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July 11th, 2014, 03:43 PM
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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship last year papers of Management
Will you please share with me the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship last year papers of Management as it I very urgent for me?
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#2
July 14th, 2014, 09:03 AM
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Re: Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship last year papers of Management
As you want to get the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship last year papers of Management so here it is for you: Some content of the file has been given here: 1. If the demand for a good is unit elastic, the coefficient of elasticity of demand would be ........................... . (A) Zero (B) One (C) Infinity (D) Less than zero 2. The effect of imports on the circular flow of income depends on : (A) Outflow of income (B) Inflow of income (C) Composition of imports (D) Quality of imports 3. The NNP is defined as : (A) GNP + taxes (B) GNP + depreciation (C) GNP – depreciation (D) GNP + taxes – subsidies 4. Which parameters are important in Phillips curve analysis ? (A) Inflation and money supply (B) Inflation and unemployment (C) Consumption and savings (D) Saving and investment 5. (i) Agricultural income tax in India is levied by the Union Government. (ii) Entertainment tax is levied by the State Governments What can you say about these statements ? (A) Both the statements are correct (B) Both the statements are incorrect (C) Statement No (i) is correct and Statement No (ii) is incorrect (D) Statement No (i) is incorrect and statement No. (ii) is correct 6. Which of the following has overlooked the significance of interpersonal behaviour in work settings ? (A) Industrial Psychology (B) Human Relations (C) Scientific Management (D) Modern Management 7. Perceptual organisation is determined by : (A) Functional factors (B) Mental set (C) Physiological factors (D) Attitudinal factors 8. Job involvement is a type of : (A) Belief (B) Value (C) Attachment (D) Attitude 9. Managerial Grid theory was advocated by : (A) Robert House (B) Blake and Mouton (C) Hersey Blanchard (D) Fielder 10. Which of the following assumes that effective communication forms an intrinsic factor of effective work and efficient problem solving ? (A) Persuasion approach (B) Innovative and creative approach (C) Problem solving approach (D) Communication event approach 11. Which of the following is not usually a group incentive plan ? (A) Halsey incentive plan (B) Priestman bonus plan (C) Rucker incentive plan (D) Towre’s incentive plan 12. Subsistence allowance is paid to employee when he/she is : (A) Suspended pending enquiry (B) Retrenched (C) Dismissed (D) Superannuated 13. TAT stands for : (A) Training Analysis Test (B) Thematic Appreciation Test (C) Thematic Application Test (D) Thematic Apperception Test 14. Appointment of welfare officer under Factories Act, 1948 is compulsory where ................... employees are employed. (A) 50 (B) 500 (C) 1000 (D) 100 15. The advantages of employing various methods of job analysis is : (A) Cost (B) Accuracy (C) Complexity (D) Participation by job incumbments and managers 16. Conflicts of interest among stockholders, bondholders and managers is known as : (A) Stockholder problem (B) Bondholder problem (C) Managerial problem (D) Agency problem 17. When one divides “Riskless cash flows” by “Risky cash flows”, the result is : (A) Risk adjusted discount rate (B) Certainty equivalent coefficient (C) Coefficient of variation (D) Sensitivity coefficient 18. 15% Rs. 200 face value debenture is currently selling for Rs. 220, the annual current yield would be ................. . (A) 15% (B) 13.64% (C) 14.63% (D) 16% 19. CAPM is used to calculate ................. . (A) Cost of debt capital (B) Cost of index capital (C) Cost of equity capital (D) Cost of preference capital 20. Restructuring which refers to the changes in ownership, business mix, assets mix and alliances with a view to enhance the shareholder’s value is ..................... . (A) Business Restructuring (B) Asset Restructuring (C) Ownership Restructuring (D) Corporate Restructuring 21. Which of the following statements reflect the “Marketing Concept” Philosophy ? (A) “You will not find a better deal anywhere else” (B) “Our organization does not have a marketing department, we have a customer department” (C) “We are in the business of making and selling superior products” (D) “In case of choice between profits and customer needs, profits will always win out” 22. ‘Circle,’ ‘wedge’, ‘clover leaf’ in sales are : (A) General shapes of sales territories (B) Types of sales quota (C) Awards given to sales people to motivate them (D) Control