Here I am giving you question paper for Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship (SET) Life Sciences subject examination.......

1. In a tissue, cells interact through a
structure is called :
(A) Hemi-desmosomes
(B) Desmosomes
(C) Desmoplakin
(D) Gap junction
2. Immunoglobulin heavy and light
chains undergo structural modifications
after antigen stimulation is
called :
(A) hypermutation
(B) somatic recombination
(C) somatic mutation
(D) allelic exclusion

3. Which of the sub-classes of
antibodies are found in blood serum
and secretions ?
(A) IgG1, IgG4
(B) IgG2, IgG3
(C) IgA1, IgA2
(D) IgG1, IgG3
4. The membrane enclosing the main
vacuole of a cell is termed :
(A) tonoplast
(B) chloroplast
(C) amyloplast
(D) elaioplast

5. Maturation promoting factor (MPF)
of oocytes is also known as mitosis
promoting factor. Which of the
following represents MPF ?
(A) Cyclin A—cdk 1
(B) Cyclin B—cdk 4
(C) Cyclin B—cdk 1
(D) Cyclin D—cdk 6
6. Which of the following intermediate
filament proteins is present in
animal cells ?
(A) Desmin
(B) Vimentin
(C) Lamin
(D) Keratin
7. Dosage compensation in Drosophila
is characterized by :
(A) alteration of transcription rates
of X chromosome in male
(B) heterochromatinization of X
chromosome in female
(C) absence of chromocenter in
males
(D) induction of puffs on polytene
chromosomes
8. In bacterial protein synthesis, the
initiating amino acid is :
(A) N-formyl methionine
(B) Methionine
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Cysteine

9. In Escherichia coli the trp operon is
regulated by :
(A) Attenuation
(B) Repression
(C) Induction
(D) Attenuation and repression
10. DNA and RNA synthesis differs
from each other with respect to the
requirement of :
(A) Template
(B) Polymerase
(C) Primer
(D) Phosphodiester bond formation
11. Which of the following fatty acid
is a precursor for prostaglandin
biosynthesis ?
(A) Arachidonic acid
(B) Valeric acid
(C) Palmitic acid
(D) Linolenic acid
12. What will be the pH of acetateacetic
acid buffer, when the ratio
of [acetate]/[acetic acid] is 10 ?
(Given pKa = 4.76)
(A) 3.76
(B) 4.76
(C) 5.76
(D) 2.76

13. During amino acid metabolism
amino groups are excreted in
mammals in the form of :
(A) Ammonia
(B) Urea
(C) Uric acid
(D) Glutamate
14. Which of the following coenzymes is
not involved in group transfer ?
(A) Lipoic acid
(B) TPP
(C) Coenzyme A
(D) NAD+
15. Xerophthalmia is caused by
deficiency of :
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin C
16. Which of the following terms is used
for the salt tolerant plants
genetically adapted to salinity ?
(A) Glycophytes
(B) Halophytes
(C) Mesophytes
(D) Hydrophytes
17. The pH of acid in stomach can be
lowered by using .................. pump.
(A) Gastric Na+/K+ ATPase
(B) Gastric H+/K+ ATPase
(C) Calcium ATPase
(D) Lactose permease
18. Cyclic GMP is a secondary
messenger for :
(A) atrial natriuretic hormone
(B) parathormone
(C) somatostatin
(D) prolactin

19. During seed development, embryo
becomes tolerant to dessication and
the seed dehydrates due to the
presence of :
(A) Indole acetic acid
(B) Kinetin
(C) Polyamines
(D) Abscisic acid
20. Which of the following is not a
feature of magetotactic bacteria ?
(A) Have magnetosomes containing
Fe3O4 or Fe3S4
(B) Are motile, gram negative
(C) Are highly aerobic
(D) Have magnetosomes arranged
linearly across long axis of the
cell
21. Which of the following statements
about fertilization is wrong ?
(A) It restores diploid chromosomal
number
(B) It results in formation of the
first polar body
(C) Polyspermy is prevented by
the zona reaction
(D) It determines the genetic sex of
the zygote
22. A human male carrying an allele for
a trait on the X chromosome is :
(A) hemizygous
(B) homozygous
(C) heterozygous
(D) monozygous

23. In X-linked recessive inheritance :
(A) most affected individuals are
female
(B) the trait does not skip
generations
(C) the daughters of affected father
should be affected
(D) the sons of affected females
should be affected
24. The common type of duplication
generates :
(A) a second copy of the gene in close
proximity of the first copy
(B) a second copy of the gene in a
distant location on a same
chromosome
(C) a second copy of the gene on a
different chromosome
(D) any of the above situations with
equal probability
25. Satellite DNAs are not typically
found within which of the following
parts of a chromosome ?
(A) Heterochromatin
(B) Euchromatin
(C) Telomeres
(D) Centromeres
26. In a paternity dispute a woman
with blood group AB claimed that
one of four men, each with different
blood types, was the father of her
child. If the blood group of child is
A then the blood group of the father
can be :
(A) A
(B) A or O
(C) B
(D) A, B, O, AB

