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May 10th, 2016, 09:19 AM
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NTRUHS PG Mock Test

I want the sample question paper of NTR University of Health Sciences NTRUHS PGMET exam so can you provide me?
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  #2  
May 10th, 2016, 09:19 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: NTRUHS PG Mock Test

As you want the sample question paper of NTR University of Health Sciences NTRUHS PGMET exam so here I am providing you.

NTRUHS PGMET exam question paper


Subject - Anaesthesiology

Question 1: A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paraesthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except?
A) Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
B) A tight cast or dressing
C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
D) Tourniquet pressure
Answer: C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics

Question 2: A patient undergoing caesarian section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocaine was used as anaesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Amniotic fluid embolism
B) Lignocaine toxicity
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypokalemia
Answer: C) Hypocalcemia

Question 3: When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted except?
A) Carotid sinus massage
B) Adenosine 3 - 12 mg IV
C) Direct current cardioversion
D) Verapamil 5 mg IV
Answer: A) Carotid sinus massage

Question 4: Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children?
A) Enflurane
B) Isoflurane
C) Sevoflurane
D) Desflurane
Answer: C) Sevoflurane

Question 5: Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
A) Neurosurgery
B) Day care surgery
C) Patients with coronary artery disease
D) In neonates
Answer: B) Day care surgery

Subject - Anatomy

Question 6: The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right of left?
A) Atlanto-occipital joint
B) Atlanto-axial joint
C) C2-C3 joint
D) C3-C4 joint
Answer: B) Atlanto-axial joint

Question 7: The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as?
A) Choroid plexus
B) Tuberal plexus
C) Pampiniform plexus
D) Pectiniform plexus
Answer: D) Pectiniform plexus

Question 8: An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features, except?
A) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung
B) Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus
C) Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung
D) Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
Answer: A) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung

Question 9: Infection / inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except?
A) Isthmus of uterine tube
B) Inferior part of anal canal
C) Big toe
D) Penile urethra
Answer: D) Penile urethra

Question 10: While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except?
A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
B) Ilioinguinal nerve
C) Subcostal nerve
D) Iliohypogastric nerve
Answer: A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Question 11: The articular cartilage is characterised by all of the following features, except ?
A) It is devoid of perichondrium
B) It has a rich nerve supply
C) It is avascular
D) It lacks the capacity to regenerate
Answer: B) It has a rich nerve supply

Question 12: The first costochondral joint is a ?
A) Fibrous joint
B) Synovial joint
C) Syndesmosis
D) Syncendrosis
Answer: D) Syncendrosis

Question 13: All of the following are catagorized as secondary lymphoid organs except?
A) Lymph nodes
B) Spleen
C) Thymus
D) Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes
Answer: C) Thymus

subject - Biochemistry

Question 14: The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is?
A) Laminin
B) Fibronectin
C) Collagen type 4
D) Heparan sulphate
Answer: A) Laminin

Question 15: To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong?
A) Kinin system
B) Cytokines
C) Chemokines
D) Arachidonic acid metabolites
Answer: D) Arachidonic acid metabolites

Question 16: Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins?
A) Quaternary structure
B) Tertiary structure
C) Amino acid sequence
D) Loop and turn segments
Answer: A) Quaternary structure

Question 17: Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
A) Proteases
B) Proteosomes
C) Templates
D) Chaperones
Answer: D) Chaperones

Question 18: Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for valine in hemoglobin?
A) Isoleucine
B) Glutamic acid
C) Phenylalanine
D) Lysine
Answer: A) Isoleucine

Question 19: Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to?
A) Clathrin
B) Pepsin
C) Laminin
D) Ubiquitin
Answer: D) Ubiquitin

Question 20: Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's ability to handle oxidative stress?
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Potassium
D) Selenium
Answer: D) Selenium

Question 21: Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of ?
A) Primary structure
B) Secondary structure
C) Tertiary structure
D) Quaternary structure
Answer: B) Secondary structure

Question 22: Radioisotopes are used in the following techniques except?
A) Mass spectroscopy
B) RIA
C) ELISA
D) Sequencing of nucleic acid
Answer: C) ELISA

Question 23: Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of defect in?
A) DNA polymerase III
B) DNA polymerase I
C) DNA exonuclease
D) DNA ligase
Answer: D) DNA ligase

Question 24: A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except?
A) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is higher than normal
B) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is lower than normal
C) Less pyruvate is formed
D) Less ATP is generated
Answer: A) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is higher than normal

Question 25: The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have?
A) A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids
B) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids
C) A disulphide loop
D) Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids
Answer: B) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids

Question 26: A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
A) Chylomicrons
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) HDL
Answer: B) VLDL

Question 27: A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy products. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient?
A) alpha - amylase
B) beta - galactosidase
C) alpha- glucosidase
D) Sucrase
Answer: B) beta - galactosidase

Question 28: A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as?
A) Intron
B) Exon
C) Plasmid
D) TATA Box
Answer: A) Intron

Question 29: An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as?
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) Phosphokinase
Answer: C) Reverse transcriptase

Question 30: A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known as?
A) Cycline
B) Calmodulin
C) Collagen
D) Kinesin
Answer: B) Calmodulin

Question 31: Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP?
A) Tyrosine kinase
B) Polymerase
C) ATP synthase
D) Adenylate cyclase
Answer: D) Adenylate cyclase

Question 32: Shine - Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near?
A) AUG codon
B) UAA codon
C) UAG codon
D) UGA codon
Answer: A) AUG codon

Question 33: For which of the following diseases the enzyme replacement therapy is available?
A) Albinism
B) Niemann Pick disease
C) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
D) Gaucher disease
Answer: D) Gaucher disease

Question 34: Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca2++ from endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Inositol triphosphate
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
D) Diacylglycerol
Answer: A) Inositol triphosphate

Subject - Community Medicine

Question 35: A 3 1/2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child?
A) BCG, DPT1, OPV1 and DPT2, OPV2 after 4 weeks
B) BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A
C) BCG, DPT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A
D) DT1, DT2 and booster after 1 year
Answer: B) BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A

Question 36: If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mm Hg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be?
A) Symmetrical
B) Positively skewed
C) Negatively skewed
D) Either positively or negatively skewed depending on the Standard deviation
Answer: C) Negatively skewed

Question 37: If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is?
A) Original std. Deviation X 10
B) Original std. Deviation / 10
C) Original std. Deviation - 10
D) Original std. Deviation it self
Answer: A) Original std. Deviation X 10

Question 38: A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?
A) The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia
B) Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care
C) Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens
D) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic
Answer: D) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic

Question 39: Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except?
A) Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies
B) Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal services
C) Reduce the under five mortality to half
D) Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections
Answer: C) Reduce the under five mortality to half

Question 40: Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the following except?
A) A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption
B) Reduction in fat intake to 20 - 30 percent of caloric intake
C) Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake
D) Reduction of cholesterol to below 100 mg per 1000 Kcal per day
Answer: A) A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption


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