techniques used in sales 23. Bundling has proliferated in the services sector primarily because of : (i) High fixed to variable cost ratio (ii) Low fixed to variable cost ratio (iii) High level of interdependent demand The answer is : (A) (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (C) (i) and (iii) are correct (D) (ii) and (iii) are correct 24. When we are seeking opinion from experienced executive members for forecasting demand we are using ........................... . (A) Delphi techniques (B) Time series analysis (C) Extrapolation method (D) Retail simulation 25. The total combined customer lifetime values of all company’s current and potential customers is known as : (A) Customer value (B) Customer equity (C) Customer lifetime value (D) Customer gross value 26. Moving from the aggregate plan to a master production schedule requires : (A) Rough cut capacity planning (B) Sub-optimization (C) Disaggregation (D) Strategy formulation 27. What type of control chart is used to monitor the number of defects per unit ? (A) P-chart (B) R-chart (C) C-chart (D) X-bar chart 28. While solving LPP through simplex method, if an artificial variable remains in the solution with a positive value after the optimal solution has been obtained, the problem : (A) is infeasible (B) is optimal (C) needs a new basis (D) has more than one solution 29. A project has three paths : A-B-C has a length of 25 days A-D-C has a length of 15 days A-E-C has a length of 20 days Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) A-D-C is the critical path (B) A-B-C has the most slack (C) The project duration is 25 days (D) The project duration is 20 days 30. Which of the following is a decision making criterion that is used for decision-making under risk ? (A) Expected monetary value criterion (B) Hurwicz criterion (of realism) (C) Optimistic (maximax) criterion (D) Equally likely criterion 31. What is the probability value of having 4 heads in 10 tosses of a fair coin ? (A) 0.621 (B) 0.205 (C) 0.815 (D) 0.935 32. In cluster sampling, clusters are : (A) Heterogeneous among themselves (B) Homogeneous within themselves (C) Heterogeneous within themselves and Homogeneous among themselves (D) Homogeneous within themselves and Heterogeneous among themselves 33. Z-test is used as a hypothesis testing technique when : (A) Sample size is small (B) Standard deviation is unknown (C) Sample size is large but standard deviation is unknown (D) Both (A) and (B) 34. A network uses a star topology if : (A) Computers are arranged in a closed loop (B) All computers are connected to a central point (C) All computers are attached to a single long cable (D) All computers are attached to multiple hierarchical cables 35. Which of the following is an example of Transaction Processing System (TPS) ? (A) Business Forecasting System (B) Railway Reservation System (C) Office Automation System (D) Executive Information System 36. In BCG matrix what is the label of the horizontal axis ? (A) Relative market share (B) Business strength (C) Industry growth rate (D) Market growth rate 37. The strategy that involves concentrating on consumer or end use applications that major firms have neglected refers to .................. . (A) Vacant niche strategy (B) Specialist strategy (C) Content follow strategy (D) Distinctive image strategy 38. The three hardware areas in the McKinsey’s 7S framework are : (A) Staff, skills and style (B) Strategy, structure and systems (C) Staff, skills and systems (D) Skills, strategy and shared values 39. Environmental and organisational appraisal are carried out in the stage of : (A) Strategy evaluation (B) Strategy formulation (C) Strategy implementation (D) Strategy control 40. The sequence of activities representing the strategy process is : (A) Strategic analysis, strategy selection, strategy implementation strategic control (B) Select strategy, generate options, analyse strategy, implement strategy (C) Deliberate strategy, analyse, choose, implement (D) Appraisal of strength and weakness, choice of strategy, implementation, feedback 41. An important pitfall encountered in the process of selecting a new venture is : (A) Awareness of legal issues (B) Real insight into the market (C) Non-real insight into the market (D) Adequate understanding of technical requirements 42. ....................... is a mental image of a possible and desirable future state of an organization. (A) Vision (B) Traits (C) Power (D) Leadership 43. According to RBI, a small scale unit is considered sick, if it has incurred cash loss in the previous accounting year and is likely to continue to incur cash loss to the extent of ............... of its net worth. (A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 60% (D) 50% 44. In entrepreneurial training programmes Japanese industrialists lay emphasis on ..................... . (A) Technological