2023 2024 EduVark > Education Discussion > General Discussion > Previous Year Solved Question Paper Of IBPS Specialist Officer


Thread: Previous Year Solved Question Paper Of IBPS Specialist Officer Reply to Thread
Your Username: Click here to log in
Title:
  
Message:
Trackback:
Send Trackbacks to (Separate multiple URLs with spaces) :
Post Icons
You may choose an icon for your message from the following list:
 

Additional Options
Miscellaneous Options

Topic Review (Newest First)
March 25th, 2017 08:08 AM
Garima Chauhan
Re: Previous Year Solved Question Paper Of IBPS Specialist Officer

IBPS Bank Specialist Officer Exam contains 4 subjects Reasoning, English language, General Awareness and Professional Knowledge.

IBPS Specialist Officer Exam divided into 4 sections all candidates required to qualify in each subject to be called for interview.

Paper pattern:

Paper Pattern For Law Officer & Rajbhasha Adhikari
Name of the Tests Maximum Marks Total Time
Specialist Officer Reasoning Test 50 120 Minutes
SO English Language Test 25
SO General Awareness Test 50
SO Professional Knowledge Test 75
Total 200

Paper Pattern For IT Officer, Agricultural Field Officer, HR / Personnel Officer & Marketing Officer

Paper name Maximum Marks Total Time
SO Reasoning Paper 50 120 Minutes
SO English Language Paper 25
SO General Awareness Paper 50
SO Professional Knowledge Paper 75
Total 200


Previous Year Solved Question Paper Of IBPS Specialist Officer:

Question1. Which command(s) is (are) used to redefine a column of the table in SQL?
Alter Table
Define Table
Modify Table
All of the these
None of these

Question2. A ___ _contains the smallest unit of meaningful data, so you might call it the basic building block for a data files?
File structures
Records
Fields
Database
None of these

Question3. A set of programs that handle firm’s database responsibilities is called a
Data base Management System (DBMS)
Data Base Processing System (DBPS)
Data Management System (DMS)
All of these
None of these

Question4. Which of the following system program forgoes the production of object code to generate absolute machine code and load it into the physical main storage location from which it will be executed immediately upon completion of the assembly?
Two pass assembler
Load and go assembler
Macro processor
Compiler
None of these

Question5. Early morning after sunrise rajesh was standing in front of his house in such a way that his shadow was falling exactly behind him. He starts walking straight and walks 5 meters he turns to his left and walks 3 meters and again turning to his left walks 2 meters now in which direction is he from his starting point?
South
West
South-east
South-west
North-east

Question6. When a customer opens a Deposit account with the Bank, which one of the following is the status of the Bank?
Debtor
Creditor
Trustee
Beneficiary
None of these

7. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Opinio juris sine necessitatis meatis

(a) jurist‟s opinion regarding existence of a long practice is a necessary requirement for a valid

custom

(b) the practice is recognized as obligatory and there is a conviction that its repetition is the result

of a compulsory rule

(c) jurist‟s opinion is that states are required necessarily to follow the practice

(d) the alleged practice must be proved by satisfactory evidence before juristic tribunals

Ans. (b)

8. Match List-I with List-IT and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists:

List-I List-II

(Case) (Court)

A. The Paquette Habana and Lola Case 1. The International Court of Justice

B. The S. S. Lotus Case 2. The U.S. Supreme Court

C. The Island of Palmas Case 3. The Permanent Court of International Justice

Arbitration

D. The Asylum Case 4. The Permanent Court of International

-

(Haya Dela Torres Case) Arbitration

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (b)

9. Consider the following statements:

1. A treaty rule can become custom and a customary rule can lead to a treaty.

2. A treaty to become customary law for non-party states should create mandatory norms for

party states.

3. A treaty cannot create customary law for nations who have refrained from ratifying it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans. (d)

10. consider the following human rights, recognized under the International covenant on

Economic, Social and Cultural Rights:

1. People‟s right of self-determination and right to freely determine their political status.

2. People‟s right to freely dispose off their natural wealth and resources.

3. People‟s right to freely pursue their economic, social and cultural development.

Which of these rights have found place in the International covenant on civil and Political Rights

also?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) l and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

11.consider the following statements

-

1. The 10 non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected for a 3-year term by a

two-third majority of the General Assembly.

2. The Security Council has the primary responsibility under the UN Charter for the maintenance

of international judges in peace and security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the coned answer by using the codes given below

the lists:

List-I List-II

(Subject Matter) (Case)

A. Compensation for mining and supporting 1. The Gulf of Maine Case

contra guerillas in breach of International law (Canada Vs USA)

B. Existence of a local or particular custom 2. The Nicaragua Case

between two states (Nicaragua Vs USA)

C. Delimitation of continental shelf between 3. The Corfu Channel Case

two states (UK Vs Albania)

D. Right of innocent passage and duties of 4. The Bight of Pas over Indian

coastal states Territory Case

(Portugal Vs India)

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (d)

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected both by the General Assembly and the

Security Council.

