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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship last year papers of Management

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July 14th, 2014, 09:03 AM
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Re: Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship last year papers of Management

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1. If the demand for a good is unit
elastic, the coefficient of elasticity of
demand would be ........................... .
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Infinity
(D) Less than zero
2. The effect of imports on the circular
flow of income depends on :
(A) Outflow of income
(B) Inflow of income
(C) Composition of imports
(D) Quality of imports
3. The NNP is defined as :
(A) GNP + taxes
(B) GNP + depreciation
(C) GNP – depreciation
(D) GNP + taxes – subsidies
4. Which parameters are important in
Phillips curve analysis ?
(A) Inflation and money supply
(B) Inflation and unemployment
(C) Consumption and savings
(D) Saving and investment
5. (i) Agricultural income tax in
India is levied by the Union
Government.
(ii) Entertainment tax is levied by
the State Governments
What can you say about these
statements ?
(A) Both the statements are correct
(B) Both the statements are
incorrect
(C) Statement No (i) is correct and
Statement No (ii) is incorrect
(D) Statement No (i) is incorrect
and statement No. (ii) is correct
6. Which of the following has
overlooked the significance of
interpersonal behaviour in work
settings ?
(A) Industrial Psychology
(B) Human Relations
(C) Scientific Management
(D) Modern Management
7. Perceptual organisation is
determined by :
(A) Functional factors
(B) Mental set
(C) Physiological factors
(D) Attitudinal factors
8. Job involvement is a type of :
(A) Belief
(B) Value
(C) Attachment
(D) Attitude
9. Managerial Grid theory was
advocated by :
(A) Robert House
(B) Blake and Mouton
(C) Hersey Blanchard
(D) Fielder
10. Which of the following assumes that
effective communication forms an
intrinsic factor of effective work and
efficient problem solving ?
(A) Persuasion approach
(B) Innovative and creative
approach
(C) Problem solving approach
(D) Communication event approach
11. Which of the following is not usually
a group incentive plan ?
(A) Halsey incentive plan
(B) Priestman bonus plan
(C) Rucker incentive plan
(D) Towre’s incentive plan
12. Subsistence allowance is paid to
employee when he/she is :
(A) Suspended pending enquiry
(B) Retrenched
(C) Dismissed
(D) Superannuated
13. TAT stands for :
(A) Training Analysis Test
(B) Thematic Appreciation Test
(C) Thematic Application Test
(D) Thematic Apperception Test
14. Appointment of welfare officer under
Factories Act, 1948 is compulsory
where ................... employees are
employed.
(A) 50
(B) 500
(C) 1000
(D) 100
15. The advantages of employing
various methods of job analysis
is :
(A) Cost
(B) Accuracy
(C) Complexity
(D) Participation by job
incumbments and managers
16. Conflicts of interest among
stockholders, bondholders and
managers is known as :
(A) Stockholder problem
(B) Bondholder problem
(C) Managerial problem
(D) Agency problem
17. When one divides “Riskless cash
flows” by “Risky cash flows”, the
result is :
(A) Risk adjusted discount rate
(B) Certainty equivalent coefficient
(C) Coefficient of variation
(D) Sensitivity coefficient
18. 15% Rs. 200 face value debenture
is currently selling for Rs. 220, the
annual current yield would be
................. .
(A) 15%
(B) 13.64%
(C) 14.63%
(D) 16%
19. CAPM is used to calculate
................. .
(A) Cost of debt capital
(B) Cost of index capital
(C) Cost of equity capital
(D) Cost of preference capital
20. Restructuring which refers to the
changes in ownership, business mix,
assets mix and alliances with a view
to enhance the shareholder’s value
is ..................... .
(A) Business Restructuring
(B) Asset Restructuring
(C) Ownership Restructuring
(D) Corporate Restructuring
21. Which of the following statements
reflect the “Marketing Concept”
Philosophy ?
