand pasteurization but
does not grow at higher temperatures
a. Thermophiles
b. Extreme thermophiles
c. Thermoduric
d. Facultative thermophiles
57. Ergot disease is caused by
a. Puccinia
b. Rhizopus
c. Claveceps
d. Penicillium
58. Nagler reaction detects
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium botulinum

59. Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a
microorganism
a. Nitrosomonas
b. Nitrosococcus
c. Nitrobacter
d. Azatobacter

60. The main product of glycolysis under
aerobic conditions is
a. Pyruvate
b. Lactate
c. None of these
d. Both a and b

61. Drug resistance in bacteria is mainly
determined by factor:
a. F
b. R
c. Col
d. Lysogenic factor

/
62. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?
a. SV 40
b. T4 phage
c. Tobacco mosaic virus
d. Adeno virus

63. Prausnitz kustner reaction generated by
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgD

64. Natural killer cells
a. Belongs to B-cell lineage
b. Belongs to T-cell lineage
c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation

65. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum

66. Carcinoma refers to
a. Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
b. Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous
membrane
c. Malignant tumours of the colon
d. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue

67. The general formula of carbohydrate is
a. (CH2O.n
b. (C4H2O.n
c. (C6H2O.n
d. (C2H2O.n COOH
/
68. Chitin consists of
a. N-acetyl muramic acid
b. N-acetyl glucosamine
c. D-glucose units
d. N-acetyl muramic acid & N-acetyl glucosamine

69. Amylopectin has
a. β-1-4 and β-1-6 linkage
b. β-1-2 linkage
c. α-1-4 and α-1-6 linkage
d. α-1-2 linkage

70. α-helix has
a. 3.4 amino acid residues/turn
b. 3.6 amino acid residues/turn
c. 3.8 amino acid residues/turn
d. 3.0 amino acid residues/turn

71. A dipeptide has
a. 2 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
b. 2 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c. 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
d. 2 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds

72. Which one of the following amino acids has a higher propensity for cis peptide bond formation?
A. Histidine
B. Cysteine
C. Glycine
D. Proline

73. Myoglobin is a
a. protein with primary structure
b. protein with secondary structure
c. protein with tertiary structure
d. protein with quaternery structure
74. Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognised by chymotrypsin during peptide bond cleavage?
A. Phe
B. Leu
C. Val
D. Asp

75. The major protein responsible for the storage of iron
a. Ferredoxin
b. Ferretin
c. Hemosiderine
d. Transferine

76. Left handed DNA
a. A-DNA
b. B-DNA
c. Z-DNA
d. C-DNA

77. The Given reaction is an example for which of the following?
CH3O- Na+ + CH3Cl - CH3 - O - CH3 + NaCl
a. Williamson reaction
b. Clemmenson reaction
c. Wuotz's reaction
d. Reformatsky reaction

78. What is the principle involved in the VDRL test?
a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Flocculation
d. Opsonisation

79. LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate. is
a.In vitrotest for detecting pyrogenic endotoxins
b.In vivo test for detecting pyrogenic endotoxins
c.In vitro test for detecting pyrogenic exotoxins
d.In vivo test for detecting pyrogenic exotoxins

80. Calculate the amount of 95 % alcohol required to prepare 400 ml of 45 % alcohol?
a. 190 ml
b. 844 ml
c. 240 ml
d. 120 ml

/

81. Which of the following medium is used for differentiation of lactose and
non - lactose fermentors?
a. Mac Conkey's medium
b. Stuart medium
c. Sugar medium
d. Citrate medium

82. Which of the following semipermeable membrane used in haemodialysis?
a. Cellophane
b. Cellulose acetate
c. Polyethene
d. Polyvinyl acetate

83. Iron content of gelatine used for the preparation of soft capsule not be more than
a. 15 ppm
b. 20 ppm
c. 25 ppm
d. 30 ppm

84. X-rays generally interact with
A. Nucleus
B. Valence electron
C. Inner most electrons
D. Covalent bond

85. Gonimeter is a component of ?
A. UV-Visible spectroscopy
B. IR spectroscopy
C. Mass spectroscopy
D. None of these

86. Size of the sample to be injected in GC with normal column is
A. 0.02 microliter
B. 1 to 10 microliter
C. 1 to 10 ml
D. 0.2 microliter

87. Kovat's retention index is used to characterise?
A. Analyte
B. Solvent
C. Liquid stationary phase
D. Column
88. Which of the following group is detected by using Herzig Meyer method?
a. Alkyl group
b. Hydroxy group
c. Alkoxy group
d. N-alkyl group

89. In GC, sample is injected using
A. Rheodyne injector
B. Micro syringe
C. Flow injection
D. None of these

90. Metastable peaks are always present at
a. Even mass numbers
b. Integral mass numbers
c. Odd mass
d. Non-integral mass

91. In HPLC, which pump gives a mobile phase flow rate dependent on column permeability?
a. Constant pressure pumps
b. Constant displacement pumps
c. Reciprocating pumps
d. Pneumatic pumps

92. Which one is used as Cuticle Remover?
a. Nitrocellulose
b. Mineral oil
c. Trisodium phosphate
d. Acetoglyceride

93. Use of infusion of Tulsi leaves?
a. Insecticidal
b. Spasmolytic
c. Stomachic
d. Stimulant

94. Which of the following is the active metabolite of Quinidine?
a. 3-Hydroxy quinidine
b. 3-hydroxy quinine
c. 2-Hydroxy quinidine
d. 2-hydroxy quinine

