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APTITUDE TEST
Directions: In the following question, pick the choice whose meaning is opposite to the word shown in capitals.

1.HOI POLLOI:
(1) Cannibalism (2) Tyranny (3) The past (4) Aristocracy (5) Capitalist
Directions: In the following question, the descriptive sentence is aptly described by just one word. Select the choice which give the meaning most appropriately:

2.One who talks in his sleep:
(1) Somniloquist (2) Somnivocalist (3) Somnambulist (4) Somnalesist (5) None of these

Directions: In each question below you will find three words. The first two words are related to each other in some way. The third word is also related in the same way to one of the four alternatives marked as: (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find it out.

3.REMAIN : STAY LEAVE: ?
(1) Good-bye (2) Run (3) Farewell (4) Depart

4.POET : VERSE SCULPTOR : ?
(1) Artist (2) Chisel (3) Statue (4) Marble

Directions: In each question below you will find words, four of which are alike in some respect; they have something in common and belong to one category. Only one word is different from them; it does not belong to the category to which the other four belong. Which word is different from the rest?

5.(1) Foot ball (2) Cricket (3) Polo (4) Chess (5) Hockey

6.(1) Eye (2) Nose (3) Tongue (4) Finger (5) Liver

7.In a code where a numeral represents an alphabet the most likely code for the word RECESS is:
(1) 913155 (2) 723245 (3) 865277 (4) 233300 (5) 983499

8.If in a code a,b,c, means `try your best’, b,o,p,o means `try again & again’ x,y,a means `all the best’ – Then `your best again’ is represented by
(1) c a o (2) p o c (3) a c p (4) y c a (5) o c y

Directions: In the following question complete the given series
9.48,24,72,36,108, . . . . . . . . . . .

(1) 110 (2)115 (3) 64 (4) 54 (5) 125

10.Of the following numbers which one is the greatest?

(1) (0.6 x 0.6)-12 (2) 0.004 x 100 (3) (-0.7)4 (4) 0.2 x 0.2



1.Written test will consists of 240 multiple choice objective type questions.Test is designed to assess the candidate’s Professional ( Technical) Knowledge of the chosen Engineering Discipline and Higher Aptitude covering area like Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Logical thinking, English usage, General Awareness etc.

1.your performance in this written test will determine possibility of further considerations of your candidature.

3.There is a specific time limit for Written Test. Candidate will have to answer 240 questions in 2 hours and 30 minutes.

4.For each question, a choice of few alternative answers have been given, out of which only one alternative is correct. You have to choose the alternative, you think to be correct and indicate your choice on the OMR answer sheet.

5.Your admission to this Test is, however, provisional. The candidates are advised to ensure while applying that they fulfill the eligibility criteria and other requirements and that the particulars furnished by them are correct in all respects for the post applied for. Mere appearance at the Test does not entail you to make any claim for the post. You will be treated as debarred ab-initio in case you do not fulfill the essential eligibility criteria.

6.The Answer Sheet is a special OMR (Optical Mark Reader) sheet.

7.Use BLACK or BLUE Ball point Pen ONLY.

8.Every question will carry 1 mark. Negative marking to the extent of 0.2 marks per wrong answer will be applicable.

9.a) For answering the Test questions, there will be CIRCLES in the Answer Sheet. The chosen answer is to be indicated by darkening (encoding) one of the CIRCLES fully. Any other method of answering will be taken as incorrect answer.

For Example, If 10x+6=106, then 15X -10 will be

(1) 100 (2)140 (3)110 (4)80 (5) None of the above

Since correct answer is option (2), the CIRCLE 2 will have to be darkened (encoded) to fill the space completely like this:

The following are not correct methods of marking:

b) Darken only in the CIRCLES provided. Please do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet. This will be penalised.

c) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet. This will be penalised. You can use the Test Booklet for this purpose.

d) Change / Cutting / Overwriting / Erasing of CIRCLES is NOT permitted.

SAMPLE TEST QUESTION

1. APTITUDE TEST

Directions: In the following question, pick the choice whose meaning is opposite to the word shown in capitals.

