Hey as The Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) is the all India entrance exam for admission to National Law Universities (NLUs) of India
Copyright © www.www.examrace.com

Exam pattern

The exam consists of multiple choice questions with single answer correct. Each question, to which correct answer is given, will be given +1 mark.

Each question to which candidate answers incorrectly will be given -.25 marks.

for the sake of convenience of students to prepare, in the mock test, no negative markings have been used

Here I am giving you qus paper for general knowledge

1. The Central Pollution Control Board constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 consists of total seventeen members. How many of them are official members?

A. Maximum five
B.Maximum three
C.Maximum two
D. Maximum seven

2. A letter of acceptance sent by post is lost in transit

A. There is a concluded contract as the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission
B. There is no concluded contract as the acceptance has not come to the knowledge of the proposer
C. There is no concluded contract as the acceptance has not been communicated to the proposer
D. All the above.

3. Which one of the following agreements is induced by undue influence?

A. A applies to banker for loan at a time when there is stringency in the money market. The banker declines to make the loan except at an unusually high rate of interest. A accepts the loan on these terms
B. A, enfeebled by disease or age, is induced by B’s influence over him as his medical attendant, to agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his professional services
C. A, at the age of sixty-five years, executes a deed of gift in favour of his only grandson gifting him all his properties to the exclusion of his wife, sons and daughters
D. B, a rich man, donates all his properties to a charitable trust leaving nothing for himself and his family members

4. X hands over her expensive saree for cleaning to a dry cleaner who loses the same. X claims the total value of the saree. The dry cleaner refers to a clause printed in the contract receipt which states that the dry cleaner can be held liable for Rs.50 or 10% of the original value of the cloth only, whichever is less. Which one of the following propositions holds good to explain the correct position of law on the point?

A. The court generally does not entertain such frivolous cases.
B. The court will rely upon the clause in contract receipt and award only 10% of the cost of the saree (or Rs. 50 if it is less)
C. The court will award reasonable damages, ignoring the clause as unreasonable
D. None of the above

5. Which one of the following is prescribed by the maxim ex nudo pacto non oritur actio?

A. Doctrine of privity of contract
B. Doctrine of consideration
C. Doctrine of implied term
D. None of the above

6. Under which of the following conditions, the right to claim damages in tort would arise?

1. Infringement of a legal right
2. Legal damage
3. Any damage
4. Existence of a legal right

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4

7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the said Lists:
List I (case) List II (tort)
I. Donoghue vs Stevenson 1. Defamation
II. Cassidy vs Daily Mirror Newspaper 2. Joint tort feasors
III. Merryweather vs Nixon 3. Negligence
IV. Bird vs Jones 4.False imprisonment

Code: 1. Defamation
2. Joint tort feasors
3. Negligence
4.False imprisonment
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 1 2 4

8. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. in tort, the duties are imposed by law whereas in contract, duties are undertaken by the parties themselves.

2. in tort, the duty is towards the world at large but in contract, the duty is towards specific individual or individuals.

3. in tort, damages are liquidated but in contract, the damages are unliquidated.

4. in tort, a person may be liable for the wrongs committed by others also but in contract, the liability governs the parties to the contract only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4

9. for an action of nuisance, the following have been put up as defences:
1. The place is suitable for the purpose.
2. It is for the benefit of the locality.
3. It is done under statutory authority.
Which of the defences given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only

10. Which one of the following statements illustrates the principle of contributory negligence?

A. The plaintiff by his own want of care contributes to the damage caused by the negligence or wrongful conduct of the defendant
B. to be guilty of contributory negligence, the plaintiff should have acted like a prudent man
C. A person who comes to court must come with clean hands
D. The plaintiff’s negligence means breach of duty towards defendant

11. Which one of the following is not an essential element in a suit for damages for malicious prosecution?

A. The plaintiff was prosecuted by the defendant
B. The proceedings terminated in favour of the defendant
C. The defendant acted maliciously and not with a mere intention of carrying the law into effect
D. The plaintiff suffered damage as a result of the prosecution

12. Under section 100 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the right of private defence of body extending to causing death is not available against an assault

A. Causing apprehension of grievous hurt
B. With an intention of gratifying unnatural lust
C. With an intension of kidnapping or abducting
D. With an intention of robbery

13. ‘A’, a revenue officer, having dominion over public money by virtue of his office and is either directed by law, or bound by a contract, express or implied, with the government, to pay into a certain treasury all the public money which he holds. ‘A’ dishonestly appropriates the money. Which one of the following offences has ‘A’ committed under Indian Penal Code?

A. Theft
B. Criminal breach of trust
C. Misappropriation of property
D. Robbery

14. Which of the following are theories of punishment?
1. Pure theory
2. Deterrent theory
3. Declaratory theory
4. Expiatory theory
5. Retributive theory
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

A. 2 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 2, 4 and 5

15. Locus poenitentiae test is applied to trace which one of the following?

A. Criminal misappropriation
B. Attempt
C. Sedition
D. Conspiracy

16. “When a state wants to delay the de jure recognition of any state, it may, in the first stage grant de facto recognition”. Who said this?

A. Prof. L. Oppenheim
B. Prof. G. Schwarzenberger
C. Prof. Kelson
D. J. G. Starke

17. The Charter of the United Nations

A. enumerates human rights
B. imposes obligation of States to promote human rights
C. contains mechanisms to implement human rights
D. imposes obligation on States to protect human rights enumerated therein

18. Which one of the following has no locus standi to seek advisory opinion of the International Court of Justice on the issue of use of nuclear weapons by a state?

A. The General Assembly of the United Nations
B. The United Nations Security Council
C. State which is a member of the United Nations
D. The Human Rights Council after obtaining authorization of the General Assembly

19. Pacta tertiis nec nocent nec prosunt means

A. treaties do not impose obligations but confer rights on third state ( not parties to the treaty)
B. treaties impose obligations and confer rights on third states
C. treaties impose obligations but do not confer rights on third states
D. treaties neither impose obligations nor confer rights on third states

20. Judicial decisions constitute

A. primary source of International law
B. subsidiary means for the determination of rules of law
C. Equitable principles
D. Merely moral principles