2. The total number of judges in International Court of Justice is seventeen.

-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

14. Consider the following sources of International law:

1. Judicial decisions

2. Customs

3. General Principles of Law recognized by civilized nations

4. Conventions

Which one of the following is the correct order in which they are mentioned in the ICJ Statute?

(a) 4-1-3-2

(b) 3-2-4-1

(c) 4-2-3-1

(d) 3-1-4-2

Ans. (c)

15. Consider the following big powers in the Security Council:

1. U .S. A.

2. U. K

3. France

4. The People‟s Republic of China

Which of these big powers have withdrawn/terminated their declarations, accepting the

compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice?

(a) l and 2

(b)1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

16. Consider the following statements 1. There is no bar to two members of the ICJ being

nationals of the same state.

2. The statute of the ICJ emphasizes on maintaining the independence of judges who are to be

elected “regardless of their nationality”.

-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following are among the 6 main committees of the UN General Assembly?

1. Legal Committee

2. Disarmament and International Security Committee

3. Administrative and Budgetary Committee

4. Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) l and 4

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

18. Consider the following statements in respect of International law:

For recognition of belligerency,

1. hostilities must be general

2. rebels must have organized force

3. rebels should be having control over substantial part of national territory.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists:

List-I List-II

(Doctrine) (Effect)

A. Estrada doctrine 1. Relates to non-recognition

-

B. Retroactivity doctrine 2. Recognition validates the acts of a government from

the date of its inception

C. Stimson doctrine 3. Relates to establishment of diplomatic relations on

change of government through revolution

Codes:

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 3 2 1

(c) 3 1 2

(d) 1 3 2

Ans. (b)

20. Consider the following statements

1. The bulk of state practice supports the evidentiary theory of recognition.

2 International law recognizes duty oil the part of existing states to give recognition to new

states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

21. Consider the following statements:

The acknowledgement of a judicial fact that there exists a state of hostilities between two

factions contending for power or authority may give rise to

1. recognition of insurgency

2. recognition of belligerency

3. retroactive effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Ans. (d)

-

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Political treaties do not succeed

2. Dispositive treaties succeed

3. Claims to un-liquidated damages succeed

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d)1 and3

Ans. (c)

23. Consider the following statements:

1. There cannot be exchange of diplomatic representatives without the presumption that the

foreign state exists independently.

2. De jure recognition once given cannot be withdrawn.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists:

List – I List -II

(Principle) (Case)

A. Principle of prescription 1. Maverommatis Palestine Concessions Case

B. Principle of res judicata 2. The UN Administrative Tribunal Case

C. Principle of estoppel 3. Eastern Greenland Case

D. Principle of Subrogation 4. Temple of Preah Vihar Case

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 3 2 4 1

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 3 4 2 1

-

Ans. (b)

25. Consider the following statements about General Principles of Law recognized by

civilized nations:

1. This has been recognized in a most authoritative international instrument as a source of

International law.

2. It means the general principles of International law which have been recognized by civilized

states:

3. It has been increasingly used especially in those cases where no law is applicable on a

particular point.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

26. Assertion (A) Savigny is universally recognized as the founder of historical School of

Jurisprudence.

Reason (R) : Savigny emphasized on history as an important factor for study of law

Codes:

(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (a)

27. Consider the following statements:

1. Where there is a right, there is remedy

2. Rights and duties go side by side.

3. State is always able to enforce all the rights.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) l and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

-

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Since duties do not describe, but only prescribe behaviour, it follows hat they fail to express

notional patterns of conduct to which people ought to conform.

2. A duty can be created with reference to past conduct, in which case it represents a notional

pattern of conduct as to how people ought to have behaved.

Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

29. consider the following statements:

1. Moral rules are nor changed by deliberate single acts, while legal rules can be so changed.

2. Moral pressure is applied mainly through appeal to the morality of the conduct, not by

coercion as with legal rules.

Which of the statements

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

30. There is a school of jurisprudence which attempts to identify purpose of law and the

measures and-ma in which they are fulfilled. What is this approach known as?

(a) Realist School

(b) Sociological School

(c) Analytical School

(d) Philosophical School

Ans. (c)

31. Which one of the following concepts does not belong to sociological school of

jurisprudence?

(a) Public interest

(b) Social interest

-

(c) Command

(d) Jural Postulate

Ans. (c)

32. Consider the. following statements with reference to the philosophical school of

jurisprudence:

1. There is inter-relationship between law and morality.

2. The main exponents of this school of jurisprudence were Hugo Grotius, Immanuel Kant and

Schelling.

3. The law has nothing to do with ethics.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (b)

33. The concept of “Rule of Law” in India and England, and “Due Process” in USA are

essentially based on which one of the following?

(a) Positive law philosophy

(b) Realist approach

(c) Natural law philosophy

(d) Social solidarity doctrine

Ans. (c)

34. consider the following statements:

1. The concept of natural law is ambiguous because the concept of nature is ambiguous.

2. Natural law means law made by ancient societies by way of custom.

3. Medieval and modem notions of natural law have little in common.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (c)

-

35. consider the following statements:

The Criminal justice system is based on the premise

1. that punishment keeps people under control.

