2023 2024 EduVark > Education Discussion > General Discussion


  #1  
June 21st, 2014, 02:56 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2013
ISTQB Test Question Paper

Here I am looking for the sample question paper of ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ exam, can you please provide me the same???

As you are looking for the sample question paper of ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ exam so here I am sharing the same with you

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 1

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper #1
1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false


2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false


3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting


4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss


5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000


6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person


7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications


8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.


9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing


10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing


12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing


13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times


14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON


15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review


16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations


18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b


19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting


20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis


21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct


22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct


23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design


24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.


25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says

a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false


26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers


27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2


28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2


29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report


30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect


31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false


32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true


33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.


34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.


35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffoldinga) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true


36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect


37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect


38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.


39. In case of Large Systems :-a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.


40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification


Answers :

1 c
2 a
3 a
4 d
5 d
6 c
7 a
8 b
9 d
10 d
11 c
12 a
13 c
14 c
15 c
16 d
17 a
18 d
19 c
20 b
21 a
22 a
23 a
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 b
29 d
30 a
31 a
32 c
33 d
34 b
35 c
36 b
37 b
38 b
39 b
40 a

================================================== ======================

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ sample questions with answers and detailed evaluation of each option:

1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality of a product but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that exercises a feature of a product in full detail.
b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression
c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting
d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality
Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for e.g. environment) and for some features detail testing is not required. It’s a mix of both breadth and depth testing.

So, the answer is ‘A’

2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

Evaluating the options:
Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by trained moderator. Hence we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider second point. In Inspection pre-meeting preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for option where (i) is true and (ii) is false.

The answer is ‘B’

3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Evaluating the options:
Formal review process is ’Inspection’. Planning is foremost step. Hence we can eliminate option ’b’. Now we need to kickoff the process, so the second step will be Kick off. That’s it we found the answer. Its ’C’

The answer is ’C’

4. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

ISTQB question pattern
Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A

Evaluating the options:
In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The coverage that is achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-switch coverage is to execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with initial state and go till end state. It does not test ‘sequence of two state transitions’). In this case the start state is ‘OFF’, and then press of the button turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). Second press turns it on to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the combinations like what if the start state is ‘Speed 1’ or ‘Speed 2’ etc.

An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with ‘OFF’ state. So we have options ‘a’ and ‘c’ to select from. As per the state diagram from ‘OFF’ state the dryer goes to ‘Speed 1’ and then to ‘Speed 2’. So our answer should start with ‘A’ and end with ‘C’.

The answer is ’C’

5. White Box Techniques are also called as :-
a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

Evaluating the options:
I guess no evaluation is required here. It’s a straight answer. White box techniques are also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)

The answer is ‘A’

6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

Evaluating the options:
Let’s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into valid and invalid classes. Hence any one value from one particular class forms an input. For e.g. input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value between 3-5 is considered as an input. All values are supposed to yield same output. Hence one value in this range becomes a test case.

The answer is ‘B’

7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases
a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Evaluating the options:
Please refer to Use case related topic in the foundation level guide “Use cases describe the “process flows” through a system based on its actual likely use” (actual likely use is nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are useful for uncovering defects. Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use case uncovers defects in process flow during real world use of the system.

The answer is ‘A’

8. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

Evaluating the options:
From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it is possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So eliminate option ‘d’. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option ‘c’. But implementing is impractical. Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is impractical but possible

The answer is ‘A’

9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

Evaluating the options:
Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. Test implementation does include Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate options a, b and c. The only option left is ‘D’. Designing activities come before implementation.

The answer is ‘D’

10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

Evaluating the options:
Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. We have to choose the one which is not a part of white box technique. Statement, decision, condition are the terms used in white box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of black box.

The answer is ‘D’

11. A Project risk includes which of the following
a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.
b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of software. Its not a risk
c) Option c: Error prone software delivered. Again it’s a part of software.
d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it’s a part of software.

The answer is ‘A’

12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.
b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For e.g. if there are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we can increase the testing cycle to reduce the risk
c) Option c: If risk areas are identified before hand, then we can prioritize testing to find defects asap.
d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the impact on the project as a whole.
Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its ‘B’

The answer is ‘B’

13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Evaluating the options:
Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).

