#1
July 18th, 2014, 08:07 AM
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Previous year question papers of Section Officer of Staff Selection Commission
Will you please share with me the previous year question papers of Section Officer of Staff Selection Commission as it is very urgent for me?
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#2
July 18th, 2014, 10:24 AM
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Re: Previous year question papers of Section Officer of Staff Selection Commission
As you want to get the previous year question papers of Section Officer of Staff Selection Commission so here it is for you: Some content of the file has been given here: 1. A moment delay/would have proved costly/ in the situation./No error. 2. Ram disappointed his mother/ as he did not/ write to her very often./No error. 3. After you will return/ from Chennai/ I will come and see you./ No error. 4. Scenes from the film / had to be censured/ before it was released./ No error. 5. When my sister was ill/ I went to the hospital/ on alternative days./ No error. 6 The beautiful/ surrounding of the place/ enchanted me./ No error. 7. No Porter being available/ he carried/ all his luggages himself./ No error. 8 He will not be able/ to cope up with/ the pressure of work./ No error. 9. Lasers are/ indispensable tools/ for the delicate eyes surgery./ No error. 10. I take great pleasure/ to welcome you/ to this institution./ No error. Directions: In Question Nos. 11 to 15, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given. 11. Indignation (A) hatred (B) anger (C) disapproval (D) contempt 12. Acronym (A) A word with two or more meanings (B) A word of new coinage (C) A word formed by the initial letters of words (D) A word of picturesque effect 13. Meticulous (A) interfere (B) courage (C) agreement (D) careful 14. Rescind (A) change (B) revoke (C) repeat (D) reconsider 15. Antipathy (A) dishonesty (B) disturbance (C) demonstration (D) dislike Directions: In Question Nos. 16 to 20, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. 16. APPARENT (A) Illegible (B) Hidden (C) Mysterious (D) Remote 17. ALIEN (A) Native (B) Domiciled (C) Natural (D) Resident 18. FUTILE (A) upright (B) costly (C) eminent (D) worthy 19. AUDACIOUS (A) meek (B) cowardly (C) mild (D) gentle 20. ARROGANT (A) simple (B) timid (C) civilized (D) modest Directions: In Question Nos. 21 to 30, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word. 21. The food that an average Indian eats has been found to be deficient _____ vitamins and proteins. (A) of (B) from (C) with (D) in 22. The patient is _____ of stomachache. (A) suffering (B) experiencing (C) complaining (D) afflicting 23. A good teacher should _____ responses from the students. (A) elicit (B) provoke (C) command (D) infer 24. Had he taken his degree five years ago he _____ got a promotion by now. (A) might (B) would have (C) will be (D) was 25. There will be a rush for seats when the train (A) will arrive (B) arrived (C) is arriving (D) arrives 26. He drove the car very fast _____ (A) Did he? (B) Does he? (C) Didn’t he? (D) Was he? 27. He _____ wants to succeed in life must be prepared to work hard. (A) whoever (B) whom (C) who (D) whose 28. It is time you _____ home. (A) go (B) went (C) come (D) reach 29. _____ a walk in the morning will improve your health. (A) Going to (B) Go to (C) Go for (D) Going for 30. Government must _____ the rise in prices. (A) cheque (B) check (C) cease (D) seize Directions: In Question Nos. 31 to 40, four alternatives are given for the underlined or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined or given idiom/phrase. 31. The bus had a close shave as its driver swerved to the right a split second before the on-coming truck could run into it. (A) serious accident (B) close collision (C) narrow escape (D) deep dent 32. Fits and starts (A) slowly (B) not regularly (C) continuously (D) quickly 33. When the Inspector entered the class some of the students shook in their shoes. (A) stamped the ground with their shoes (B) showed signs of anger (C) trembled with fear (D) stood up to salute 34. In high spirits (A) full of hope and enthusiasm (B) under tremendous stress (C) under the influence of liquor (D) mentally deranged 35. He amassed his wealth through sharp practices. (A) dishonest means (B) illegal means (C) intelligent decisions (D) quick decisions 36. He is not in the good books of his boss. (A) a lover of good books (B) in favour with (C) not of the same opinion as (D) as good as 37. The officer is fed up with the complaints made against the clerk. (A) annoyed (B) disgusted (C) pleased (D) satisfied 38. A white elephant, (A) a rare species of elephants (B) an expensive gift (C) a costly but useless possession (D) a worthless thing 39. Ins and outs (A) entry and exit points (B) full details (C) tactical moves (D) complexity of character 40. All his ventures went to the winds. (A) dissipated (B) spread all over (C) got speed of the winds (D) became well-known Directions: In Question Nos. 41 to 50, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. 