Am I eligible to appear for National Eligibility Test after passing Post graduation in engineering stream

No, you are not eligible to appear for National Eligibility Test after passing Post graduation in engineering stream . only Humanities (including languages) and Social Science, Computer Science & Applications, Electronic Science students are eligible for National Eligibility Test (NET) is organized by University grant commission..

NET eligibility :
You have to passed a Master degree or equivalent in related subjects from a well recognized university with Humanities (including languages) and Social Science, Computer Science & Applications, Electronic Science etc.

You must obtained at least 55% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s Degree and at least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s degree for Other Backward Classes (OBC) belonging to non-creamy layer / Scheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribe (ST) / Persons with disability (PWD) etc..

1. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already
known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to
make fresh interpretation of
known facts
2. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
3. The principles of fundamental
research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
4. Users who use media for their own
ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
5. Classroom communication can be
described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
6. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions (B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions (D) Creations

7. In communication, myths have power,
but are
(A) uncultural.
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred.
8. The first multi-lingual news agency of
India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
9. Organisational communication can
also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.
10. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms are such
that one is the denial of the other, the
relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and
follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does.
Archana talks with Ananya also in
Bengali. Krishna can not follow
Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in
Hindi. Who can speak and follow
English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna

12. A stipulative definition may be said to
be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes
false
(D) Neither true nor false
13. When the conclusion of an argument
follows from its premise/premises
conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the
earth. They borrow light from the Sun
and moves around the Sun as the
Earth does. So those planets are
inhabited by various orders of
creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in
the above passage ?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological
(C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
15. Given below are two premises. Four
conclusions are drawn from those two
premises in four codes. Select the code
that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints.
(minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are
religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest.

Following table provides details about the
Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India
from different regions of the world in
different years. Study the table carefully
and answer questions from 16 to 19 based
on this table.
Number of Foreign Tourist
Arrivals Region
2007 2008 2009
Western
Europe
1686083 1799525 1610086
North
America
1007276 1027297 1024469
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633
South East
Asia
303475 332925 348495
East Asia 352037 355230 318292
West Asia 171661 215542 201110
Total FTAs
in India
5081504 5282603 5108579
16. Find out the region that contributed
around 20 percent of the total foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
17. Which of the following regions has
recorded the highest negative growth
rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India
in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
18. Find out the region that has been
showing declining trend in terms of
share of foreign tourist arrivals in
India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia 19. Identify the region that has shown
hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the
total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia

20. The post-industrial society is
designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
21. The initial efforts for internet based
communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
22. Internal communication within
institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
23. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
24. The first virtual university of India
came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
25. Arrange the following books in
chronological order in which they
appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

26. Which one of the following continents
is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
27. “Women are closer to nature than
men.” What kind of perspective is this ?
(A) Realist (B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology
28. Which one of the following is not a
matter a global concern in the removal
of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the
chemicals that contribute to
depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the
oxygen and carbon balance of
the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface
and air temperatures, moisture
content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the
biological diversity of the planet.
29. The most comprehensive approach to
address the problems of manenvironment
interaction is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation
Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth
Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth
Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
30. The major source of the pollutant gas,
carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban
areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the
energy is obtained from the
combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG (D) CNG

32. Which one of the following Councils
has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council
(DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher
Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational
Research and Training
(NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and
Accreditation Council (NAAC)
33. Which of the following statements are
correct about the National Assessment
and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the
responsibility of assessing and
accrediting institutions of higher
education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
34. The power of the Supreme Court of
India to decide disputes between two
or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
35. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
1. There are seven Union
Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have
Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High
Court.
4. One Union Territory is the
capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Which of the following statements are
correct about the Central Information
Commission ?
1. The Central Information
Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information
Commissioner and other
Information Commissioners are
appointed by the President of
India.
3. The Commission can impose
a penalty upto a maximum of
` 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
37. Who among the following conducted
the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013
Election Tracker Survey across 267
constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of
Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic
Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
38. In certain code TEACHER is written
as VGCEJGT. The code of
CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these
39. A person has to buy both apples and
mangoes. The cost of one apple is
` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-.
If the person has ` 38, the number of
apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

40. A man pointing to a lady said, “The
son of her only brother is the brother
of my wife”. The lady is related to the
man as
(A) Mother’s sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
41. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2,
2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs
of successive numbers have a
difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
42. The mean marks obtained by a class
of 40 students is 65. The mean marks
of half of the students is found to be
45. The mean marks of the remaining
students is
(A) 85 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 65
43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three
years ago, he was three times as old as
Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
44. Which of the following is a social
network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
45. The population information is called
parameter while the corresponding
sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with
UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in
global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian
conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have
demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand,
India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys
indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable
heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological
Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to
overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to
redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to
enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps
overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to
integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the
heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and
conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian
National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial
state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green
building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a
vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation
and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of
awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.
49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of
protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of
protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full
form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

52. While delivering lecture if there is
some disturbance in the class, a
teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then
continue.
(B) punish those causing
disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing
disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening
in the class.
53. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and
commitment.
(C) Teacher’s making students learn
and understand.
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional
excellence.
54. The most appropriate meaning of
learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
55. Arrange the following teaching
process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge
with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional
materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

56. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education
and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering
and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education
Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation
Techniques.
57. Teacher’s role at higher education
level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition
among students.
(D) help students to solve their
problems.
58. The Verstehen School of
Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
59. The sequential operations in scientific
research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations, Generalisation,
Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation,
Theorisation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation,
Elimination of Spurious
Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations,
Theorisation, Generalisation,
Co-variation.
60. In sampling, the lottery method is
used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation

Attached Files

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