(A) “You will not find a better deal
anywhere else”
(B) “Our organization does not
have a marketing department,
we have a customer
department”
(C) “We are in the business of
making and selling superior
products”
(D) “In case of choice between profits
and customer needs, profits will
always win out”
22. ‘Circle,’ ‘wedge’, ‘clover leaf’ in sales
are :
(A) General shapes of sales
territories
(B) Types of sales quota
(C) Awards given to sales people to
motivate them
(D) Control techniques used in sales
23. Bundling has proliferated in the
services sector primarily because
of :
(i) High fixed to variable cost ratio
(ii) Low fixed to variable cost ratio
(iii) High level of interdependent
demand
The answer is :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct
24. When we are seeking opinion from
experienced executive members for
forecasting demand we are using
........................... .
(A) Delphi techniques
(B) Time series analysis
(C) Extrapolation method
(D) Retail simulation
25. The total combined customer lifetime
values of all company’s current
and potential customers is known
as :
(A) Customer value
(B) Customer equity
(C) Customer lifetime value
(D) Customer gross value
26. Moving from the aggregate plan to
a master production schedule
requires :
(A) Rough cut capacity planning
(B) Sub-optimization
(C) Disaggregation
(D) Strategy formulation
27. What type of control chart is used
to monitor the number of defects per
unit ?
(A) P-chart
(B) R-chart
(C) C-chart
(D) X-bar chart
28. While solving LPP through simplex
method, if an artificial variable
remains in the solution with a
positive value after the optimal
solution has been obtained, the
problem :
(A) is infeasible
(B) is optimal
(C) needs a new basis
(D) has more than one solution
29. A project has three paths :
A-B-C has a length of 25 days
A-D-C has a length of 15 days
A-E-C has a length of 20 days
Which of the following statements
is correct ?
(A) A-D-C is the critical path
(B) A-B-C has the most slack
(C) The project duration is 25 days
(D) The project duration is 20 days
30. Which of the following is a decision
making criterion that is used
for decision-making under
risk ?
(A) Expected monetary value
criterion
(B) Hurwicz criterion (of realism)
(C) Optimistic (maximax) criterion
(D) Equally likely criterion
31. What is the probability value of
having 4 heads in 10 tosses of a fair
coin ?
(A) 0.621
(B) 0.205
(C) 0.815
(D) 0.935
32. In cluster sampling, clusters are :
(A) Heterogeneous among
themselves
(B) Homogeneous within
themselves
(C) Heterogeneous within
themselves and Homogeneous
among themselves
(D) Homogeneous within
themselves and Heterogeneous
among themselves
33. Z-test is used as a hypothesis testing
technique when :
(A) Sample size is small
(B) Standard deviation is unknown
(C) Sample size is large but
standard deviation is unknown
(D) Both (A) and (B)
34. A network uses a star topology if :
(A) Computers are arranged in a
closed loop
(B) All computers are connected to
a central point
(C) All computers are attached to
a single long cable
(D) All computers are attached to
multiple hierarchical cables
35. Which of the following is an example
of Transaction Processing System
(TPS) ?
(A) Business Forecasting System
(B) Railway Reservation System
(C) Office Automation System
(D) Executive Information System
36. In BCG matrix what is the label of
the horizontal axis ?
(A) Relative market share
(B) Business strength
(C) Industry growth rate
(D) Market growth rate
37. The strategy that involves
concentrating on consumer or
end use applications that major
firms have neglected refers
to .................. .
(A) Vacant niche strategy
(B) Specialist strategy
(C) Content follow strategy
(D) Distinctive image strategy
38. The three hardware areas in the
McKinsey’s 7S framework are :
(A) Staff, skills and style
(B) Strategy, structure and systems
(C) Staff, skills and systems
(D) Skills, strategy and shared
values
39. Environmental and organisational
appraisal are carried out in the stage
of :
(A) Strategy evaluation
(B) Strategy formulation
(C) Strategy implementation
(D) Strategy control
40. The sequence of activities
representing the strategy process is :
(A) Strategic analysis, strategy
selection, strategy
implementation strategic
control
(B) Select strategy, generate
options, analyse strategy,
implement strategy
(C) Deliberate strategy, analyse,
choose, implement
(D) Appraisal of strength and
weakness, choice of strategy,
implementation, feedback
41. An important pitfall encountered in
the process of selecting a new
venture is :
(A) Awareness of legal issues
(B) Real insight into the market
(C) Non-real insight into the
market
(D) Adequate understanding of
technical requirements
42. ....................... is a mental image of a
possible and desirable future state
of an organization.