41. Government by a ruler who has unlimited power. (A) Despotism (B) Autocracy (C) Monarchy (D) Anarchy 42. An occasion of great importance (A) exemplary (B) momentous (C) herculean (D) grandiose 43. A person who is always hopeful and look: upon the brighter side of things (A) florist (B) artist (C) theist (D) optimist 44. Place of burial (A) cave (B) church (C) synagogue (D) cemetry 45. To have a very high opinion of oneself (A) exaggeration (B) adulation (C) abundance (D) conceited 46. One who believes in giving equal opportunity to women in all fields (A) Fanatic (B) Misogynist (C) Philanderer (D) Feminist 47. Inability to sleep (A) hysteria (B) insomnia (C) aphasia (D) amnesia 48. One who is given to pleasures of the flesh. (A) terrestrian (B) epicurean (C) celestial (D) pedestrian 49. A tank where fish or water plants are kept (A) Aquarium (B) Sanatorium (C) Nursery (D) Aviary 50. A person who never takes alcoholic drinks (A) teetotaller (B) alcoholic (C) addict (D) bagpiper Directions: In Question Nos. 51 to 55, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. 51. (A) poignant (B) relevent (C) prevalent (D) malignant 52. (A) seize (B) achieve (C) wierd (D) leisure 53. (A) repent (B) serpent (C) flagrent (D) reverent 54. (A) dining (B) shining (C) determining (D) begining 55. (A) vendetta ‘ (B) verisimilitude (C) vicarious (D) vociferrate Directions: In Question Nos. 56 to 65, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D. 56. He was weary of failure, Didn’t he? (A) Isn’t he? (B) Wasn’t he? (C) Doesn’t he? (D) No improvement 57. What you have been doing since the work shop last month? (A) have you done (B) you have done (C) have you been doing (D) No improvement 58. Keats says the idea very well in his poems. (A) speaks (B) describes (C) expresses (D) No improvement 59. The enemy soldiers went back hastily. (A) returned (B) retreated (C) retrenched (D) No improvement 60. No sooner had the teacher entered the room and the boys rushed to their seats. (A) when (B) than (C) but (D) No improvement 61. We have already disposed our old house. (A) disposed off (B) disposed out (C) disposed of (D) No improvement 62. We can buy anything in this shop, Can we? (A) Isn’t it? (B) Can’t we? (C) Don’t we? (D) No improvement 63. If I had followed your advice, I would not regret today. (A) will not regret (B) had not regretted (C) would not have regretted (D) No improvement 64. Somebody must be made to answer for the securities scam. (A) to (B) after (C) upon (D) No improvement 65. Corruption is the most serious problem in India. (A) the more serious (B) the seriouser (C) serious (D) No improvement Directions: In Question Nos. 66 to 70, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. 66. The cat is running after the rat. (A) The rat was being run after by the cat (B) The rat is being run after by the cat (C) The rat is run after by the cat (D) The cat is being run after by the rat 67. English is spoken all over the world. (A) All over the world English speaks (B) English speaks all over the world (C) The whole world speaks English (D) People speak English all over the world 68. The boys elected Mohan captain. (A) The boys were elected captain by Mohan (B) Mohan is elected captain by the boys (C) Mohan was elected captain by the boys (D) Mohan and the boys elected the captain 69. They threw away the Rubbish. (A) The Rubbish will be thrown away (B) The Rubbish was being thrown away (C) The Rubbish was thrown away (D) The Rubbish thrown away 70. Let him see the picture. (A) Let the picture be seen by him (B) The picture is seen by him (C) Let him the picture be seen (D) The picture is seen by him Directions: In Question Nos. 71 to 80, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four Parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations s correct. Then find the correct answer. 71. 1. There was a lamp hanging on the wall P. Then he picked a lot of jewels off the trees in the garden Q. He put the lamp inside his shirt R. He put them in his pockets S. Aladdin climbed a ladder and took down the lamp 6. Then he put more jewels inside his shirt on top of the lamp. (A) PRQS (B) RSPQ (C) SQPR (D) QSRP 72. 1. Gopal and Sheela felt very bored one evening P. Gopal wanted to stay on for the next show Q. So they decided to go to the cinema R. They reached the theatre in time for the interval S. On the way there was a traffic jam 6. But Sheela wanted to return home (A) PSQR (B) SQPR (C) QSRP (D) SQRP 73. 1. Ferdinand rose up to receive the messenger P. At the end of his account he was moved to tears Q. He fell on his knees and thanked him R. He made him sit on a level with himself S. He listened to the circumstantial account of his voyage 6. It was a great conquest the Almighty gave to a sovereign. (A) RPSQ (B) RSPQ (C) QPRS (D) PKSQ 74. 1. In order to judge the inside of others, study your own P. and though one has one prevailing passion Q. for, men, in general are very much alike R. yet their operations are very much the same S. and another has another 6. and whatever engages or disgusts, pleases or offends you in others, will engage, disgust, please or offend others in you. (A) QPSR (B) PQRS (C) RQPS (D) PRQS 75. 1. Paucity of funds P. universities cannot make Q. essentials like books R. sufficient expenditure on S. ordains that the 6. journals and equipment. (A) QPRS (B) SPRQ (C) PQRS (D) QSRP 76. 1. The symptoms of P. and certain other changes Q. what is popularly called R. serious forgetfulness, confusion S “serility” include 6. in personality behaviour. (A) QSRP (B) PQRS (C) SRQP (D) QPSR 77. 1. When they heard the bell P. out of his clothes Q. as quickly R. every boy scrambled S. and got into bed 6. as possible. (A) QRPS (B) PSQR (C) RQSP (D) RPS.Q 78. 1. Thirty years from now P. and industry will be scarce Q. almost half of the people R. that water for drinking, farming S. then living may find 6. according to a study by Dr. S. Posten. (A) SPQR (B) SRPQ (C) QSRP (D) QSPR 79. 