2. of inherent power of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

36. Keeton divided „sources of law‟ into which two heads?

(a) Binding and persuasive

(b) Custom and legislation

(c) Legislation and judicial precedents

(d) Custom and equity

Ans. (a)

37. consider the following statements :

1. A custom to be legally accepted should not infringe fundamental rules of law.

2. With the development communication, the scope gradually shrunk.

3. In the modem times, custom has ceased to be a source of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) l and 3

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

Ans. (c)

38. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of legislation?

(a) Legislation is difficult to trace

(b) Legislation as source of law is much older than the customary law

(c) Legislation is complete, precise in written form and easily accessible

(d) Legislation grows out of practice and long existence

Ans. (c)

-

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists:

List-I List-II

(Content of Duties) (Type of Duty)

A. Duty to pay off debt 1. Positive legal duty

B. Duties owed to state, breach of which is a crime 2. Absolute duty

C. Duties owed to person, breach of which is a civil injury 3. Relative duty

D. Duty to pay damage for injury done 4. Secondary duty

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 1 4 3 2

(d) 3 2 1 4

Ans. (d)

40. Consider the following statements:

Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides that

1. no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

2. no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both land 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

41. Under Article 22 (4) of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain

provisions stated therein, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under

preventive detention?

(a) 2 months

(b) 3 months

(c) 4 months

(d) 6 months

Ans. (b)

-

42. 93rd amendment in the Constitution of India deals with:

(a) Right to education

(b) Right in respect of physically handicapped persons for appointments in the services under the

state

(c) Reservation for admission in educational institutions

(d) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the services under the state in favour of the other

backward classes.

Ans. (c)

43. Which one of the following statements about the meaning of “Eminent Domain”, under

the Constitution of India, is correct?

(a) Power of the state for requisition

(b) Sovereign power of the state to acquire private property of an individual for public purpose

(c) Sovereign power of the !state to acquire private property of an individual for public purpose

after paying compensation

(d) Power of the state to arrest an individual

Ans. (b)

44. For the purpose of inquiring into and advising upon inter-state dispute, if at any time, it

appears to the President that the public interest would be served by the establishment of

such council, he is empowered to establish which one of the following?

(a) Zonal Council

(b) Inter Council

(c) Inter-State Zonal Council

(d) The Central Inter-Zonal Council

Ans. (b)

45. which one of the following functions does not require consultation with the Public

Service Commissions as per provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Methods of recruitment to civil services and civil posts

(b) Principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services

(c) The manner in which any provision referred to in Article 16 (4) may be made

(d) Any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries suffered by a person while serving

under the Government of India or the Government of a State in a civil capacity.

Ans. (c)

-

46. In which of the following cases; the power of superintendence of High Courts does not

extent?

1. Administrative Tribunals constituted under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.

2. Tribunals created under the Army Act, 1950

3. Tribunals created for adjudication of disputes with regard to inter-state rivers.

4. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 4 only

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (a)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists: List –I List-II (Write) (Matter in dispute)

A. Habeas Corpus 1. Appointment of a university teacher

B. Mandamus 2. Custody of a child by parents

C. Quo Warranto 3. Violation of natural justice

D. Certiorari 4. Refund of money illegally collected as cess by taxing authority

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 1 4 2 3

(d) 2 3 1 4

Ans. (b)

48. Who, among the following, can establish additional courts for better administration of

any existing law with respect to a matter contained in the Union List?

(a) Parliament by law

(b) Parliament with the consent of states

(c) Union Government by resolution

(d) Supreme Court of India

Ans. (b)

-

49. In the appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court, the recommendations of the

Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four of the senior most Judges of the

Supreme Court is binding on the President of India, because

(a) it is so provided in Article 124 of the Constitution of India

(b) it has been the consistent practice for a long time

(c) it has been laid down by the Supreme Court in S.P Gupta Vs Union of India (1982)

(d) it has been laid down by the Supreme Court in Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union

of India (1994).

Ans. (d)

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below

the lists:

List-I List-II

(Decision) (Judicial Principle)

A. Supreme Court Advocates on-record 1. Parliamentary privileges

Association Vs Union of India

B. In Re Vinay Chandra Mishra 2. “Curative petition”

C. In Re Keshav Singh 3.. Contempt power

D. Pupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra 4. Appointment and transfer of Judges of

the Supreme Court and High Court

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 4 3 1 2

Ans. (d)
March 24th, 2017 05:23 PM
Unregistered
Previous Year Solved Question Paper Of IBPS Specialist Officer

Hello sir, how to previous year question papers for IBPS Specialist Officer? Please provide me Previous Year Solved Question Paper Of IBPS Specialist Officer?

Posting Rules
You may post new threads
You may post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off


All times are GMT +5. The time now is 04:27 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.
Content Relevant URLs by vBSEO 3.6.0

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8