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June 19th, 2014, 01:53 PM
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Staff Selection Commission Civil Junior Engineer past year question papers
Can you please give me the Staff Selection Commission Civil Junior Engineer past year question papers? As you want to get the Staff Selection Commission Civil Junior Engineer past year question papers so here is the information of the same for you: 1. A well-seasoned timber has a moisture b. 40 minutes content of about c. 15 minutes a. 15% to 20% d. 5 minutes b. 10% to 12% 8. Match List I (Cement Mortar for Different c. 5% to 85 Work) with List II(Proportion of Cement d. 2% to 3% and sand in Mortar ) and select the correct 2. Dry rot in timber is caused by answer : a. Lack of ventilation List I b. Lack of light A. Cement mortar for normal brick work c. Immersion in water B. Cement mortar for plastering works d. Alternate wet and dry atmosphere C. Cement mortar for grouting the 3. Wood is impregnated with creosote oil in cavernous rocks order to D. Cement mortar for guniting a. Change its colour List II b. Protect against fungi 1. 1 : 4 c. Protect the annular layers 2. 1 : 3 d. Fill up the pores 3. 1 : 6 4. Consider the following statements : 4. 1 : 1.5 Bricks are soaked in water before use in A B C D masonry work a. 3 4 2 1 1. to remove dust b. 1 2 3 4 2. to remove air voids c. 3 1 4 2 3. so that they do not absorb water from d. 1 4 2 3 cement mortar 9. Match List I(Admixture) with list II Which of these statements is/are correct ? (Action in Concrete) and select the correct a. 1, 2 and 3 answer : b. 1 only List I c. 2 and 3 A. Calcium lignosulphonate d. 3 only B. Aluminum powders 5. The proper size of mould for testing C. Tartaric acid compressive strength of cement is D. Aluminum sulphate a. 7.05 cm tube List II b. 10.05 cm cube 1. Anti bleeder c. 15 cm cube 2. Retarder d. 12.05 cm cube 3. Air entrainer 6. The specific gravity of commonly 4. Water reducer available ordinary portland cement is A B C D a. 4.92 a. 3 2 1 4 b. 3.15 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 2.05 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 1.83 d. 4 2 3 1 7. A quick-setting cement has an initial 10. A mortar in which both cement and lime setting time of about are used in definite proportions as binding a. 50 minutes materials is reffered to as a. Light weight mortar b. Fire resistant mortar c. Gauged mortar d. Water resistant mortar 11. In order to improve the workability of harsh cement mortar which of the following items is/are added ? 1. water 2. Plaster of Paris 3. Lime Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 12. Bleeding of concrete leads of which of the following ? 1. Drying up of concrete surface 2. Formation of pores inside. 3. Segregation of aggregate 4. Decrease in strength Select the correct answer using the coded given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 4 13. Match List I (material Characteristics) with List II (Property of Concrete) and select the correct answer : List I A. Water cement ratio B. Water content C. Minimum cement content D. Segregation List II 1. Durability 2. Compressive strength 3. Stability of mix 4. Workability A B C D a. 4 1 3 2 b. 2 4 3 1 c. 4 1 2 3 d. 2 4 1 3 14. Stress-strain curve of concrete is a. A perfect straight line up to failure b. Straight lien up to 0.002% string value and then parabolic up to failure c. Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure d. Hyperbolic up to 0.002% staring value and then a straight line up to failure 15. Consider the following statements : Ultrasonic pulse velocity test is 1. used to measure the straight of wet concrete. 2. used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements. 3. a destructive test 4. a non-destructive test. Which of these statemtns are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 3 16. The material in which large deformation is possible before the absolute failure or rupture is termed as a. Brittle b. Elastic c. Ductile d. Plastic 17. A rigid bar AC is supported by three rods of same material and of equal diameter. The bar AC is initially horizontal. A force P is applied such that the bar AC continues to remain horizontal. Forces in each of the shorter bars and in the longer bar are, respectively. a. 0.4 P, 0.2 P b. 0.3 P, 0.4 P c. 0.2 P, 0.6 P d. 0.5 P , zero 18. A member having length L, cross-sectional areas A and modulus of elasticity E is subjected to an axial load W. The strain energy stored in this member is a. WL2 / AE b. WL2 / 2AE c. W2L2 / 2AE d. W2L / AE 19. Elastic limit is the point a. Up to which stress is proportional to strain b. At which elongation takes place without application of additional load c. Up to which if the load is remoed, original volume and shaped are regained d. At which the toughness is maximum 20. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I(Material) A. Isotropic B. Homogeneous C. Viscoelastic D. Brittle List II 1. Time dependent stress-strain relation 2. No plastic zone 3. Identical properties in all directions 4. Similar properties throughout the volume A B C D a. 3 1 2 4 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 3 1 2 21. As per the elastic theory of design, the factor of safety is the ratio of a. Working stress to stress at the limit of proportionality b. Yield stress to working stress c. Ultimate stress to working stress d. Ultimate load to load at yield 22. The shear stress distribution for a rectangular section under the action of shear force S is shown below. The rectangular section is bd. Select the correct shear stress distribution form the following: a. b. c. d. 23. Two co-axial springs are subjected to a force of 1 kN. Spring constant of larger diameter spring is 80 N/mm and that of smaller diameter spring is 120 N/mm. The deformation in the spring combination will be equal to a. 5 mm b. 15 mm c. 125/6 mm d. 135/7 mm 24. Match List I (Method of Analysis) with List II(Unknown Being Evaluated) and select the correct answer List I A. Flexibility method B. Stiffness Method C. Kanis method D. Moment distribution method List II 1. Degrees of freedom 2. Redundant forces 3. Rotations by incremental iteration and unknown sways of plane frames 4. Displacement rotations and sways of plane frames A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 2 4 1 3 d. 3 1 4 2 25. The principal strains at a point are + 800 10-6 cm/cm, +400 10-6 cm/cm and - 1200 10-6 cm/cm. The volumetric strain is equal to a. + 1200 10-6 cm/cm b. + 800 10-6 cm/cm c. - 1200 10-6 cm/cm d. zero 26. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to which one of the following ? a. Shear failure of rivet b. Bearing failure of rivet c. Tearing failure of plate d. Minimum load value of shearing , bearing or tearing failure 27. The radius of Mohr’s circle is zero when the state of stress is such that a. Shear stress is zero b. There is pure shear c. There is not shear stress but identical direct stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions d. There is no shear stress but equal direct stresses, opposite in nature, in two mutually perpendicular directions 28. The above figure shows the stress condition of an element. The principal stresses are a. 2 b. /2 c. d. 2/3 29. If the principal stresses at a point in a stressed body are 150 kN/m2 tensile and 50 kN/m2 compressive, then maximum shear stress at this point will be a. 100 kN/m2 b. 150 kN/m2 c. 200 kN/m2 d. 250 kN/m2 30. In the Mohr’s circle for strains, radius of Mohr’s circle givens the a. Minimum value of normal strain b. Maximum value of normal strain 32. If the shear force diagram of a simply supported beam is parabolic, then he load on the beam is a. Uniformly distributed load b. Concentrated load at mid span c. External moment acting at mid span d. Linearly varying distributed load e. 33. For determining the deflection y of a loaded beam at a distance x by Macaulay’ method, which one or more of the following is/are used ? 1. The basic difference equation for deflection El (d2y / dx2) = -M. Where El is the flexural rigidity of the beam, M is the bending moment 2. Successive integration of the differential equation given in 1. 3. Known positions of zero slope and zero deflection in the beam. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 34. The above figure shows the cross-section of a fitched beam consisting of a steel plate sandwiched between two wooden blocks. The second moment of area of the composite beam about the neutral axis XX is 3 3 c. Maximum value of shear stain bh mth d. Half of maximum value of shear strain a. + 12 12 31. A thin cylindrical tube with closed ends is 3 3 subjected to 1. Longitudinal stress 1 = 14 N/mm2 2. Hoop stress 2 = 2 N/mm2 3. Shearing stress = 8 N/mm2 Then the maximum shearing stress is a. 14 N/mm2 b. c. d. bh t(mh) + 12 12 3 h (b+t) 12 3 bh 12 b. 12 N/mm2 (where m is modular ratio of steel and c. 10 N/mm2 wood ) d. 8 N/mm2 5 of 14 35. Match list I(End conditions of Columns) with List II(Effective Length, l3) and select the correct answer : List I A. Both ends fixed B. Both ends hinged C. One end fixed, other free D. One end fixed, other hinged List II 1. le = 2 l 2. le = l / 2 3. le = l / 2 4. le = l where l is the length & le is the effective length of the column) A B C D a. 2 4 1 2 b. 3 1 2 4 c. 2 4 3 1 d. 3 4 1 2 36. A symmetrical parabolic arch of span l an dries h is hinged at both the supports. The arch carries a uniformly distributed load of /unit length along the entire span. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? a. Horizontal thrust : l2 / 8h b. Bending moment at crown : l2 / 8 c. Radial shear at springing : [(l2 / 2) -(l2 / 8h)] d. Vertical reaction at supports : l 37. A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius R carries on the arch at the hinge would be a. W / 2 b. W / 2 c. 2/3 W d. 4/3 W/ 38. From consideration of earthquake loading and lateral stability of tall building, which of the following measures are taken? 1. Minimize gravity loads 2. Add masses at floor levels. 3. ensure ductility at the location s of maximum moments 4. provide shear walls 5. Provide stilt (ground) storey Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 5 b. 2, 3 and 5 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4 39. A pin jointed truss is loaded as shown in the above figure match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I (member) A. Member AB B. Member AC C. Member BD D. Member CD List II (Force induced) 1. 30 kN 2. 50 kN 3. 0 4. 10 kN A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 3 1 2 40. Member(s) of the frame shown above which carries/carry zero force is/are a. EC only b. EC and AB c. EC and AC d. EC, AC and AB 41. What is the force in the member CE of a cantilever truss shown in the above figure? 6 of 14 a. P(tensile) b. P(compression) c. 2 P(tensile) d. zero 42. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a twisting moment T. The maximum shear stress in the shaft is proportional to a. d2 b. d c. 1/d2 d. 1/d3 43. When a cantilever shaft of brittle material is subjected to a clockwise twisting moment at the free end, the possible crack propagation will be a. 45o clockwise with respective to the axis of shaft b. 45o anticlockwise with respective to the axis of shaft c. Perpendicular to the axis d. Parallel to the axis 44. For a solid circular section of diameter d, the stress in a column will be compressive only if the eccentricity of the line of action of the compressive force is within a. d/4 b. d/8 c. d/6 d. d/16 45. The stresses in concrete in a reinforced concrete element under sustained load due to creep a. Increase with time b. Decrease with time c. Remain unchanged d. Fluctuate 46. Fro the analysis of thick cylinders, the theory applicable is a. Lame’s theory b. Rankine’s theory c. Poisson’s theory d. Courbon’s theory 47. A thin hollow cylinder of diameter d, length l and thickness t is subjected to an internal pressure p. The hoop stress in the cylinder is a. pd / 8t b. pd / 4t c. pd / 2t d. pd / t 48. A portal frame with all member s having the same El, has one end fixed and the other hinged. Due to side-sway, the ratio of fixed end moments MBA / MCD would be a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 1 : 3 d. 2 : 1 49. Which one of the following diagrams represents the influence line for force in the member DG ? a. b. c. d. 50. Match List I (Assumption/Theorem) with list II(Analysis and strength) an select the correct answer : List I A. Plane section remains plane before and after bending deformations B. Elasticity and small deformations C. Uniqueness theorem D. Large deformations List II 1. Elastic analysis and superposition 2. Strain distribution and plastic moment of resistance 3. Non-linear analysis and buckling load 4. Collapse load A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 1 2 4 3 d. 2 1 3 4 51. At the location of the plastic hinge of a deformed structure a. Curvature is infinite b. Radius of curvature is infinite c. moment is infinite d. Flexural stress is infinite 52. The order of elongation which a specimen of mild steel under goes before fracture is a. 0.1% b. 1% c. 10% d. 100% 53. An electric pole 5 m high is fixed into the foundation. It carries a wire at the top and is free to move sideways. The effective length of the pole is a. 3.25 m b. 4.0 m c. 5.0 m d. 10.0 m 54. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I(Failure Mode) A. Shear failure of plates B. Bearing failure of plates C. Tearing failure of plate D. Splitting failure of plate List II(Reason) 1. Insufficient edge distance 2. Strength of plate is less than that of the rivets A B C D a. 1 1 2 1 b. 2 1 2 1 c. 1 2 1 2 d. 1 1 1 2 55. Design of a sample element is steel used one of more of the following : 1. Net area of cross-section 2. Full area of cross-section. 3. Buckling criterion. 4. Crushing (or yielding) criterion. Which of the above criteria are valid for the design of a column ? a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4 56. The working stress for structural steel in tension is of the order of a. 15 N/mm2 b. 75 N/mm2 c. 150 N/mm2 d. 750 N/mm2 57. The centre to centre maximum distance between bolts in tension member of thickness 10 mm is a. 200 mm b. 160 mm c. 120 mm d. 100 mm 58. The type of stress induced in the foundation bolts fixing a column to its footing is a. Pure compression b. Bearing c. Pure tension d. Bending 59. Which of the following does not describe a weld type ? a. Butt b. Plug c. Zig-Zag d. Lap 60. A plate used for connecting two or more structural members intersecting each other is termed as a. Template b. Base plate c. Gusset plate d. Shoe plate 61. In the context of the ultimate load theory for steel, the stress-strain curve for steel is idealized as a. A single straight line b. Bi-linear c. A quadratic parabola d. A circular arc 62. Consider the following statements about shape factor : 1. It indicates the increase of strength of a section due to plastic action over elastic strength. 2. It is a ratio of plastic moment of resistance to yield point moment of resistance. 3. Beam sections which have bulk of area near neutral axis will have a low shape factor. Which of these statements are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3 63. Which of the following conditions are to be satisfied by an ideal plastic material ? 1. It should follow Hooke’s law up to the limit of proportionality. 2. Strains up to the strain hardening in tension and compression are to be the same. 3. The material property should be different in tension and compression. 4. The values of yield stress in tension an compression should be different. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4 64. For a fixed beam shown above, it has been decided to weld coverplates at ends so that moment capacity doubles at the ends. If maximum advantage has to be derived, the length x of the plate should be a. l / 2 b. l / 3 c. l / 4 d. l / 6 65. A steel column in a multi-storeyed building carries an axial load of 125 N. It is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels connected by lacing. The lacing carries a load of a. 125 N b. 12.5 N c. 3.125 N d. zero 66. A structure has two degrees of indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 67. For a compresion member having the same effective length about any cross-sectional axial, the most preferred section from the point of view of strength is a. A box b. An I-section c. A circular tube d. A single angle 68. A trapezoidal combined footing for two axially loaded columns is provided when 1. Width of the footing near the heavier column is restricted. 2. Length of the footing is restricted. 3. Projections of the footing beyond the heavier columns are restricted. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3 69. In case of two-way slab, the deflection of the slab is a. Primarily a function of the long span b. Primarily a function of the short span c. Independent of the span, long or short d. Mostly long span but sometimes short span 70. A rectangular reinforced concrete footing is to be designed to support a column which transfers axial load and uniaxial moment to the footing as shown in the above figure. The footing is to be designed to have uniform upward soil pressure. The dimensions L1 and L2 (L = L1 + L2) of the footing would be a. L1 = L2 b. L1 > L2 c. L1 < L2 d. L1 = ½ L2 71. A reinforced concrete beam of 10 m effective span and 1 m effective depth is supported on 500 mm 500 m columns. If the total uniformly distributed load on the beam is 10 MN/m, the design shear force for the beam is a. 50 MN b. 47.5 MN c. 37.5 MN d. 43 MN 72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Loss of pre-stress B. End block C. Transmission length D. Partially pre-stressed structures List II 1. Class 3 2. Predetermined members 3. Bursting tension 4. Elastic shortening A B C D a. 3 4 1 2 b. 4 3 1 2 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 4 3 2 1 73. In pre-tensioning process of pre-stressing, the tendons are a. Bonded to the concrete b. Partially bonded to the concrete c. Not bonded to the concrete d. Generally bonded but sometimes remain unbounded to the concrete 74. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post- tensioned is such a way that no tensile stress develops at the time of post- tensioning. The distance of the tendon from the nearest face must be a. Between d/5 and d/4 b. < d/6 c. Between d/4 and d/3 d. > d/3 (where d is the depth of the beam) 75. A simply supported RC beam carries UDL and is referred to as beam A. A similar beam is pre-stressed and carries the same UDL as the beam A. This beam is referred to as beam B. The mid-span deflection of beam A will be a. More than that of beam B b. Less than that of beam B c. The same as that of beam B d. Generally less but sometimes more depending upon the magnitude of UDL 76. The critical section for two-way shear of footing is at the a. Face of the column b. Distance d from the column face c. Distance d/2 from the column face d. Distance 2d from the column face 77. In pre-stressed concrete, high grade concrete is used for a. Controlling the pre-stress loss b. Having concrete of low ductility c. Having concrete of high brittleness d. Having low creep 78. A reinforced concrete rectangular slab is built-in (fixed) on three edges and the other edge is free. The possible yield line patterns for the slab subjected to a uniformly distributed load and reinforced isotropically are shown above as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of these correctly exhibits the yield line pattern ? a. 1 or 3 b. 2 or 3 c. 1 or 2 d. 3 or 4 79. The bending moment for which the beam shown above is to be designed is a. 200 kNm b. 800 kNm c. 600 kNm d. 640 kNm 80. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments : Dead load 20 kNm Live load 30 kNm Seismic load 10 kNm The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is a. 60 kNm b. 75 kNm c. 72 kNm d. 80 kNm 81. In the Limit state design of pre-stressed concrete structure, the strain distribution is assumed to be a. Linear b. Non-linear c. Parabolic d. Parabolic and rectangular 82. Consider the following statements : Under-reinforced concrete flexural members 1. are deeper 2. are stiffer 3. can undergo larger deflection Which of these statements is/are correct ? a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 only d. 1 and 3 83. Long term elastic modulus in terms of creep coefficient () an 28-day characteristic strength (fck) is given by 5000 f ck eccentricity e below the centroidal axis. If the magnitude of prestressing force is P and flexural rigidity of beam is El, the maximum central deflection of the beam is PeL 2 a. (downwards) 8 El PeL 2 b. (upwards) 48 El 2 PeL c. (downwards) 8 El 2 PeL d. (upwards) 8 El 85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Service ability B. Shear key C. Shrinkage D. Concrete spalling List II 1. Sliding 2. deflection 3. Cracking 4. Corrosion A B C D a. 1 3 4 2 b. 2 1 3 4 c. 1 3 2 4 d. 2 1 4 3 86. Cost of required materials for construction has been estimated by contractor and an extract thereof indicates Rs. 80,000 for month-1, Rs. 1,20,000 for month-2, Rs. 1,00,000 for month-3 and Rs. 1,40,000 for month-4. He has arranged with suppliers to pay 40% immediately on purchase, 40% one month later and balance 20% two months later. His payment towards cost of a. MPa material in month-3 will exceed that in 1 + θ month 4 by 50000 fck a. Rs. 20,000 b. c. MPa 1 + θ 5000 f ck MPa 1 + θ 5000 fck b. Rs. 16,000 c. Rs. 12,000 d. Rs. 8,000 87. The vibrators are used for a. Compacting concrete d. MPa 1 + θ 84. A simply supported post-tensioned pre- stressed concrete beam of span L is pre- stressed by a straight tendon at a uniform b. Proper mixing of concrete c. Removing excess water from concrete d. Obtaining smooth surface 88. Match List I(Material Use din Individual Batching of Concrete) with List II(tolerance When Batch Weight Exceeds 30% of Scale Capacity) and select the correct answer : List I A. Cement B. Water C. Aggregates D. Admixtures List II 1. 0.3% of scale capacity 2. 1% of scale capacity 3. 2% of scale capacity 4. 3% of scale capacity A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 1 2 4 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 4 3 1 2 89. Which one of the following statements is correct ? a. Grade resistance is positive when the unit travels down grade and negative when travelling upgrade. b. Grade resistance depends on the type of equipment or the haul surface and is in addition to rolling resistance c. Grad resistance acts against the total weight of both wheel and track type units d. Grade resistance for units moving on the road surface is greater than grade resistance for units moving on rails 90. Match List I (Type of Compactor) with List II (Soil Best Suited) and select the correct answer : List I A. Sheep’s foot compactor B. Steel tandem compactor with 2 or 3 axles C. Steel drum D. Pneumatic with large tyre List II 1. Granular or granular plastic 2. Sandy silts, sandy clays, gravelly sand and clays with few fines 3. Clay, silts clay, gravel with clay binder 4. Sandy silts, most granular material with come clay binder A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 2 1 4 3 91. Match List I (equipment) with list II(Operation) and select he correct answer: List I A. Powel shovel B. Dragline C. Backhoe D. Clamshell List II 1. Can excavate vertically 2. Can excavate underwater 3. has better control because of the rigid dipper stick 4. Can operate while standing on firm ground and the bucket is pulled towards the machine A B C D a. 3 2 4 1 b. 3 2 1 4 c. 2 3 1 4 d. 2 3 4 1 92. The number of trips of a dumper per hour is given by 60 minutes a. Actual or effective cycle time in minutes 60 minutes b. Ideal cycle time in minutes c. 60 minutes Ideal running time + Loss time in minutes 60 minutes d. Runnig time in minutes 93. In compaction of clayey-soils using sheep- foot roller, compaction is achieved by a. Static action b. Vibration action c. Kneading action d. Impact action 94. The working range of a crane is limited horizontally for maximum lift only by a. Boom length b. Length of hoist cable c. Length of jib d. Counter weight 95. Which one of the following types of crane is used for high rise buildings ? a. Traveller crane b. Tower crane c. Overhead gantry crane d. Derric crane 96. A certain concreting job can be started only when all three groups 1. measuring and loading 2. operating the machine, and 3. evacuating and transporting are in potion. These local groups can be credited each with only a chance of 0.7 being on time, and the 0.3 chance of being late, each independently of the other. What are the chances of the starting of the job getting delayed on any day due to non- arrival of any one group on time ? a. 0.021 b. 0.147 c. 0.343 d. 0.441 97. Three activities F, G and H are to be performed in the said sequence and for the whole stretch of the project need 15, 21 and 27 days respectively. If a ladder 99. A-O-A network is suggested as shown above. The number of errors/incompatibilities in this network is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 100. Which one of the following project management techniques is deterministic in nature ? a. CPM b. PERT c. GERT d. LCES Last edited by Neelurk; March 13th, 2020 at 08:53 AM. |
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June 19th, 2014, 04:05 PM
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Re: Staff Selection Commission Civil Junior Engineer past year question papers