1.HOI POLLOI:

(1) Cannibalism (2) Tyranny (3) The past (4) Aristocracy (5) Capitalist

Directions: In the following question, the descriptive sentence is aptly described by just one word. Select the choice which give the meaning most appropriately:

2.One who talks in his sleep:

(1) Somniloquist (2) Somnivocalist (3) Somnambulist (4) Somnalesist (5) None of these



3.REMAIN : STAY LEAVE: ?

(1) Good-bye (2) Run (3) Farewell (4) Depart

4.POET : VERSE SCULPTOR : ?

(1) Artist (2) Chisel (3) Statue (4) Marble

Directions: In each question below you will find words, four of which are alike in some respect; they have something in common and belong to one category. Only one word is different from them; it does not belong to the category to which the other four belong. Which word is different from the rest?

5.(1) Foot ball (2) Cricket (3) Polo (4) Chess (5) Hockey

6.(1) Eye (2) Nose (3) Tongue (4) Finger (5) Liver

7.In a code where a numeral represents an alphabet the most likely code for the word RECESS is:
(1) 913155 (2) 723245 (3) 865277 (4) 233300 (5) 983499

8.If in a code a,b,c, means `try your best’, b,o,p,o means `try again & again’ x,y,a means `all the best’ – Then `your best again’ is represented by

(1) c a o (2) p o c (3) a c p (4) y c a (5) o c y

Directions: In the following question complete the given series

9.48,24,72,36,108, . . . . . . . . . . .

(1) 110 (2)115 (3) 64 (4) 54 (5) 125

10.Of the following numbers which one is the greatest?

(1) (0.6 x 0.6)-12 (2) 0.004 x 100 (3) (-0.7)4 (4) 0.2 x 0.2

11.Which of the following numbers is least?

(1) (1/4)2 (2) 49 (3) 4-9 (4) 42

12.It costs Rs.4.25 for two adults and their child to attend the Circus. If the child’s ticket is half the price of adult’s ticket, what is the price of an adult’s ticket?

(1) Rs.0.75 (2)Rs. 1.70 (3) Rs.1.75 (4) Rs.1.44

13.If `a’ is less than 50 and ‘b’ is less than 25, it follows that:

(1) a=2b (2) `a` is greater than b (3) a+b is less than 75 (4) a-b =25 (5) None of these

2A. TECHNICAL TEST (for Engineer Trainees)

PART 1 – GENERAL

1.A series combination of Resistance and Capacitor is put across a Thyristor to protect it from:

1) High Currents (2) High voltage (3) High rate of change of voltage (4) High rate of change of current(5) Thermal run away

2.A Babbitt is:
(1) An eutectic of iron and iron phosphide
(2) A gadget of measuring volume
(3) Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
(4) A measure of magnetic induction produced in a material
(5) None of these above

3.An Induction motor is:
(1) Self-starting with zero torque (2) Self-starting with very high torque
(3) Self-starting with smaller torque than the rated torque (4) None of the above

PART II – SPECIALISED FIELDS

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1.The transformer capacity is 200 KVA, percentage impedance is 4% and tolerance impedance is 10%. The short circuit current in KA is:

(1) 0.39 (2) 8.21 (3) 8210 (4) 82100 (5) 0.821

2.A 20 KVA transformer was found to have 600 W Iron losses and 700 W Copper losses, when supplying full load at 0.8 power factor. The efficiency of the transformer on full load is:

(1) 92.5% (2) 91.2% (3) 100% (4) 98.2% (5) None of these

3.A water heater holds 20 litres of water. An electric immersion heater which will raise the temperature of the water from 10 degree C to 88 degree C in 55 minutes and efficiency of 85%. The rating in KW is

(1)7685000 (2)2330 (3)2.33 (4) 23.3 (5) None of these

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

1.A 10 Kw transistor is modulated to 80%. The average side band power will be:

(1) 1.8 KW (2) 8 KW (3) 3.2 KW (4) 4.6 KW (5) 4.26 KW

2.A resonant circuit has the resonance frequency 1 MHz and quality factor, Q, 100. Its 3-db band width is:

(1) 10 KHz (2) 5 KHz (3) 100 KHz (4) 20 KHz (5) None of these

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

1.The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle I.C. engine remains open for nearly:

(1) 180o (2) 125o (3) 235o (4) 200o (5) 275o

2.Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the cut off is:

(1) Increased (2) Decreased (3) Maximum (4) Minimum (5) Zero

ANSWER KEY

1. APTITUDE TEST

1(4) 2. (1) 3.(4) 4.(3) 5.(4) 6.(5) 7.(1) 8. (1) 9.(4) 10.(1) 11.(3) 12.(2) 13.(3)

2A. TECHNICAL TEST – PART I – GENERAL

1(3) 2.(3) 3.(3)

PART II – SPECIALISED FIELDS

1.ELECTRICAL ENGG. 1. (2) 2. (1) 3.(3)

2.ELECTRONICS ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (1)

3.MECHANICAL ENGG. 1. (3) 2. (5)

When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms

a.) Resistanceb.) Reactancec.) Impedance d.) None

Oscillator crystal are made of –

a.) Silicon

b.) Germanium

c.) Quartz

d.) None

For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-a. )Airb. )Ferrite c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel
If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –

a.)

b.) C

c.) 2C

d.) 4C

A superconductor is a –

a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

b.) A conductor having zero resistance

c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility

d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –

a) 8.05 pF

b) 10.05pF

c.) 16.01pF

d.) 20.01pF

Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –

a.) Inductance

b.) Capacitance

c.) Resistance

d.) None

Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –

a.) Resistance in the line

b.) Capacitor in series with contacts

c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts

d.) None

RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –

a.) Class ‘A’

b.) Class ‘b’

c.) Class ‘C’

d.) None

The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –

a.) High positive

b.) High negative

c.) Low positive

d.) Zero

The input gate current of a FET is –

a.) a few microamperes

b.) negligibly small

c.) a few milliamperes

d.) a few amperes

In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

a.) 25 mA
b.) 40 mA
c.) 25/16 mA
d.) 10 mA

A step recovery diode –

a.) has on extremely short recovery time

b.) conducts equally well in both directions

c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator

d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-

a.) 0.1V

b.) 5V

c.) 10V

d) V

In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –

a.) source

b.) drain

c.) gate

d.) none

The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –a.) Triacb.) UJT c.) Diac
d.) SCR
A typical optical fibre has –

a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding

b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding

c.) Both a and b

d.) None

In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –

a.) 9

b.) 11

c.) 10

d.) 21

When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be – a.) 3 – j1 b.) 3 + j9
c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
d.) 7.5 – j 2.5
In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load – a.) 5 b.) 6.5
c.) 8
d.) 9
For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-a.) Z0 cot h Ölb.) Z0 cot Öl c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l
d.) Z0 tan Öl
The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –a.) lb.) l/4 c.) l/2
d.) l/8
A relatively permanent information is stored in

a. ) ROM

b.) RAM

c.) PROM

d.) Volatile memory

The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to – b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC
If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be – a.) cos50tA b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA
When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively – a) 9W, 6W and 6W b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
d.) 6W, 9W and 6W
When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
d.) indeterminate
Joule/coulomb is the unit of – a.) Electric field potential b.) Potential c .) Charge
d.) None of the above
The electric field line and equipotential lines-

a.) Are parallel to each other

b.)Are one and same

c.) Cut each other orthogonally

d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line
When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-

a.) In the +x direction

b.) In the –x direction

c. ) In the +y direction

d.) In the –y direction

The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-

a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation

b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation

c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

d. ) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-

a.) TM01

b.)TE10

c.) TM112

d.)TE11

When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –
. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be

a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value

b.)Remain the same

c. )Increase

d.)Decrease to zero

When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

a.) A short – circuited stub at the load

b.)An inductance at the load

c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load

d.)none of the above

As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –a.) less accurateb.) more accurate c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –a.) VTVMb.) Cathode ray oscilloscope c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5. c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –a.) 11.1b.) 44.2 c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3
The Q of a radio coil –a.) is independent of frequencyb.) increases monotonically as frequency increases c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –a.) 0.5b.) 1.5 c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation) c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –

a.) -2000C to 5000C

b.) 00C to 5000C

c.) 5000C to 12000C

d.) 12000C to 25000C

In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)

b.) Silicon (Si)

c.) Copper (Cu)

d.) Germanium (Ge)

When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –

a.) 1

b.) 2

c.) 3

d.) 4

The circuit symbol for a GTO is

a. b.

c. d.

In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS

b.) 50 A, 30 mSc.) 100 A, 62.828 mSd.) 400 A, 31.414 mS