(A) Vision
(B) Traits
(C) Power
(D) Leadership
43. According to RBI, a small scale unit
is considered sick, if it has incurred
cash loss in the previous accounting
year and is likely to continue to incur
cash loss to the extent of ...............
of its net worth.
(A) 100%
(B) 75%
(C) 60%
(D) 50%
44. In entrepreneurial training
programmes Japanese industrialists
lay emphasis on ..................... .
(A) Technological upgradation
(B) Formal training
(C) On the job training
(D) Informal training
45. A desire to affect the behaviour of
other individuals and to control and
manipulate the surroundings refers
to :
(A) nAch
(B) nPow
(C) nAff
(D) nAct
46. Most companies begin the process of
establishing organisational ethics
programmes by developing :
(A) Ethics training programmes
(B) Ethics enforcement mechanisms
(C) Code of conduct
(D) Mandatory disclosure
47. OECD is :
(A) Organisation for Economic
Cooperation and Development
(B) Organised Economic and
Corporate Development
(C) Organisation for Ecological
Cooperation and Development
(D) Organised Ethical and
Corporate Discussion
48. What occurs when an employee
exposes an employer’s wrong doing
to outsiders ?
(A) Fraud
(B) Whistle blowing
(C) Plagiarism
(D) Mayhem
49. ‘Desirable corporate governance : A
code’ was released in :
(A) March 1982
(B) April 1995
(C) March 1980
(D) April 1998
50. The word ‘Triple Bottom line’
involves :
(A) Revenue, legal, ethical reporting
(B) Financial, Social,
Environmental Corporate
reporting
(C) Environmental, Moral, Profit
reporting
(D) Financial, Social, Ethical
Corporate reporting

1. What measures can a government
take to reduce unemployment ?
(A) Monetary measures
(B) Increase in imports
(C) Fiscal measures
(D) Decrease government spending
2. Which of the following answer
choices is the best definition of
attitudes ?
(A) Attitudes are the yardstick by
which one measures one’s
actions
(B) Attitudes are the emotional
part of an evaluation of some
person, object or event
(C) Attitudes are evaluative
statements of what one believes
about something or someone
(D) Attitudes are a measure of how
the worth of an object, person
or event is evaluated
3. Human Resource Department is :
(A) Line department
(B) Authority department
(C) Service department
(D) Functional department
4. Which of the following is true for
IRR method of capital budgeting ?
(I) IRR is that rate where NPV
equals zero
(II) IRR is that rate where PV of
cash inflows equal PV of cash
outflows
(III)IRR considers time value of
money
(IV) IRR and ARR give similar
results
(A) (I), (II) and (III)
(B) (I), (II) and (IV)
(C) (I), (III) and (IV)
(D) (II), (III) and (IV)
5. Zapping is the technique ................... .
(A) to change the TV channels to
avoid seeing commercials
(B) to view only select
advertisements on TV
(C) to influence audience through
a specific TV commercial
screened frequently
(D) to have intentional display of
a particular advertisement at
regular intervals
6. The difference between the actual
demand for a period and the
demand forecast for that period is
called :
(A) Mean square error
(B) Bias
(C) Weighted Arithmetic Mean
(D) Forecast error
7. What condition is required before the
central limit theorem justifies
approximating the sampling
distribution of the mean with a
normal distribution ?
(A) n < 30
(B) n > 30
(C) nq > 8
(D) 1 > n < N
8. Which of the following statements
about organization’s mission is
false ?