1. A good cry can be a P. bring relief from anxiety Q. prevent a headache or R. and it might even S. healthy way to 6. other physical consequence (A) SRQP (B) SRPQ (C) SPRQ (D) SPQR 80. 1. Long, long, time ago P. who lived with his three wives Q. in a country called Kosala R. there ruled a noble king S. and four sons 6. beautiful, graceful and well versed in all shastras. (A) PQRS (B) SPQR (C) RQPS (D) QRSP Directions: In the following passage (Question Nos. 81 to 90), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Cloze Passage Scientists have developed an electronic circuit that 81 the wiring of the human brain in some ways – an achievement that 82 revolu-tionalise computer science and 83 understanding of how nature’s most powerful 84 works. The 85 built on a 86 chip the size of a finger nail, is 87 from the thinking machines of science-fiction. For one thing it cannot 88 , the way the 89 can. But researchers say it could 90 in better speech and object recognition by computers. 81. (A) imitates (B) mimics (C) limits (D) expands 82. (A) shall (B) ought (C) could (D) have 83. (A) exceed (B) improve (C) impair (D) develop 84. (A) processor (B) electronic system (C) circuit (D) brain 85. (A) computer (B) monitor (C) system (D) circuit 86. (A) silicon (B) minute (C) big (D) brown 87. (A) for (B) above (C) beyond (D) far 88. (A) equate (B) teach (C) learn (D) recognise 89. (A) computer (B) processor (C) chip (D) brain 90. (A) yield (B) give (C) respond (D) result Directions: In Question Nos. 91 to 100, you have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives. PASSAGE – I For any activity, discipline is the key word. It should begin with the self, then be extended to the family, neighbours, environment, workplace, society and the nation at large. It is from society that inspiration is drawn. Systems and institutions should provide the inspiration to society through performance which in turn will provide leaders, capable of rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation. The nationalists’ spirit then becomes infectious. 91. What is the key word for Activity according to the passage? (A) Active Discipline (B) Key Discipline (C) Self Discipline (D) Discipline 92. According to the passage Discipline should begin (A) with the self (B) with the self, family and neighbours (C) with the self, family, neighbours and environment (D) with the self, family, workplace, society 93. According to the passage, where do we draw inspiration from? (A) Society (B) Society and nation (C) Environment (D) Nothing in particular 94. According to the passage, a good leader should be capable of (A) rebuilding a nation the way he/she likes (B) rebuilding and restructuring society into a strong nation (C) building a national consensus (D) rebuilding and structuring a nation 95. What is the meaning of the word “infectious” in the passage? (A) dangerous (B) spreading to everyone (C) spreading to everyone by germs (D) give disease PASSAGE -II A 23-year-old British woman was yesterday sentenced to six months in jail for leaving her two-year-old daughter home alone eight-hours-a-day, five days a week for a year while she went to work. The young mother from the central town of Warwick initially hired a babysitter, when she landed a job in a travel agency but eventually reached the point when she could no longer afford the facility, prosecutors said. The woman then started leaving the child home by herself, providing it with food and toys and removing all potentially dangerous objects from its reach. At first the mother came home at lunch time but had to stop because her daughter threw tantrums every time she left to go back to work. The mother, who was not identified, told the court, “If I had money I would not have done it. It was a case of that or not keeping my job and living on benefit”. The judge, Mr. Harrison Hall, however said “Having had a child, the absolute priority is to look after it. There must be an alternative to leaving a child alone all day, a thing you would not do even to a dog”. |
#3
July 18th, 2014, 10:25 AM
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Re: Previous year question papers of Section Officer of Staff Selection Commission
96. The young mother had to work in the office (A) 40 hours a week (B) 8 hours a week (C) 48 hours a week (D) all the seven days a week 97. The word ‘Facility’ in sentence refers to (A) her job in the travel agency (B) living in a well furnished apartment (C) getting adequate salary (D) employing someone to look after the child 98- The mother stopped coming home for lunch because (A) her house was far away from the office (B) she was not able to control her angry baby (C) she had to work extra hours to earn more (D) she was not interested in looking after the baby 99. The sentence “If I had money, I would not have done it” means (A) I had money and so I did not leave the baby alone (B) I had money and so I left the baby alone (C) I had no money and so I left the baby alone (D) I had no money and so I did not leave the baby alone 100. Which one of the following statements about the judge Mr. Harrison Hall is correct? (A) He can tolerate cruelty to children but not to animals (B) He can tolerate cruelty to animals but not to children (C) He can tolerate cruelty both to children and animals (D) He can tolerate cruelty neither to children nor to animals PAPER I: PART-B GENERAL AWARENESS 101. Devaluation of currency leads to (A) expansion of export trade (B) contraction of import trade (C) expansion of import substitution (D) All of the above 102. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of (A) Commercial bills (B) Foreign exchange (C) Gold (D) Government bonds 103. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and . Distribution system followed by Indian Government? (A) Maintain price stability through creation of buffer stocks (B) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers (C) Control the production of food grains (D) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution 104. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade located? (A) New Delhi (B) Hyderabad (C) Mumbai (D) Ahmedabad 105. The Centre for Agricultural Marketing is located at (A) Jaipur (B) New Delhi (C) Nagpur (D) Hyderabad 106. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by (A) Total population of the country (B) Total working population (C) Area of the country (D) Volume of capital used 107. The currency of Thailand is (A) Bhat (B) Rupiah (C) Yuan (D) Yen 108. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of (A) reconstruction and development (B) stimulating private investment (C) tackling foreign exchange crisis (D) meeting deficits in government budget 109. In Indian agriculture the period from July to October-November is called (A) Rabi season (B) Kharif season (C) Pre-kharif season (D) Slack season 110. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells (A) 5% of shares (B) 10% of shares (C) 15% of shares (D) 20% of shares 111. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establish ment of a (A) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure (B) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure (C) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure (D) Unified control by the apex institutions 112. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year (A) 1942 (B) 1947 (C) 1950 (D) 1955 113. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution? (A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament (C) Constitution (D) President 114. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of (A) centre/state relations (B) Legislative problems (C) Union territories’ problems (D) Tribal areas 115. The Judges of the High Court hold office (A) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India (B) till they have attained 62 years of age (C) till they have attained 65 years of age (D) as long as they desire 116. The United Nations officially came into existence on (A) January 1, 1942 (B) October 3, 1944 (C) October 24, 1945 (D) June 26, 1945 117. The English Crown is an example of (A) Real executive (B) Quasi-real executive (C) Nominal executive (D) Nominated executive 118. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to (A) The President (B) The Supreme Court (C) The Prime Minister (D) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission 119. In ends and means relationship, Gandhiji believed (A) Means become good if they serve the end (B) Means and ends are watertight compartments (C) Means determine the end (D) End is everything, no matter what or how the means are 120. The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called (A) casting vote (B) sound vote (C) direct vote (D) indirect vote 121. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’? (A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV 122. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati? (A) Plato’s Republic (B) Dialogues of Plato (C) Aristotle’s Politics (D) Aristotle’s Nicomachicm Ethics 123. To be a regional party, the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is (A) 2% (B) 3% (C) 4% (D) 5% 124. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution? (A) Eleven (B) Nine (C) Twenty (D) Twelve 125. Indian Penal Code came into operation in (A) 1858 (B) 1860 (C) 1859 (D) 1862 126. The First Viceroy & Governor-General of British India was (A) Lord Dalhousie (B) Sir John Lawrence (C) Warren Hastings (D) Lord Canning 127. The split between the ‘Extremists’ and ‘Moderates’ came up in the open at the Surat Congress Session in the year (A) 1905 (B) 1906 (C) 1907 (D) 1910 128. Bhulabhai Desai’s most memorable achieve ment was his defence of the Indian National Army (I.N.A) personnel at the Red Fort Trial towards the end of (A) 1943 (B) 1944 (C) 1945 (D) 1946 129. St. Thomas is said to have come to India to propagate Christianity during the reign of the (A) Cheras (B) Parthians (C) Pandyas (D) Cholas 130. The First Viceroy of the Portuguese in the East was (A) Albuquerque (B) Joa de Castro (C) Francisco de Almedia (D) Nuno da Cunha 131. When was the All India Women’s Con ference founded? (A) 1924 (B) 1925 (C) 1926 (D) 1927 132. The Kuka movement started in mid- Nineteenth century in (A) Western Punjab (B) Maharashtra (C) Bengal (D) MadhyaBharat 133. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle? (A) Annie Beasant (B) Subhas Chandra Bose (C) Chittaranjan Das (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 134. Mahatma Gandhi’s remark, “A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank” is regarding the proposals of (A) Simon Commission (B) Cripps Mission (C) Cabinet Mission (D) WavelPlan 135. Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party founded in 1934? (A) Jawahailal Nehru and Mahatma Gandhi (B) Acharya Narendra Dev and Jai Prakash Narayan (C) Subhas Chandra Bose and P. C. Joshi (D) Saifuddin Kitchlew and Rajendra Prasad 136. The people of the Indus Valley Civilization usually built their houses of (A) Pucca bricks (B) Stone (C) Wood (D) All of the above 137. Which one of the following pairs of places does the National Highway number 2 join? (A) Delhi – Amritsar (B) Delhi – Mumbai (C) Delhi – Kolkata (D) Delhi – Ahmedabad 138. Watermelons grow best in (A) Alluvial soil (B) Sandy soil (C) Black soil (D) Laterite soil 139. In which state is the Maikala range situated? (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Rajasthan (C) Bihar (D) Chhatisgarh 140. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is (A) 35° N (B) 36° N (C) 37° N (D) 39° N 141. River erosion is at its greatest where the river’s (A) depth is more (B) breadth is more (C) flow is fast (D) gradient is more 142. Nallamala hills are located in the state of (A) Orissa (B) Meghalaya (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Gujarat 143. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is (A) USA (B) Canada (C) Australia (D) Brazil 144. In which of the following is the Great Barrier Reef located? (A) Coral Sea (B) Solomon Sea (C) Bismarck Sea (D) Arafura Sea 145. Where is the Headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located? (A) Mumbai (B) Delhi (C) Kolkata (D) Chennai 146. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by (A) 5th June (B) 15th June (C) 1st July (D) 15th July 147. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established? (A) Bhadravati (B) Bhilai (C) Jamshedpur (D) Burnpur 148. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? (A) Columbus – 1492 (B) Vasco de Gama – 1498 (C) Magellan – 1520 (D) Balboa – 1530 149. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is most effective in photosynthesis? (A) Blue (B) Green (C) Orange (D) Yellow 150. Human cloning is permitted in Britain for the purpose of (A) Reproduction (B) Research (C) Therapeutics (D) Genetics 151. Pick out the viral disease among the following (A) Hepatitis (B) Meningitis (C) Arthritis (D) Nephritis 152. Dolly, the World’s First cloned animal was a (A) sheep (B) cow (C) goat (D) pig 153. The large amount of sugar present in human blood is (A) sucrose (B) glucose (C) fructose (D) lactose 154. Which one of the following is a viral disease in man? (A) Mumps (B) Plague (C) Cholera (D) Syphilis 155. The major constituent uf gobar gas, is (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane (C) Butane (D) Isobutane 156. The expansion for AIDS is (A) Active Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (B) Acquired Individual Disease Syndrome (C) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (D) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome 157. Bee keeping is known as (A) Sericulture (B) Apiculture (C) Aquaculture (D) Agriculture 158. HYV refers to (A) Hybrid yielding variety (B) Human yellow virus (C) High yielding variety (D) Human yellow vaccine 159. Pick the odd one out based on crop season (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Maize (D) Cotton 160. The residue left after extracting juice from sugarbeet and sugarcane is called (A) molasses (B) bagasse (C) whey (D) biomass 161. The isotope of Uranium used in atomic reactors is (A) U235 (B) U236 (C) U237 (D) U232 162. In the process of magnetisation of a bar (A) The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised (B) Only the surface of the bar gets magnetised (C) Only the ends of the bar get magnetised (D) Only some parts of the outer layers of the bar get magnetised 163. A falling drop of rainwater acquires the spherical shape due to (A) Viscosity (B) Surface Tension (C) Atmospheric pressure (D) Gravitational force 164. Which is the coldest among the following? (A) Mars (B) Earth (C) Pluto (D) Mercury 165. The weakest of all fundamental forces is (A) Gravitational force (B) Electrostatic force (C) Magnetic force (D) Nuclear force 166. Among the defects of eye, the shortsightedness is called (A) coma (B) hypermetropia (C) myopia (D) astigmatism 167. Which one of the following is not a radio active element? (A) Uranium (B) Thorium (C) Radium (D) Cadmium 168. Velocity of sound in air does not change with the change of (A) Temperature of air (B) Pressure of air (C) Moisture content in air (D) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound 169. The greenhouse effect is caused by the higher level of which gas in the atmosphere? (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Nitrous oxide (D) Sulphur dioxide 170. Candle is a mixture of (A) Paraffin wax and stearic acid (B) Bees wax and stearic acid (C) Higher fatty acids and stearic acid (D) Bees wax and paraffin wax 171. Ethanol containing 5% water is known as (A) rectified spirit (B) denatured spirit (C) methylated alcohol (D) power alcohol 172. Brass is an alloy of copper and (A) tin (B) zinc (C) iron (D) nickel 173. Who discovered X-rays? (A) Goldstein (B) Thomson (C) Rontgen (D) Wien 174. The density of a gas is maximum at (A) Low temperature, low pressure (B) Low temperature, high pressure (C) High temperature, low pressure (D) High temperature, high pressure 175. The important ore of aluminium is (A) bauxite (B) cryolite (C) fluorspar (D) haematite 176. Aqua regia is a 1: 3 mixture, by volume, of (A) Conc. nitric acid and Conc. hydrochloric acid (B) Conc. hydrochloric acid and Conc. nitric acid (C) Conc. nitric acid and Conc. sulphuric acid (D) Conc. sulphuric acid and Conc. nitric acid 177. The maximum number of goals scored by India in the history of international hockey tournaments were in 1932 Olympics in Los Angeles when it beat USA by (A) 26-0 (B) 24-1 (C) 22-0 (D) 20-0 178. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched? (A) 1985 (B) 1987 (C) 1989 (D) 1991 179. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced by the seismologists, is (A) gravitational pull of the moon (B) low pressure trough in the ocean (C) deformation of sea floor and vertical displacement of water (D) sudden change in the monsoon wind 180. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with (A) Basket Ball (B) Football (C) Cricket (D) Hockey 181. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sex-ratio? (A) Kerala (B) Karnataka (C) Meghalaya (D) Tamilnadu 182. Major fishing grounds are found in (A) Northern Hemisphere (B) Southern Hemisphere (C) Eastern Hemisphere (D) Western Hemisphere 183. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India? (A) 1952 (B) 1940 (C) 1942 (D) 1999 184. Which one of the following is not a HYV of wheat? (A) Sonalika (B) Ratna (C) Kalyan Sona (D) Girija 185. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere? (A) 2 to 3 per cent (B) 3 to 4 per cent (C) 4 to 5 per cent (D) 5 to 6 per cent 186. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University? (A) Amartya Sen (B) Mahendra Chaudhury (C) Nirod C. Chaudhury (D) Ketaki Mushari Dyson 187. Who gave the concept of ‘Total Revolution’? (A) Jayaprakash Narayan (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Karl Marx (D) Lenin 188. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in (A) 1962 (B) 1971 (C) 1977 (D) 1980 189. Who declared as his ultimate aim the wiping of every tear from every eye? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Gandhiji (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Sardar Patel 190. Japan’s Parliament is known as (A) Diet (B) Dail (C) Yuan (D) Shora 191. The convention that “once a speaker always. a speaker” is followed in (A) UK (B) USA (C) France (D) India 192. The Headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at (A) New York (B) Paris (C) Geneva (D) Rome 193. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, the former Indian President, received the prestigious Bharat Ratna award in the year (A) 1992 (B) 1995 (C) 1997 (D) 1998 194. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production: “The Ghost and The Darkness” is (A) OmPuri (B) Naseeruddin Shah (C) Amitabh Bachchan , (D) Anil Kapoor 195. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in (A) 1947 (B) 1948 (C) 1949 (D) 1951 196. PSLV stands for (A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (B) Polish Satellite Launch Vehicle (C) Perfect Satellite Launching Verifier (D) Preparatory Satellite Launching Vehicle 197. Indira Gandhi Cup is associated with (A) Basketball (B) Football (C) Boxing (D) Cricket 198. Who is the author of the novel ‘DEVDAS’? (A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay (D) Munshi Premchand 199. Nano technology deals with objects with dimensions in the range of (A) 10-3 m (B) 10-6 m (C) 10-9 m (D) 10-12 m 200. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because (A) It is not rotating about its own axis (B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite (C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same (D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution 1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for (a) equality before law. (b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. (c) abolition of titles. (d) abolition of untouchability. 2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for (a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir. (b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland. (c) special provisions in respect of Manipur. (d) provisions in respect of financial emergency. 3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council? (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four 4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an (a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy (c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity. 5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. (b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel. (c) Mill, Bentham and Plato. (d) Locke, Mill and Hegel. 6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the (a) President (b) Prime Minister. (c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament. (d) Members of the Lok Sabha. 7. Who is called the 'Father of History'? (a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus (c) Justin (d) Pliny 8. The Vedas are known as (a) Smriti. (b) Sruti. (c) Jnana. (d) Siksha. 9. The members of Estimate Committee are (a) elected from the Lok Sabha only. (b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only. (c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor? (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. (b) Chief Minister. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (d) President. 11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called (a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency. (c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency. 12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development? (a) GDP (b) Disposable income (c) NNP (d) Per capita income 13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in (a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector. (c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors. 14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is (a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade. (c) International trade. (d) Free trade. 