upgradation (B) Formal training (C) On the job training (D) Informal training 45. A desire to affect the behaviour of other individuals and to control and manipulate the surroundings refers to : (A) nAch (B) nPow (C) nAff (D) nAct 46. Most companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programmes by developing : (A) Ethics training programmes (B) Ethics enforcement mechanisms (C) Code of conduct (D) Mandatory disclosure 47. OECD is : (A) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (B) Organised Economic and Corporate Development (C) Organisation for Ecological Cooperation and Development (D) Organised Ethical and Corporate Discussion 48. What occurs when an employee exposes an employer’s wrong doing to outsiders ? (A) Fraud (B) Whistle blowing (C) Plagiarism (D) Mayhem 49. ‘Desirable corporate governance : A code’ was released in : (A) March 1982 (B) April 1995 (C) March 1980 (D) April 1998 50. The word ‘Triple Bottom line’ involves : (A) Revenue, legal, ethical reporting (B) Financial, Social, Environmental Corporate reporting (C) Environmental, Moral, Profit reporting (D) Financial, Social, Ethical Corporate reporting 1. What measures can a government take to reduce unemployment ? (A) Monetary measures (B) Increase in imports (C) Fiscal measures (D) Decrease government spending 2. Which of the following answer choices is the best definition of attitudes ? (A) Attitudes are the yardstick by which one measures one’s actions (B) Attitudes are the emotional part of an evaluation of some person, object or event (C) Attitudes are evaluative statements of what one believes about something or someone (D) Attitudes are a measure of how the worth of an object, person or event is evaluated 3. Human Resource Department is : (A) Line department (B) Authority department (C) Service department (D) Functional department 4. Which of the following is true for IRR method of capital budgeting ? (I) IRR is that rate where NPV equals zero (II) IRR is that rate where PV of cash inflows equal PV of cash outflows (III)IRR considers time value of money (IV) IRR and ARR give similar results (A) (I), (II) and (III) (B) (I), (II) and (IV) (C) (I), (III) and (IV) (D) (II), (III) and (IV) 5. Zapping is the technique ................... . (A) to change the TV channels to avoid seeing commercials (B) to view only select advertisements on TV (C) to influence audience through a specific TV commercial screened frequently (D) to have intentional display of a particular advertisement at regular intervals 6. The difference between the actual demand for a period and the demand forecast for that period is called : (A) Mean square error (B) Bias (C) Weighted Arithmetic Mean (D) Forecast error 7. What condition is required before the central limit theorem justifies approximating the sampling distribution of the mean with a normal distribution ? (A) n < 30 (B) n > 30 (C) nq > 8 (D) 1 > n < N 8. Which of the following statements about organization’s mission is false ? (A) They reflect a company’s purpose (B) They indicate what a company intends to contribute to society (C) They define a company’s reason for existence (D) They are formulated after strategies are known 9. Y.C. Deveshwar, M.S. Banga, K.V. Kamath are examples of : (A) Entrepreneurs (B) Business tycoons (C) Intrapreneurs (D) Social entrepreneurs 10. Which of the following arguments are against social responsibility of business ? (A) Businesses can do better by creating better public image (B) Businesses must respond to social demands (C) Businesses should set-up socially desirable standards of living (D) Businesses should manage only in the interest of shareholders 11. BARS stands for : (A) Best Administered Rating System (B) Behaviourally Administered Ranking Strategy (C) Best Attitudinal Review System (D) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale 12. Assertion (A) : Usually a company treats brand only as name and it misses the point of branding. Reasoning (R) : Brand name needs to be carefully managed so that its equity does not get depreciated. (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of A (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct 13. A portfolio consisting of two risky securities can be made riskless i.e. p = 0, if : (A) the securities are perfectly positively correlated (B) the securities are perfectly negatively correlated (C) the correlation ranges between 0 to 1 (D) the correlation coefficient r = 0.5 14. Which one of the following is a record of country’s monetary transactions with the rest of the world, during a given period of time ? (A) International trade (B) Balance of trade (C) Balance of payment (D) Current account 15. Appropriate meaning of compensable factors is : (A) Common job characteristics that an organization is willing to pay for such as skill, efforts and responsibility etc (B) A rise in pay based on