(A) They reflect a company’s
purpose
(B) They indicate what a company
intends to contribute to society
(C) They define a company’s reason
for existence
(D) They are formulated after
strategies are known
9. Y.C. Deveshwar, M.S. Banga,
K.V. Kamath are examples of :
(A) Entrepreneurs
(B) Business tycoons
(C) Intrapreneurs
(D) Social entrepreneurs
10. Which of the following arguments
are against social responsibility of
business ?
(A) Businesses can do better by
creating better public image
(B) Businesses must respond to
social demands
(C) Businesses should set-up
socially desirable standards of
living
(D) Businesses should manage only
in the interest of shareholders
11. BARS stands for :
(A) Best Administered Rating
System
(B) Behaviourally Administered
Ranking Strategy
(C) Best Attitudinal Review System
(D) Behaviourally Anchored Rating
Scale
12. Assertion (A) : Usually a company
treats brand only as name and it
misses the point of branding.
Reasoning (R) : Brand name needs
to be carefully managed so that its
equity does not get depreciated.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation
of A
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but
(R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
13. A portfolio consisting of two risky
securities can be made riskless i.e.
p = 0, if :
(A) the securities are perfectly
positively correlated
(B) the securities are perfectly
negatively correlated
(C) the correlation ranges between
0 to 1
(D) the correlation coefficient r = 0.5
14. Which one of the following is a
record of country’s monetary
transactions with the rest of
the world, during a given period of
time ?
(A) International trade
(B) Balance of trade
(C) Balance of payment
(D) Current account
15. Appropriate meaning of
compensable factors is :
(A) Common job characteristics
that an organization is willing
to pay for such as skill, efforts
and responsibility etc
(B) A rise in pay based on
performance
(C) Practice of using fewer pay
grades having broader ranges
than traditional compensation
system
(D) Shows the relationship between
the value of the job and average
wage paid
16. In the case of only one variable
factor in a production process, other
factors assumed to be unchanging,
if the total product is at its
maximum, the corresponding
marginal product is ...................... .
(A) also maximum
(B) zero
(C) falling
(D) rising
17. Poor quality lateral communication
will result in which of the following ?
(A) lack of direction
(B) lack of co-ordination
(C) lack of delegation
(D) lack of control
18. Advantages of transfer include all
but ...................... .
(A) improves better use of human
resources
(B) helps in managing dual career
(C) enhancing the individual’s
motivation
(D) broadening the employees’
perspective
19. “Off the balance sheet financing”
refers to financing through :
(A) Intercorporate deposits
(B) Public deposits
(C) Leasing arrangement
(D) Venture capital
20. The controllable variables a
company puts together to satisfy a
target group is called the
......................... .
(A) marketing strategy
(B) marketing mix
(C) strategic planning
(D) marketing concept
21. Which of the following statements
is true ?
(1) An intermittent flow system is
characterised by a streamlined
flow of products in the operating
system
(2) Continuous flow systems are
characterised by mid volume,
mid variety products/services
(3) Jumbled flow system is
characterised by non-standard
and complex flow patterns
(4) The nature of flow in operations
has no impact on the process
choices available to the
operations manager
Choose the correct option :
(A) (2)
(B) (4)
(C) (3)
(D) (1)
22. The measure of how well the
regression line fits the data is the :
(A) slope of regression line
(B) mean square error
(C) coefficient of determination
(D) standard error of the regression
coefficient
23. Which of the following is not a
support activity in Michael Porter’s
value chain analysis model ?
(A) Firm infrastructure
(B) Procurement
(C) Technology development
(D) After sales services
24. .......................... is the payment
method most often used in
international trade which offers the
exporter best assurance of being paid
for the products sold internationally.