101. The probabilistic time is t + t + t network is adopted with on-third of each a. 0 p n activity as the laddered activity, the saving 3 in total project time in days will be t +t + 4t 0 a. 15 b. b. 18 p n 6 t + 4t + t 0 p n c. 21 c. d. 24 6 t + 2t + 4t 98. Match list I (Inputs Into Networks) with 0 List II(Basis) and select the correct d. p n 4 answer: List I A. Activity Time B. PERT durations C. WBS D. interfaces List II 1. Availability of resources is not discussed 2. Senior management’s involvement is assumed 3. Total cost of each activity is where t0 = Optimistic time tp = Pessimistic time tn = Most likely time 102. A serious limitation of independencies between various activities is generally observed in a. Bar charts b. Milestone charts c. Network analysis d. Job layouts 103. In time-cost analysis, the cost slope Cs is C C considered 4. Needed supervisory inputs are a. c t c C n t n C considered A B C D a. 3 1 4 2 b. 3 1 2 4 b. c. c n t t n c t t c n C C c. 4 2 1 c n 3 C C d. 4 2 3 d. 1 n c 2 t t n c 13 of 14 where Cc = Crash cost Cn = Normal cost tc = Crash time tn = Normal time 104. Sinking fund method is useful in a. Depreciation b. Obsolescence c. Liquidation d. Scrap value 105. Assertion (A) : Timbers used for engineering construction are derived from deciduous trees. Reason (R) : Deciduous trees yield hard wood while conifers yield soft wood. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 106. Assertion (A) : Dry rot is a disease in wood caused by spores germinating in wood cells. Reason (R) : Decomposition and putrefaction of tissues of a standing tree are indication of dry rot. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 107. Assertion (A) : The greater the surface area of a given volume of cement the greater the hydration. Reason (R) : The reaction between the water and cement starts from the surface of the cement particles. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 108. Assertion (A) : A low C3A cement generates less heat and develops higher ultimate strength. Reason (R) : During setting and hardening, the amount of lime liberated appears to be about 15 to 20 per cent by weight of cement. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 109. Assertion (A) : Addition of 5% to 6% of moisture content by weight increases the volume of dry sand from 18% to 38%. Reason (R) : Bulking of sand is caused due to surface moisture on sand particles. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 110. Assertion (A) : Normal stress of one nature (compressive or tensile) acting along one of the three orthogonal axes of a member will produce strains of the same nature in its direction and strains of opposite nature along the other two directions. Reason (R) : Sum of the strains along the three orthogonal axes equals volumetric strain. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 111. Assertion (A) : A horizontal beam hinged at one end and freely supported at the other end will be in static equilibrium under inclined load applied on it. Reason (R) : The hinged end will offer resistance to the horizontal component of the applied force. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 112. Assertion (A) : In a circular masonry column it is desirable to restrict the resultant load within the middle core of one fourth the area of the column section. Reason (R) : It is desirable not to allow any tension in masonry structures. 14 of 14 a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 113. Assertion (A) : Any arch cannot practically be built to the shape of the theoretical arch. Reason (R) : The shape of the theoretical arch is affected by loads moving on it. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 114. Assertion (A) : Lateral support to a beam is provided by a concrete slab resting over the top flange of a beam. Reason (R) : Shear connectors are needed to provide continuous lateral support. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 115. Assertion (A) : Compared to riveted plate girders, in welded plate girders a thicker web must be used. Reason (R) : Omission of flange angles in creases the clear depth of the web and we thickness is controlled by buckling criterion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 116. Assertion (A) : In double-laced system of a built-up column, cross member perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the column is not used. Reason (R) : Lacing bars are forced to share the axial load on the strut. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 117. Assertion (A) : Web crippling occurs at a section where heavy vertical load is applied. Reason (R) : There is stress concentration in the vicinity of the load. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A) : All columns shall be designed for a minimum eccentricity of unsupported length of column divided by 500, plus lateral dimension divided by 30 subject to a minimum of 20 mm. Reason (R) : Assertion refers to the design of axially loaded column and it may not be possible to build a perfectly axially loaded column in practice. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 119. Assertion (A) : Under working loads, in a reinforced concrete beam the lever arm remains unchanged. Reason (R) : As the bending moment increases, the total compressive force and tensile force are assumed to increase in direct proportion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 120. Assertion (A) : Rubber tyred equipment pull better on smooth, hard surfaces while crawlers work better on firm earth. Reason (R) : Bulldozers mounted on wheels are employed on earth construction for better performance. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 1. Timber can be made reasonably fire- resistant by a. soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate b. coating with Tar paint c. pumping creosote oil into timber under high pressure d. seasoning process 2. Which one of the following statements is the correct description of the structure of fibre board ? a. Thin slices of superior quality of wood are glued and pressed on the surface of inferior wood b. Streamed mass of wood dusts, wood wool and other vegetable fibres are pressed hard to a thickness varying from 3 mm to 12 mm c. Thin and narrow wood shavings are soaked in a refractory binder material and pressed hard d. Thin and narrow wood shaving are soaked in a refractory binder material and pressed hard 3. Match List I(Constituents of bricks) with List II(corresponding influence) and select the correct answer : List I A. Alumina B. Silica C. Magnesia D. Limestone List II 1. Colour of brick 2. Plasticity recovery for moulding 3. Reacts with silica during burning and causes particles to unite together and development of strength 4. Preserve the for on brick at high temperature and prevents shrinkage A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 3 4 1 2 c. 2 4 1 3 d. 3 1 4 2 4. In some brick masonry walls, patches of whitish crystals were found on the exposed surfaces, also chipping and spalling of bricks took place from the same walls. Which among the following are the causes of these defects ? 1. Settlement of foundation 2. Over-loading of the walls 3. Sulphate attach 4. Efflorescence a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4 5. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I(Property) A. Specific heat of an aggregate B. Thermal conductivity of an aggregate C. Thermal expansion D. Durability of concrete List II(Characteristic) 1. Breaks the bond between the aggregate and the paste 2. Is a measure of its heat capacity 3. Is affected by differences n thermal expansion of two different materials 4. Is a measure of its ability to conduct heat A B C D a. 1 3 2 4 b. 2 4 1 3 c. 1 4 2 3 d. 2 3 1 4 6. Consider the following methods of preservation of timber : 1. Pressure application 2. Brush application 3. Dipping 4. Open tank application The correct sequence of these methods in the increasing order of their effectiveness is : a. 1, 3 4, 2 b. 3, 4, 2, 1 c. 2, 3, 4, 1 d. 4, 2, 1, 3 7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Name of defect) A. Cupping B. Bowing C. Chucks D. Knots List II(Definition) 1. Caused by wood limbs encased by the wood of the free trunk 2. Caused by grain irregularities in the board and can be eliminated by proper stacking 3. Small cracks appearing at the ends of boards caused by too rapid drying 4. Unequal shrinking in the radial and tangential direction A B C D a. 1 2 3 4 b. 4 3 2 1 c. 1 3 2 4 d. 4 2 3 1 8. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I (Type of cement) A. Ordinary Portland cement B. Rapid hardening cement C. Low heat cement D. Sulphate resistant cement List II(Characteristics) 1. The percentage of C3S is maximum and is of the order of 50% 2. The percentages of C2S and C3S are the same and of the order of 40% 3. Reacts with silica during burning and causes particles to unite together and development of strength 4. Preserves the for of brick at high temperature and prevents shrinkage A B C D a. 2 4 1 3 b. 3 1 4 2 c. 2 1 4 3 d. 3 4 1 2 9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I(Type of cement) A. High strength Portland cement B. Super sulphated cement C. High alumina cement D. Rapid hardening Protland cement List II(Property/Characteristic) 1. Should not be used with any admixture 2. Is extremely resistant to chemical attach 3. Gives a higher rate of heat development during hydration of cement 4. has a higher content of tricalcium silicate A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 3 1 2 4 d. 4 2 1 3 10. Consider the following stages in the manufacturing of bricks : 1. Weathering 2. Moulding 3. Tempering The correct sequence of these stages in the manufacturing of the bricks, is a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 1 c. 1, 3, 2 d. 3, 2, 1 11. Four main oxides present in ordinary Portland cement are : CaO, Al2O3, SiO2 and Fe2O3. Identify the correct ascending order of their proportions in a typical composition of OPC a. Al2O3, Fe2O3, CaO, SiO2 b. Al2O3, CaO, Fe2O3, SiO2 c. Fe2O3, Al2O3, SiO2 , CaO d. Fe2O3, SiO2 , Al2O3, CaO 12. Consider the following statements : Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages : 1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water 2. It increases heat of hydration and so sets the concrete quickly 3. It increases resistance to attach by salts and sulphates 4. It leaches calcium hydroxide Select the correct answer using the code given below : a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2, and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4 13. The length of time for which a concrete mixture will remain plastic is usually more depended on a. the setting time of cement than on the amount of mixing water and atmospheric temperature b. the atmospheric temperature than on the amount of mixing water and the setting time of cement c. the setting time of cement and the amount of mixing water than on atmospheric temperature d. the amount of mixing water used and atmospheric temperature than on the setting time of cement 14. Which one among the following is the correct free body diagram for a portal frame shown in Figure given above ? a. b. c. d. 15. Consider the following statements : Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stress on an oblique section of a body subjected to 1. direct tensile stress on one plane accompanied by a shear stress 2. direct tensile stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple shear stress 3. direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions 4. a simple shear stress Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3 16. A bar of square cross- section, having an area of cross-section ‘A’ is subjected to a compressive force ‘P’ as shown in the figure The intensity of the tangential stress on the oblique plane is given by a. P sin 2 b. P cos 2 c. P/2 sin2 d. P/2 cos 2 17. The ratio of the torsional moment s of resistance of a solid circular shaft of diameter D, and a hollow circular shaft having external diameter d and internal diameter d is given by 4 2. Centroid 3. The plane sections remain plain 4. Extreme fibre 5. The cross-section is circular A B C D a. 5 4 1 2 b. 3 1 2 4 D a. 4 c. 4 5 1 2 4 b. D D d 4 4 d 22. 4 d. 3 4 1 2 A rectangular beam of width 200 mm and D depth 300 mm is subjected to a shear force 3 3 D c. d. d 3 D 3 D 3 3 of 200 kN. The maximum shear stress produced in the beam is a. 10.0 MPa b. 7.5 MPa D d 18. Clapeyron’s theorem is applied to a. Simply supported beam b. Propped cantilever beam c. Fixed & continuous beam d. Continuous beam only 19. The valiration of the hoop stress across the thickness of a thick cylinder is a. linear b. uniform c. parabolic d. hyperbolic 20. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the material is a. 1/7 b. 2/7 c. 3/7 d. 4/7 21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Assumption in the theory of simple bending B. The point at which the bending stress is maximum for any cross-section C. The point at which the bending stress is zero for an y cross-section D. The point in the cross-section through which the neutral axis passes List II 1. Neutral axis c. 5.0 MPa d. 3.00 MPa 23. A symmetrical channel section is made of a material which is equally strong in tension and compression. It is used as a simply supported beam with its web horizontal to carry vertical loads. It will a. be strongest if the web is used as top face b. be strongest if the web is used as bottom face c. be equally strong in (a) and (b) above d. not be possible to state which of the above statements is correct 24. For which of the following conditions, the virtual work should be zero according to the Principle of virtual work ? 