performance (C) Practice of using fewer pay grades having broader ranges than traditional compensation system (D) Shows the relationship between the value of the job and average wage paid 16. In the case of only one variable factor in a production process, other factors assumed to be unchanging, if the total product is at its maximum, the corresponding marginal product is ...................... . (A) also maximum (B) zero (C) falling (D) rising 17. Poor quality lateral communication will result in which of the following ? (A) lack of direction (B) lack of co-ordination (C) lack of delegation (D) lack of control 18. Advantages of transfer include all but ...................... . (A) improves better use of human resources (B) helps in managing dual career (C) enhancing the individual’s motivation (D) broadening the employees’ perspective 19. “Off the balance sheet financing” refers to financing through : (A) Intercorporate deposits (B) Public deposits (C) Leasing arrangement (D) Venture capital 20. The controllable variables a company puts together to satisfy a target group is called the ......................... . (A) marketing strategy (B) marketing mix (C) strategic planning (D) marketing concept 21. Which of the following statements is true ? (1) An intermittent flow system is characterised by a streamlined flow of products in the operating system (2) Continuous flow systems are characterised by mid volume, mid variety products/services (3) Jumbled flow system is characterised by non-standard and complex flow patterns (4) The nature of flow in operations has no impact on the process choices available to the operations manager Choose the correct option : (A) (2) (B) (4) (C) (3) (D) (1) 22. The measure of how well the regression line fits the data is the : (A) slope of regression line (B) mean square error (C) coefficient of determination (D) standard error of the regression coefficient 23. Which of the following is not a support activity in Michael Porter’s value chain analysis model ? (A) Firm infrastructure (B) Procurement (C) Technology development (D) After sales services 24. .......................... is the payment method most often used in international trade which offers the exporter best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally. (A) Bill of lading (B) Letter of credit (C) Open account (D) Bank draft 25. Match the right pairs : (1) Universally mentioned Rewards of Entrepre- (i) Power neurship (2) Occasionally mentioned (ii) Wealth rewards of Entrepreneurship (3) Rarely mentioned rewards of entrepre- (iii) Develop neurship new product/ idea Which of the given choices represents the correct pairs : (A) (1-ii), (2-iii), (3-i) (B) (1-ii), (2-i), (3-iii) (C) (1-iii), (2-i), (3-ii) (D) (1-i), (2-iii), (3-ii) 26. Idea Generation Idea Screening ? Commerciali- zation Product Development 5 4 1 2 3 Stage-3 of New Product Development is : (A) Determine business potential (B) Idea evaluation (C) Test product development (D) Determine product cost 27. The method used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ........................... . (A) orientation (B) training (C) development (D) management 28. Which of the following markets will be less competitive ? (A) High barriers to entry (B) Presence of large number of substitutes (C) Strong bargaining power of suppliers (D) Strong bargaining power of distributors 29. The customer pages of a company on ‘Facebook’ is an example of : (A) Viral marketing (B) Social media marketing (C) Network marketing (D) Referral marketing 30. The type of financing in which the purchaser approaches the shareholders directly instead of the management to acquire interest in acquired firm is known as : (A) Preference share financing (B) Tender offer (C) Deferred payment plan (D) Ordinary share financing 31. Who proposed that a country produces and exports the product in which she has absolute advantage and import the rest of the products from other countries ? (A) David Ricardo (B) Adam Smith (C) Posner (D) Ohlin 32. Who takes the advantage of leverage i.e. the possibility of large potential gains and large potential losses in the derivatives market ? (A) Hedgers (B) Speculators (C) Arbitrageurs (D) Regulators 33. When the price of petrol rises, demand for automobiles decreases because car and petrol are : (A) Complementary goods (B) Substitute goods (C) Inferior goods (D) Normal goods 34. Which of the HR functions is least affected by internationalisation ? (A) Succession planning (B) Equal employment opportunities (C) Compensation (D) Training 35. The following is not an objective of wage incentive programme : (A) Developing ownership interest (B) Improving employee retention (C) Reducing labour costs (D) Facilitating the separation of employees 36. Firm A acquires firm B, MPS of B is Rs. 20 and EPS is Rs. 5. For an exchange ratio of 1.5 : 1 what was the P/E ratio used in acquiring B ? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 2.66 37. Which of the following statements is not true for services ? (A) Most service products cannot be inventoried (B) Intangible elements usually dominate value creation (C) Operational inputs and outputs do not vary (D) Customers may be involved in co-production 38. The product of ‘actual time’ ‘performance rating’ and ‘allowance factor’ is known as : (A) Cycle time (B) Standard task time (C) Completion time per unit (D) Setup time 39. Information system that monitors, the elementary activities and transactions of the organisations are : (A) Management level systems (B) Operational level systems (C) Knowledge level systems (D) Strategic level systems 40. A conglomerate diversification strategy involves .......................... . (A) Diversifying into related areas (B) Diversifying into unrelated areas (C) Joining hands with competitors (D) Forging collaboration with foreign companies 41. On basis of the statements given below answer the question given : (1) It is ethical to make exaggerated claims in advertisements (2) It is ethical to degrade rival products in advertisements (3) It is ethical to make false claims in advertisements (4) Advertisements which are obscene are ethical (A) Statements (3) and (4) are incorrect (B) All statements (1), (2), (3) and (4) are incorrect (C) Only statements (3) and (4) are incorrect (D) Only statement (4) is incorrect 42. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? Ethical codes .................... . (A) are statements of norms and beliefs of an organisation (B) establish priorities between norms and beliefs (C) should be updated periodically (D) are considered as ‘window dressing’ by many employees 43. When looking at consumer’s income, marketers are most interested in : (A) Inflationary income (B) Disposable income (C) Gross income (D) Discretionary income 44. The goal of wealth management does not take into consideration : (A) Risk related to uncertainty of returns (B) Timing of expected returns (C) Amount of returns expected (D) Impact of competition on cash flows 45. Suppose country ‘A’ produces a new product which will be produced by country ‘B’ within a stipulated period of time. This gap in time period is called .................... . (A) Time lag (B) Demand lag (C) Supply lag (D) Imitation lag 46. Which one of the following entry models for international business has maximum risk but maximum reward also ? (A) Licensing (B) Alliances (C) Direct exporting (D) Indirect exporting 47. Choose the correct option : Allowance given for using capital equipment for production is known as : (A) Appreciation (B) Deficit (C) Loss (D) Depreciation 48. The first stage of conflict resolution is to : (A) define the problem (B) analyse the problem (C) choose a solution (D) think through possible solutions 49. Training objectives should be expressed in : (A) Employee behaviour (B) Needs assessment (C) Employee reactions (D) Subjective judgement 50. Which of the following is not an assumption of the MM theory for irrelevance of dividends ? (A) Irrational investors (B) No tax discrimination on capital gains and dividends (C) No transaction costs (D) No floatation costs 51. The firm’s orientation characterised by the belief that ‘a good product will sell itself’ is a reflection of : (A) Sales orientation (B) Product orientation (C) Relationship orientation (D) Marketing orientation 52. Which of the following methods is used to measure correct demand ? (A) Market build up method (B) Survey of buyer’s intentions (C) Composite of sales force opinions (D) Past sales analysis 53. In a bank customers arrive once in every 3 minutes. What is the probability of exactly 10 customers arriving at the bank within a time period of half an hour ? (A) 0.25 (B) 0.125 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.10 54. Two cards are drawn in succession from a standard 52 card deck. What is the probability that both the cards are aces if the cards are drawn without replacement ? (A) 0.0044 (B) 0.044 (C) 0.44 (D) –0.44 55. Match the contributions of the following : (i) Igor Ansoff (a) QUEST technique (ii) Michael Porter (b) Growth vector (iii) B. Nanus (c) Competitive advantage of nations (iv) Mc Kinsey (d) 7-S Select the correct matching : (A) (i-d), (ii-a), (iii-b), (iv-c) (B) (i-b), (ii-c), (iii-a), (iv-d) (C) (i-b), (ii-d), (iii-c), (iv-a) (D) (i-c), (ii-d), (iii-a), (iv-a) 56. Which among the following is not a distinctive competitive advantage for SSI’s ? (A) Ability to mobilize local resources (B) Quick response to rapidly changing environment (C) Better managerial control (D) Economies of scale 57. Select the correct option : A teleological approach to business ethics proposes that the guiding principle should be : (A) Power (B) Purpose (C) Practice (D) People 58. Which of the following