(A) Bill of lading
(B) Letter of credit
(C) Open account
(D) Bank draft
25. Match the right pairs :
(1) Universally mentioned
Rewards of Entrepre- (i) Power
neurship
(2) Occasionally mentioned (ii) Wealth
rewards of Entrepreneurship
(3) Rarely mentioned
rewards of entrepre- (iii) Develop
neurship new product/
idea
Which of the given choices
represents the correct pairs :
(A) (1-ii), (2-iii), (3-i)
(B) (1-ii), (2-i), (3-iii)
(C) (1-iii), (2-i), (3-ii)
(D) (1-i), (2-iii), (3-ii)
26.
Idea
Generation
Idea
Screening ?
Commerciali- zation
Product
Development
5 4
1 2 3
Stage-3 of New Product
Development is :
(A) Determine business potential
(B) Idea evaluation
(C) Test product development
(D) Determine product cost
27. The method used to give new or
present employees the skills they
need to perform their jobs are called
........................... .
(A) orientation
(B) training
(C) development
(D) management
28. Which of the following markets will
be less competitive ?
(A) High barriers to entry
(B) Presence of large number of
substitutes
(C) Strong bargaining power of
suppliers
(D) Strong bargaining power of
distributors
29. The customer pages of a company
on ‘Facebook’ is an example of :
(A) Viral marketing
(B) Social media marketing
(C) Network marketing
(D) Referral marketing
30. The type of financing in which the
purchaser approaches the
shareholders directly instead of the
management to acquire interest in
acquired firm is known as :
(A) Preference share financing
(B) Tender offer
(C) Deferred payment plan
(D) Ordinary share financing
31. Who proposed that a country
produces and exports the product in
which she has absolute advantage
and import the rest of the products
from other countries ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Posner
(D) Ohlin
32. Who takes the advantage of leverage
i.e. the possibility of large potential
gains and large potential losses in
the derivatives market ?
(A) Hedgers
(B) Speculators
(C) Arbitrageurs
(D) Regulators
33. When the price of petrol rises,
demand for automobiles decreases
because car and petrol are :
(A) Complementary goods
(B) Substitute goods
(C) Inferior goods
(D) Normal goods
34. Which of the HR functions is least
affected by internationalisation ?
(A) Succession planning
(B) Equal employment opportunities
(C) Compensation
(D) Training
35. The following is not an objective of
wage incentive programme :
(A) Developing ownership interest
(B) Improving employee retention
(C) Reducing labour costs
(D) Facilitating the separation of
employees
36. Firm A acquires firm B, MPS of B
is Rs. 20 and EPS is Rs. 5. For an
exchange ratio of 1.5 : 1 what was
the P/E ratio used in acquiring
B ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 2.66
37. Which of the following statements
is not true for services ?
(A) Most service products cannot be
inventoried
(B) Intangible elements usually
dominate value creation
(C) Operational inputs and outputs
do not vary
(D) Customers may be involved in
co-production
38. The product of ‘actual time’
‘performance rating’ and ‘allowance
factor’ is known as :
(A) Cycle time
(B) Standard task time
(C) Completion time per unit
(D) Setup time
39. Information system that monitors,
the elementary activities and
transactions of the organisations
are :
(A) Management level systems
(B) Operational level systems
(C) Knowledge level systems
(D) Strategic level systems
40. A conglomerate diversification
strategy involves .......................... .
(A) Diversifying into related areas
(B) Diversifying into unrelated
areas
(C) Joining hands with competitors
(D) Forging collaboration with
foreign companies
41. On basis of the statements given
below answer the question given :
(1) It is ethical to make
exaggerated claims in
advertisements
(2) It is ethical to degrade rival
products in advertisements
(3) It is ethical to make false claims
in advertisements
(4) Advertisements which are
obscene are ethical
(A) Statements (3) and (4) are
incorrect
(B) All statements (1), (2), (3) and
(4) are incorrect
(C) Only statements (3) and (4) are
incorrect
(D) Only statement (4) is incorrect
42. Which of the following statements
is incorrect ?
Ethical codes .................... .