1. A body moving with constant acceleration 2. A body rotating with constant speed 3. A body in equilibrium 4. A body moving with constant momentum Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 3 only d. 4 only 25. c. Zero p1 and p2 are two equal tensile principal stresses. On the plane AB inclined at 45o to the plane of p1 a. the shear stress is a maximum b. the normal stress is zero c. the shear stress is zero d. the normal stress is maximum 26. In the symmetrical channel section shown in the figure, which point is likely to be the shear center ? a. A b. B c. C d. D 27. The force in member AB is a. 5kN compression b. 2 kN compression c. Zero d. 7 kN compression 28. The force in the member BD of the truss shown in the figure given above is a. 4 kN tensile b. 4 kN compressive d. 12 kN compressive 29. A free body diagram of a body shows a. A body isolated from all external effects without considering its own weight b. A body isolated form its surroundings and all external forces acting on it c. A body isolated from its surroundings and all external actions on it d. A body isolated fro its surroundings and all internal forces acting on it 30. Neglecting self weight, which of the following beams will have points of contraflexure? a. A simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load over part of the structure b. An overhanging beam with loading only over supported span and not on overhangs c. Fixed beam subjected to concentrated load d. Cantilever beam subjected to uniformly varying load with zero load at free end 31. The absolute maximum bending moment in the beam is a. 2Pa b. 5Pa c. 4Pa d. 7Pa 32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ? Boundary conditions Euler’s buckling of column load a. Both ends hinged : 2El / l2 b. Both ends fixed : 42El / l2 c. One end fixed and : El / 4l2 other end free d. One end fixed and : 2 2El/l2 the other hinged 33. For a two-hinged parabolic arch, V= is sum of the vertical forces on the left hand side of the section. H is the horizontal thrust. If is the angle of tangent at the point on arch with the horizontal, the shearing force at section form left hand side is given by a. Vx sin - H cos b. Vx cos - H sin c. Vx sin + H cos d. Vx cos + H sin a. Both b and c are in tension b. Both b and c are in compression c. b is in tension, c is in compression d. b is in compression, c is in tension 36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I A. Torque-twist relationship for a circular shaft B. Strain energy of elastic torsion C. Circumferential shear stress D. Maximum shearing stress due to combined torsion and direct stress List II 2 2 1. 1/2 4 2. Gr / l 34. In the truss shown in the figure given above, which one of the following members has no force induced in it ? a. CD b. CE c. CF d. DF 35. A joint of a roof truss has been isolated and shown in Figure (i). the force polygon for the joint is the shown in Figure (ii). Member ‘a’ is in compression, member ‘d’ is in tension. Which one of the following is correct ? 3. (GJ/2l)2 4. GJ l A B C D a. 2 3 4 1 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2 1 4 3 d. 4 3 2 1 37. A beam (El = constant) of span L is subjected to clockwise moments M at both the ends A and B. The rotation of end A works out to be a. ML / 2 El b. ML / 3 El c. ML / 4 El d. ML / 6 El 38. Consider the following statements : The principle of superposition is not applicable when 1. the material does not obey Hooke’s law 2. the effect of temperature changes are taken into consideration 3. the structure is being analysed for the effect of support settlement Which of the above statements is/are correct ? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3 39. Which of the following apply to ‘fully rigid design’ of steel structures ? 1. End connections are capable of transmitting moments 2. angle between member s at the joint does not change 3. The structure is assumed to be pin- pointed 4. A reduction in the maximum bending moment is permitted to provide a degree of direction fixity Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4 40. For the propped cantilever shown in the figure, influence line for reaction at the propped end is given by y1 = f(x). The influence line ordinate (y2) for moment at A is given by the equation a. y2 = f(x) b. y2 = f(x) . x c. y2 = x - f(x) .x d. y2 = x - f(x). L 41. In a system two weightless rigid bars AB and BC of length ‘a’ each having hinge supports at the ends. A and C, respectively, are connected to each other at B by a frictionless hinge (internal hinge). The rotation at the hinge is restrained by a rotational spring of stiffness k and system assumes a straight line configuration ABC. The rotation at the supports due to vertical load P acting at joint B is a. Pa / 2k b. Pa / 4k c. Pa / k d. 2 Pa / k 42. A solid circular shaft, ABC, has a total length of ‘3 a’. A gear wheel positioned at B, at distance ‘a ‘from the left hand end A, exerts a torque T. If the ends A and C are instantaneously locked in position by brakes just before the torque is applied, the torsional moments induced in both segments T1 (AB) and T2 (BC) are in the ratio a. 3 : 1 b. 2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 1 43. The degree of indeterminacy of the beam given above is a. zero b. one c. two d. three 44. For the frame shown above, the distribution factors for members BC and BA at joint B are a. 0.4, 0.6 b. 0.5, 0.5 c. 0.6, 0.4 d. 0.7, 0.3 45. Creep of a material is a property indicated by a. a time-dependent strain of the material b. elongation of the material due to changes in the material properties c. shortening caused by shrinkage of the member d. the decrease in the volume of the material affected by the weather conditions 46. Principle of minimum strain energy is 1. a particular case of Castigliano’s first theorem 2. a particular case of Castigliano’s second theorem 3. applicable only when the redundant supports do not yield 4. applicable even when the redundant supports yield Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 47. Two shafts having same length and material are joined in series and subjected to a torque of 10 kNm. If the ratio of their diameters is 2 : 1, then the ratio of their angles of twist is a. 16 : 1 b. 2 : 1 c. 1 : 2 d. 1 : 16 48. Resilience is a. Maximum strain energy d. 3/2 t 51. The elements that are normally subjected to combined bending and axial forces are a. struts in reinforced concrete members b. the member s in long span bridges c. columns in framed structures d. space truss members 52. Which among the following assumptions are made in the design of roof trusses ? 