is not one of the main reasons for major changes in performance appraisal in recent years ? (A) Total quality management (B) Knowledge management initiatives (C) Government legislation (D) Team work initiatives 59. Company ‘A’ is interested in finding out if the demand for a particular brand of detergent is sensitive to higher or lower prices. What type of research design would be most suitable to carry the research ? (A) Experimental Research Design (B) Exploratory Research Design (C) Descriptive Research Design (D) Secondary Data Research 60. Which of the following statements is True ? (A) Forward exchange contracts are traded on at an organised exchange (B) Future contracts are carried out through direct dealing between parties (C) Leading and lagging is an internal technique of foreign exchange risk management (D) Translation profits or losses must be reflected in the income statement 61. When the market forces reduce the external value of a currency, then the process is called ....................... . (A) Deflation (B) Devaluation (C) Exchange rate depreciation (D) Depreciation 62. Employee orientation programme should be the concern of : (A) top management (B) the supervisor (C) the HR department (D) both the HR department and the supervisor 63. “Extra leg space” in aircraft and “services guarantee” are examples of : (A) Demand-supply management strategies in services (B) C.R.M. initiatives in services (C) Tangibilising the intangibles in services (D) Creative pricing in services 64. The OPEC operating at the international level is the case of a ............................ . (A) Holding company (B) Cartel (C) Multinational company (D) Trust 65. Victor Vroom’s V.I.E. model of motivation is about : (A) Value Interpretation Experiment (B) Varied Interpersonal Experience (C) Variety Involvement Execution (D) Valence instrumentality Expectancy 66. Match the correct option (A) A candid statement from a rater Self Appraisal (B) Evaluation by a ratee (C) E v a l u a t i o n based on key incidents (D) C o m p a r i n g ratees to one another 67. The stability of dividends can take any of the following forms : (i) Constant dividend per share (ii) Stable D/P ratio (iii) Constant dividend per share plus extra dividend (A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) only (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii) only 68. In a project the following information about procedence relationships and activity completion time is given : Activity Immediate Activity predecessor Completion Time (in weeks) A — 1 B — 2 C A 3 D B 4 E C 4 F C 3 G D&E 5 H F&G 2 Choose the correct critical path : (A) A–C–F–H (B) A–C–E–G–H (C) B–D–G–H (D) B-D–E–F–H 69. Study the table given below and answer the question : Topology Feature (1) Star topology (a) The terminals are connected in a circle like cable layout (2) Ring topology (b) allows for all messages to be sent to the entire network through a circuit (3) Hybrid topology (c) Communications are routed through the central system known as server (4) Bus topology (d) Mix of topologies to serve specific communication needs Choose the right option representing the correct combinations (A) 1—(c), 2—(a), 3—(d), 4—(b) (B) 1—(c), 2—(b), 3—(a), 4—(d) (C) 1—(a), 2—(b), 3—(c), 4—(d) (D) 1—(d), 2—(a), 3—(b), 4—(c) 70. ‘Moonlighting’ refers to : (A) Doing a part time entrepreneurial work after regular job hours (B) Taking business away from one’s employer (C) Getting extra business for the employer through personal contacts (D) Attempt to make one’s business seem more successful than the reality 71. Select the correct option : Kyoto Protocol : (A) will result into reduction of Greenhouse Gases (B) will improve quality of work life (C) will ensure and protect employee privacy (D) will reduce gender discrimination 72. The first step in a performance analysis is to : (A) compare the person’s performance to ideal performance (B) evaluate productivity per employee (C) conduct tests of job knowledge (D) evaluate supervisor performance reviews 73. The systematic and deliberate advancement made by an individual in his/her career in the entire work life is known as : (A) career path (B) career review (C) career guidance (D) career anchoring 74. Which of the following statements is false ? (A) Return on any financial asset consists of current yield and capital yield. (B) In CAPM, beta represents total risk i.e. systematic and unsystematic risk. (C) Risk of a portfolio depends on the correlation among the securities in the portfolio. (D) Risk of an individual financial asset refers to variability of its returns around its mean returns. 75. In which of the following types of trading blocs are monetary and fiscal policies co-ordinated among member countries ? (A) Free trade area (B) Customs union (C) Common market (D) Economic union |
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