(A) are statements of norms and
beliefs of an organisation
(B) establish priorities between
norms and beliefs
(C) should be updated
periodically
(D) are considered as ‘window
dressing’ by many employees
43. When looking at consumer’s income,
marketers are most interested in :
(A) Inflationary income
(B) Disposable income
(C) Gross income
(D) Discretionary income
44. The goal of wealth management does
not take into consideration :
(A) Risk related to uncertainty of
returns
(B) Timing of expected returns
(C) Amount of returns expected
(D) Impact of competition on cash
flows
45. Suppose country ‘A’ produces a new
product which will be produced by
country ‘B’ within a stipulated period
of time. This gap in time period is
called .................... .
(A) Time lag
(B) Demand lag
(C) Supply lag
(D) Imitation lag
46. Which one of the following entry
models for international business
has maximum risk but maximum
reward also ?
(A) Licensing
(B) Alliances
(C) Direct exporting
(D) Indirect exporting
47. Choose the correct option :
Allowance given for using capital
equipment for production is known
as :
(A) Appreciation
(B) Deficit
(C) Loss
(D) Depreciation
48. The first stage of conflict resolution
is to :
(A) define the problem
(B) analyse the problem
(C) choose a solution
(D) think through possible solutions
49. Training objectives should be
expressed in :
(A) Employee behaviour
(B) Needs assessment
(C) Employee reactions
(D) Subjective judgement
50. Which of the following is not an
assumption of the MM theory for
irrelevance of dividends ?
(A) Irrational investors
(B) No tax discrimination on capital
gains and dividends
(C) No transaction costs
(D) No floatation costs
51. The firm’s orientation characterised
by the belief that ‘a good product will
sell itself’ is a reflection of :
(A) Sales orientation
(B) Product orientation
(C) Relationship orientation
(D) Marketing orientation
52. Which of the following methods is
used to measure correct demand ?
(A) Market build up method
(B) Survey of buyer’s intentions
(C) Composite of sales force
opinions
(D) Past sales analysis
53. In a bank customers arrive once in
every 3 minutes. What is the
probability of exactly 10 customers
arriving at the bank within a time
period of half an hour ?
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.125
(C) 0.15
(D) 0.10
54. Two cards are drawn in succession
from a standard 52 card deck. What
is the probability that both the cards
are aces if the cards are drawn
without replacement ?
(A) 0.0044
(B) 0.044
(C) 0.44
(D) –0.44
55. Match the contributions of the
following :
(i) Igor Ansoff (a) QUEST technique
(ii) Michael Porter (b) Growth vector
(iii) B. Nanus (c) Competitive advantage
of nations
(iv) Mc Kinsey (d) 7-S
Select the correct matching :
(A) (i-d), (ii-a), (iii-b), (iv-c)
(B) (i-b), (ii-c), (iii-a), (iv-d)
(C) (i-b), (ii-d), (iii-c), (iv-a)
(D) (i-c), (ii-d), (iii-a), (iv-a)
56. Which among the following is not
a distinctive competitive advantage
for SSI’s ?
(A) Ability to mobilize local
resources
(B) Quick response to rapidly
changing environment
(C) Better managerial control
(D) Economies of scale
57. Select the correct option :
A teleological approach to business
ethics proposes that the guiding
principle should be :
(A) Power
(B) Purpose
(C) Practice
(D) People
58. Which of the following is not one of
the main reasons for major changes
in performance appraisal in recent
years ?
(A) Total quality management
(B) Knowledge management
initiatives
(C) Government legislation
(D) Team work initiatives
59. Company ‘A’ is interested in
finding out if the demand for a
particular brand of detergent is
sensitive to higher or lower prices.
What type of research design would
be most suitable to carry the
research ?
(A) Experimental Research
Design
(B) Exploratory Research Design
(C) Descriptive Research Design
(D) Secondary Data Research
60. Which of the following statements
is True ?
(A) Forward exchange contracts are
traded on at an organised
exchange
(B) Future contracts are carried out
through direct dealing between
parties
(C) Leading and lagging is an
internal technique of foreign
exchange risk management
(D) Translation profits or losses
must be reflected in the income
statement
61. When the market forces reduce the
external value of a currency, then
the process is called ....................... .