15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the (a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) (b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) (c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) (d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79) 16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which (a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public. (b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks. (c) Government loans are floated. (d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers. 17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called (a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods. (c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods. 18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by (a) E. H. Chamberlin (b) P. A. Samuelson (c) J. Robinson (d) A. Marshall 19. Smoke is formed due to (a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid. (c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas. 20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography? (a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide (c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride. 21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains (a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane. (c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene. 22. Preparation of 'Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process (a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation (c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis 23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow? (a) Blue (b) Green (c) Orange (d) Red 24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its (a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition. (c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost. 25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes? (a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata (c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini 26. What is the full form of 'AM' regarding radio broadcasting? (a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement (c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation. 27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye? (a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt (c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar 28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease? (a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria 29. What is the principal one of aluminium? (a) Dolomite (b) Copper (c) Lignite (d) Bauxite 30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government? (a) The US (b) Norway (c) India (d) The UK 31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council (c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry 32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for (a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing" (c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing" 33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007? (a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha (c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi 34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with (a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate. (c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate. 35. India's biggest enterprise today is (a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System. (c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System. 36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is (a) Indian Statistical Institute (b) Reserve Bank of India. (c) Central Statistical Organisation. (d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research. 37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India? (a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission (c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India 38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called. (a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit (c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit 39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its (a) production (b) production and sale. (c) Production and transportation. (d) Production, transportation and sale. 40. In the US, the President is elected by (a) The Senate (b) Universal Adult Franchise. (c) The House of Representatives. (d) The Congress. 41. Fascism believes in (a) Peaceful change (b) Force (c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual 42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur? (a) Supervision (b) Management (c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing 43. Knowledge, technical skill, education 'etc.' in economics, are regarded as (a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital. (c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital. 44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently? (a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km (c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km 45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in (a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir. 46. M. Damodaran is the (a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India. (b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India. (c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India. (d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India. 