The answer is ‘B’

14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

Evaluating the options:
In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity. It’s a post task. Hence eliminate option ‘b’. Individual meeting preparation is an activity for individual. It’s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option ‘d’. Now we are left with 2 options ‘a’ and ‘b’, read those 2-3 times. We can identify that option ‘b’ is most appropriate. Planning phase of formal review does include selecting personnel and allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part of review process. (this is also written in the FL syllabus)

The answer is ‘B’

15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

Evaluating the options:
I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is scribe.

The answer is ‘B’

16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

------------

Evaluating the options:
The question is regarding formal review, means Inspection. First we will try to identify the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and Scribe are involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select from. (other 2 options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in Inspection.

The answer is ‘B’

17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

Evaluating the options:
Pre meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also Walk through is not a formal process. Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

The answer is ‘A’

18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Evaluating the options:
Static analysis cover all the above options except ‘Memory leaks’. (Please refer to the FL syllabus. Its written clearly over there)

The answer is ‘C’

19. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Evaluating the options:
The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The last option can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and not an incident.

The answer is ‘D’

20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

Evaluating the options:
The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards the security issues. Also security testing is a part of Functional testing. In security testing we investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.

The answer is ‘A’

21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Evaluating the options:
The question is about ‘not’ a major task. Option ‘a’ is a major task. So eliminate this. Option ‘b’ is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important). Option ‘c’ and ‘d’ both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.

The answer is ‘B’

22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

Evaluating the options:
Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate them.

The answer is ‘A’

23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

Evaluating the options:
We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to interaction or integration. Option ‘a’ is not related to integration. Option ‘c’ is unit testing. Option ‘d’ component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence eliminating these three options.

The answer is ‘B’

24. Static analysis is best described as:
a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

Evaluating the options:
In this case we have to choose an option, which ‘best’ describes static analysis. Most of the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully read them.
a) Option a: Analysis is part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
b) Option b: Reviews are part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.
d) Option d: This option ca be ruled out, as black box is a dynamic testing.

The answer is ‘C’

Last edited by Neelurk; June 4th, 2020 at 05:43 PM.
Similar Threads
Thread
All India Pre Medical Test Question Paper
Question Paper with Answers for HCL aptitude test
Question Paper Of National Eligibility Test
SNAP Test Question Paper
ISTQB Certification Exam Question Paper
ISTQB Exam Model Paper
Infosys Test Question paper pattern
IAS Test Free question paper
ISTQB Foundation Latest Question Papers
Sample question papers of Software testing and ISTQB
IISC Entrance Test Physics Question Paper
ISTQB-Advanced level Technical Test Analyst Question Paper
HAL MT Written Test Question Paper for Electronics
IISC Entrance Test Question Paper
Rajasthan Test Question Paper PDF

  #2  
June 4th, 2020, 05:44 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Oct 2019
Re: ISTQB Test Question Paper

25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

Evaluating the options:
As we know, alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these.
a. Option a: contains only alphabets. (to create confusion they are given in capitals)
b. Option b: contains only alphabets. (the only difference from above option is that all letters are not in capitals)
c. Option c: contains both alphabets and numbers
d. Option d: contains only alphabets but in lower case

The answer is ‘C’

26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:
Test basis comprise of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking at these words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option ‘a’ is about test analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option ‘b’ is about implementation and execution which come after the design process. So the best option is ‘a’.

The answer is ‘A’

27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:
Incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects while execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

The answer is ‘B’

28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document

Evaluating the options:
We have to choose an option which does ‘not’ come under Configuration Management (CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data and documentation.
a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in the test cycle is part of CM.
b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM
c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is ‘live data’ which is not part of CM. The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).
d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM
The only option that does not fall under CM is ‘c’

The answer is ‘C’

29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:
Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not part of analysis, design or planning activity. Also it is not part of evaluating exit criteria. After closure of test cycle test-ware is handover to the maintenance organization.

The answer is ‘C’

30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19


Quick Reply
Your Username: Click here to log in

Message:
Options



All times are GMT +5. The time now is 06:30 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.
Content Relevant URLs by vBSEO 3.6.0

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8