(A) Deflation
(B) Devaluation
(C) Exchange rate depreciation
(D) Depreciation
62. Employee orientation programme
should be the concern of :
(A) top management
(B) the supervisor
(C) the HR department
(D) both the HR department and
the supervisor
63. “Extra leg space” in aircraft and
“services guarantee” are examples
of :
(A) Demand-supply management
strategies in services
(B) C.R.M. initiatives in services
(C) Tangibilising the intangibles in
services
(D) Creative pricing in services
64. The OPEC operating at the
international level is the case
of a ............................ .
(A) Holding company
(B) Cartel
(C) Multinational company
(D) Trust
65. Victor Vroom’s V.I.E. model of
motivation is about :
(A) Value Interpretation
Experiment
(B) Varied Interpersonal
Experience
(C) Variety Involvement Execution
(D) Valence instrumentality
Expectancy
66. Match the correct option
(A) A candid statement
from a
rater
Self Appraisal (B) Evaluation by
a ratee
(C) E v a l u a t i o n
based on key
incidents
(D) C o m p a r i n g
ratees to one
another
67. The stability of dividends can
take any of the following
forms :
(i) Constant dividend per
share
(ii) Stable D/P ratio
(iii) Constant dividend per share
plus extra dividend
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
68. In a project the following
information about procedence
relationships and activity
completion time is given :
Activity Immediate Activity
predecessor Completion
Time (in weeks)
A — 1
B — 2
C A 3
D B 4
E C 4
F C 3
G D&E 5
H F&G 2
Choose the correct critical path :
(A) A–C–F–H
(B) A–C–E–G–H
(C) B–D–G–H
(D) B-D–E–F–H
69. Study the table given below and
answer the question :
Topology Feature
(1) Star topology (a) The terminals are
connected in a
circle like cable
layout
(2) Ring topology (b) allows for all
messages to be
sent to the entire
network through
a circuit
(3) Hybrid topology (c) Communications
are routed
through the
central system
known as server
(4) Bus topology (d) Mix of topologies
to serve specific
communication
needs
Choose the right option representing
the correct combinations
(A) 1—(c), 2—(a), 3—(d), 4—(b)
(B) 1—(c), 2—(b), 3—(a), 4—(d)
(C) 1—(a), 2—(b), 3—(c), 4—(d)
(D) 1—(d), 2—(a), 3—(b), 4—(c)
70. ‘Moonlighting’ refers to :
(A) Doing a part time
entrepreneurial work after
regular job hours
(B) Taking business away from
one’s employer
(C) Getting extra business for the
employer through personal
contacts
(D) Attempt to make one’s business
seem more successful than the
reality
71. Select the correct option :
Kyoto Protocol :
(A) will result into reduction of
Greenhouse Gases
(B) will improve quality of work life
(C) will ensure and protect
employee privacy
(D) will reduce gender
discrimination
72. The first step in a performance
analysis is to :
(A) compare the person’s
performance to ideal
performance
(B) evaluate productivity per
employee
(C) conduct tests of job knowledge
(D) evaluate supervisor
performance reviews
73. The systematic and deliberate
advancement made by an individual
in his/her career in the entire work
life is known as :
(A) career path
(B) career review
(C) career guidance
(D) career anchoring
74. Which of the following statements
is false ?
(A) Return on any financial asset
consists of current yield and
capital yield.
(B) In CAPM, beta represents total
risk i.e. systematic and
unsystematic risk.
(C) Risk of a portfolio depends on
the correlation among the
securities in the portfolio.
(D) Risk of an individual financial
asset refers to variability of its
returns around its mean
returns.
75. In which of the following
types of trading blocs are
monetary and fiscal policies
co-ordinated among member
countries ?
(A) Free trade area
(B) Customs union
(C) Common market
(D) Economic union


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