47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously? (a) BrahMos (b) Chetak (c) Astra (d) Tejas 48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain? (a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw (c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown. 49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in (a) France. (b) China. (c) Germany. (d) South Africa. 50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy (c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon 51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is (a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida (b) Whither Secular India? (c) Ayodhya and Aftermath (d) Shining India and BJP. 52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"? (a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum (c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara 53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse (b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance (d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878 54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by (a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon. (c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon. 55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was (a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life. (c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society. 56. Name the capital of Pallavas. (a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi. (c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram. 57. The Home Rule League was started by (a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak (c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang 58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because (a) it sought to curb civil liberties. (b) it proposed to partition India. (c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation. (d) it proposed measures for nationalism. 59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during (a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones (c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse. 60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with (a) The Montagu Declaration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms. (c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act. 61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by (a) counting the number of branches. (b) measuring the height ,of the tree. (c) measuring the diameter of the trunk. (d) counting the number of rings in the trunk. 62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are (a) Viruses (b) Bacteria (c) Algae (d) Fungi 63. What is an endoscope? (a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal (b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats (c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders (d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles. 64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus (c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis 65. The President of India is elected by (a) members of both Houses of the Parliament. (b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures. (c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies. (d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies. 66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is (a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants. (c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms. 67. Diamond and Graphite are (a) allotropes (b) isomorphous (c) isomers (d) isobars 68. Kayak is kind of (a) tribal tool. (b) boat. (c) ship. (d) weapon. 69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value? (a) Carbohydrates (b) fats (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins. 70. Rotation of crops means (a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility. (b) some crops are growing again and again. (c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity. (d) None of these. 71. Suez Canal connects (a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean. (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea. (c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie. (d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario. 72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland? (a) Kandla (b) Kochi (c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam. 73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to (a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation. (c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation. 74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is (a) excessive fuel wood collection. (b) excessive soil erosion. (c) floods. (d) construction of roads. 75. Recharging of water table depends on (a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area. (c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation. ANSWER KEYS 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4.(c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20 (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) Contact Details: Staff Selection Commission Pragati Vihar, CGO Complex, New Delhi, Delhi 110003 India Map Location: |
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