/

95. Which of the following amino acids contains imidazole ring?
a. Histidine
b. Asparagine
c. Tryptophan
d. Proline

96. Which of the following is not an example for synthetic hair dye?
a. Para toluene diamine
b. p-phenylenediamine
c. Sulpho-ortho-amino phenol
d. Lead acetate with precipitated sulphur

97. Which of the following drying method under controlled conditions results in changes in chemical composition?
a. Processing
b. Mulching
c. Curing
d. Fermentation

98. Polarogram of a solution containing an electro-reducible substance is obtained by plotting?
a. Potential Vs Volume
b. Current Vs Volume
c. Resistance Vs Time
d. Current Vs Potential

99. Which of the following is the IUPAC name for Progesterone?
a. Pregn-2-ene-3, 20-dione
b. Pregn-4, 6-dien-3, 20-dione
c. Pregn-2, 6-diene-3, 20-dione
d. Pregn-4-ene-3, 20-dione

100. Which of the following is an example for Thermal Conductivity Detector?
a. Flame Thermocouple Detector
b. Flame Thermionic Detector
c. Katharometer
d. Flame Ionization Detector

101. site of oxidation in electrochemical cell.
a. cathod
b. anode
c. electrode
d. solt bridge

102. A cell is bathed is a solution that has a greater osmolarity than that of the cytosol. This solution is best described as which one of the following?
a) Isotonic
b) Hypertonic
c) Hypotonic
d) None of the above

103. the value of K for equilibrium

AB A + B+

a. K = [AB] / [A+] [B-]
b. K = [A+] [B-] / [AB]
c. K = [AB]2 / [A+] [B-]
d. K = [AB] / [A+]2 [B-]2

104. Which of the following NSAIDs is a pyrazolone derivative?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Indomethacin
c. Metamizol
d. Diclofenac
/

105. Monochromatic light means
A. One colour light
B. One wavelength light
C. One frequency
D. All of above

106. If concentration and absorption are proportional, then it follows
A. Beer's law
B. Lambert's law
C. Plank's law
D. Einstein's law

107. Prism works on principle of
A. Diffraction
B. Absorption
C. Refraction
D. None

108. Column oven for HPLC works between
A. 10 to 50 degree celcius
B. 50 to 200 degree celcius
C. 35 to 140 degree celcius
D. None of these

109. Antibodies can isolated in pure form by
A. Affinity chromatography
B. NP HPLC
C. RP HPLC
D. Ion exchange chromatography

110. Elek test is used for diagnosis of
A. Diphtheria
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Leprosy
D. T.B.

111. Penicillin amidase enzyme
P. Convert penicillin into 6-APA in alkaline conditions.
Q. In acidic condition it is used to synthesise penicillin from 6-APA.
A. P is true, Q is false
B. P is false, Q is true
C. P & Q are true
D. P &Q are false

112. Which one of the following medicines does not rely on topical drug delivery?
a. Nasal spray
b. Anti-dandruff shampoo
c. Insulin pen
d. Nicotine patch

113. Express 50 mg in kg.
a. 5 x 10-3 kg
b. 5 x 10-4 kg
c. 5 x 10-5 kg
d. 5 x 10-6 kg Express 50 mg in kg.

a) 5 x 10-3 kg

b) 5 x 10-4 kg

c) 5 x 10-5 kg

d) 5 x 10-6 kg

114. Which of the following provides the best definition of pharmaceutics?
a. It is the study of dosage form design, including associated manufacturing techniques
b. It is the study of the effect that drugs have on the body
c. Its study of the effect that the body has on drugs
d. It is the study of how drugs can be chemically synthesised
115. A rectal suppository is used to treat
a fever. It represent which type of
drug delivery system?
a. Parenteral and local
b. Parenteral and systemic
c. Enteral and local
d. Enteral and systemic

116. Which one of the following is an example of the chemical modification of an active pharmaceutical ingredient?
a. Converting a crystalline API into an amorphous form
b. Combining a basic API with citric acid to produce the citrate salt of the API
c. Mixing a poorly soluble API with water to produce a suspension
d. Mixing a soluble API with water to produce a solution

117. The mesh size of USP disintegrator is
a. 5-6
b. 2.5
c. 28-32
d. 10

118. The thickness of tablets are measured by
a. Sliding caliper scale
b. Rotating disc technique
c. Microscopic Technique
d. Techincon Auto analyser

119. Of the following oral liquid formulations which would be considered as an oropharyngeal formulation?
a. Syrup
b. Elixir
c. Mouthwash
d. Linctus

120. Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration?
a. Solution
b. Liniment
c. Suspension
d. Ointment



121. A tablet to treat a headache must first be dissolved in water before swallowing. Which one of the following best describes this type of tablet?
a. Modified release
b. Oral disintegrating
c. Effervescent
d. Buccal

122. Name two different types of inhaler?
a. MDI & API
b. IV & SC
c. DPI & MDI
d. GIT & ATP

123. Which one of the following equations defines the enthalpy of reaction, ΔH, for a reaction occurring at constant pressure that does expansion work? All terms have their usual meanings.
a. ΔH = ΔU
b. ΔH = ΔU + pΔV
c. ΔH = ΔG - TΔS
d. ΔH = q + w

124. Which of the four colligative properties arises in systems where there is an equilibrium between a liquid solution phase and a second liquid phase?
a. Lowering of vapour pressure
b. Lowering of melting point
c. Raising of boiling point
d. Osmotic pressure

125. What is the typical osmolarity of physiological fluids?
a. 300 Mosmol L-1
b. 0.3 mosmol L-1
c. 300 osmol L-1
d. 0.3 osmol L-1