27. A hypothetical organism has six
chromosomes (2n = 6). How many
different combinations of maternal
and paternal chromosomes can
appear in the gametes ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 36
(D) 6
28. Silent mutation :
(A) creates a premature stop codon
(B) substitutes one amino acid for
a different amino acid with
similar properties so it does not
affect protein function
(C) changes only one DNA base in
a codon without changing the
amino acid sequence
(D) occurs outside protein coding
region in the 5′ and 3′ untranslated
region and thus does not
affect protein function
29. Which one of the following is a
deuterostome phylum ?
(A) Porifera
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Mollusca
(D) Hemichordata
30. The “Serial Endosymbiosis” theory
was proposed by :
(A) Alfred Wegener
(B) Thomas Cavalier-Smith
(C) Lynn Margulis
(D) Robert Whittaker

31. The “thermal proteinoid” theory
explaining the origin of life was
proposed by :
(A) Woese, Crick and Orgel
(B) Sidney Fox
(C) Stanley Miller and Harold
Urey
(D) David Deame and Joan Oro
32. A species inhabiting different
geographical areas is called :
(A) sibling species
(B) ecotypes
(C) sympatric
(D) allopatric
33. In a genetically polymorphic
population, balancing selection is
concerned with successful reproduction
of .......................... individuals.
(A) homozygous recessive
(B) heterozygous
(C) homozygous dominant
(D) both homozygous recessive and
dominant
34. During evolution, genetic drift
occurs in a :
(A) Mendelian population
(B) Large population
(C) Large population in an island
(D) Small population

35. The population genetic models that
show how genetic variation is
retained in Mendelian inheritance
was proposed by :
(A) Hardy and Weinberg
(B) Darwin
(C) Kimura
(D) Wallace
36. Mangroves are ecologically
important because :
(A) They are evergreen
(B) They provide nurseries for
many marine organisms
(C) They harbour mosquitoes and
spread diseases
(D) They are medicinally useful
37. Ozone pollution is indicated by
leaves of plants in the form of :
(A) Intercostal bronzing
(B) Minute chlorotic dots
(C) Tip and margins browning
(D) Watery film on epidermis
38. The growth curve of a species
flattening into a plateau of
population indicates :
(A) Decrease of growth rate
(B) Equality of growth and death
rates
(C) Increase in death rate
(D) Progress of the species towards
extinction

39. Presence of Escherichia coli in water
indicates :
(A) Faecal pollution
(B) Chemicals in water
(C) Pesticides in water
(D) Oil pollution
40. Aquatic ecosystems are of two types :
lentic and lotic. Which one of the
following is not lotic ?
(A) Stream
(B) River
(C) Flowing water
(D) Lake
41. A phosphate cycle is known as cycle
of a limiting nutrient in nature.
Phosphate is made available to
biotic components of an ecosystem
by :
(A) water
(B) rocks and soil
(C) biological fixation
(D) a symbiotic process
42. Acid rain is caused due to which of
the following air pollutants :
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Sulfur dioxide
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur
dioxide

43. The microorganism involved in
making of blue cheese is :
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(B) Blue Green cyanobacteria
(C) Penicillium roquetortii
(D) Aspergillus flavus
44. Which of the following represents a
direct use of biodiversity ?
(A) Nutrient cycling
(B) Pest-control
(C) Photosynthesis
(D) Biological control
45. A lineage which occupies an
adaptive zone which is different in
some ways from any other lineage
in its range and which evolves
separately from all lineages outside
its range denotes :
(A) Biological species
(B) Recognition species
(C) Ecological species
(D) Phylogenetic species
46. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
of International Importance was
adopted in :
(A) 1987
(B) 1981
(C) 1971
(D) 1970

47. Gulf of Mannar and Nilgiris in India
are :
(A) Biosphere Reserves
(B) Sanctuaries
(C) World Heritage Sites
(D) National Zoological Parks
48. Characteristics that have arisen as
a result of common evolutionary
descent are said to be :
(A) analogous
(B) heterologous
(C) homogeneous
(D) homologous
49. A group of organisms at any
particular level in a system of
classification is called a :
(A) Species
(B) Genus
(C) Taxon
(D) Class
50. Certain responses in bacteria are
strictly dependent upon microbial
population size. This is described
as :
(A) Quorum sensing behaviour
(B) Social behaviour
(C) Growth-controlling behaviour
(D) Chemotactic behaviour