1. Roof truss is restrained by the reactions 2. Axes of the members meeting at a joint intersect at a common point 3. riveted joints act as frictionless hinges 4. Loads act normal to roof surface Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3 53. The effective flange area in tension of a palte girder is equal to a. Af A w b. Recoverable strain energy c. Total potential energy d. Shear strain energy(Beyond Hooke’s law) 49. The slenderness ratio of a compression member in the context of Rankine’s b. Af c. Af d. Af 2 A w 8 A w 6 formula is defined as where Af is the area of each flange and Aw length is the web area a. b. c. d. least lateral dimension 54. effective length least radius of gyration effective length least lateral dimension length 55. least radius of gyration The maximum deflection in timber beams or joints should not be greater than a. span / 300 b. span / 325 c. span / 360 d. span / 380 A simply supported rectangular beam of spam 20.0 m is subjected to u.d.l. The 50. A propped cantilever of span 4 m is fixed minimum effective depth required to check at A and propped at B. The beam carries a deflection of this beam, when modification u.d.l. of 1 t/m over the entire span. The factor for tension and compression are 0.9 reaction at B is and 1.1 respectively, will be a. 5/2 t a. 2.0 m b. 2 t b. 1.8 m c. 1 t c. 1.3 m d. 1.0 m 56. Prestressing of indeterminate structure should take care of the following : 1. High strength concrete 2. High tensile steel 3. Load balancing 4. particle safety factors Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 57. For a portai truss column fixed at the base, the point of contraflexure is assumed at a. a distance mid-way between the base and the foot of the knee brace b. a distance mid-way between the base and top of the column c. the foot of the knee brace d. quarter distance between base and top of the column 58. As the span of a bridge increases, the impact factor a. decreases b. increases c. remains constant d. increases up to a critical value of span and then decreases 59. A gantry girder has been provided with the following section shown in the following figures In which case(s), the allowable stresses in being compression is equal to that in tension ? Select the correct answer using the cods given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 4 only d. 3 only 60. The effective length of the member shown in the figure is equal to a. 1.2 L b. 1.5 L c. 2.0 L d. 3.0 L |
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Re: Staff Selection Commission Civil Junior Engineer past year question papers
61. In a compression member, plate element may buckle locally before the entire member fails. To avoid this, which of the following recommendations are made ? 1. Thickness of members is taken in terms of lengths of compression members 2. length of element is increased 3. length of member is increased 4. Outstand is decreased Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 , 2 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 4 62. Figure given below shows a fixed beam of steel At the point of collapse, the value of load W will be a. 10 Mp / L b. 15 Mp / L c. 20 Mp / L d. 25 Mp / L 63. A rigid plate C is fastened to steel rod A of area S and to steel pipe B of area 2S. The other ends of A and B are fastened to rigid supports. When the force P is zero, there are no stresses in A and B. The yield stresses in tension and compression y. The collapse load P under yield condition is a. yS b. 2 yS c. 3 yS d. y S/2 64. A continuous beam ABC of two equal spans AB and BC carries a load P at Z, the centre of BC. Then the magnitude of collapse load P is equal to a. 2 Mp / l b. 4 Mp / l c. 6 Mp / l d. 8 Mp / l 65. The shape factor for a solid circular section of diameter D is equal to a. D / 2 b. 15 / 2 c. 16 / 3 d. D / 8 66. Gross flange area for a riveted plate girder is to be designed considering net area as 80% of its gross area. Consider width of the flange as 500 mm while web plate as 1000 mm 12 mm. The girder is to resist a maximum BM of 4500 kNm. Maximum allowable bending stress in tension is 150 MPa. Gross flange area is a. 22000 mm2 b. 35500 mm2 c. 46000 mm2 d. 73000 mm2 67. Match List I(Type of member ) with List II (Slenderness ratio) and select the correct answer : List I A. For compression members carrying dead and superimposed loads B. For members carrying compressive loads due to wind or seismic forces only C. Fro members carrying tension but in which the reversal of stress occurs due to wind or seismic forces List II 1. 350 2. 180 3. 250 A B C a. 1 2 3 b. 2 3 1 c. 3 1 2 d. 1 3 2 68. A buttress in a wall is intended to provide a. lateral support to roof slab only b. lateral support to wall c. to resist vertical loads only d. lateral support to roof beams only 69. A continuous R.C. beam spans six span segments, each supporting a monolithic reinforced concrete slab. The beam will best be designed a. as a rectangular one throughout its span b. as a tee-beam throughout its span c. as a rectangular beam for span moments and tee- beam for support moments d. as tee-beam for span moments and as a rectangular beam for support moments 70. Shrinkage in a concrete slab a. causes shear cracks b. causes tension cracks c. causes compression cracks d. does not cause nay cracking 71. The reinforcement for tension, when required in members, shall consist of a. only longitudinal reinforcement in the tension face b. only longitudinal reinforcement in the compression face c. only two legged closed loops enclosing the corner reinforcement d. both longitudinal and transverse reinforcement 72. The codal provisions recommend minimum shear reinforcement in the form of stirrups in the beams : 1. to cater for any torsion in the beam section 2. to improve ductility of the cross- section 3. to improve dowel action of longitudinal tension bars Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. Only 1 is correct d. Only 2 is correct 73. The specified span to depth ratios of beams satisfying the limits of vertical deflection are for spans up to 10 m. 1. for higher spans, these are to be modified by multiplying the ratio y (10/span in metrer) 2. For higher spans, these are to be modified by multiplying the ratios by (span in metre/10) 3. They get further modified depending on area and type of tension reinforcement 4. However, they of not change further with the area and type of compression reinforcement Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 3 are correct b. 2 and 3 are correct c. 1 and 4 are correct d. 2 and 4 are correct 74. When the tendon of a rectangular prestresses beam of cross-sectional area A is subjected to a load W through the centroidal longitudinal axis of beam, (where M = maximum bending Moment and Z = section modulus) then the maximum stress in the beam section will be a. W M A Z b. W M A Z c. A Z W M d. A Z W M 75. Which of the following deformations are important in case of deep beams when compared to flexure along? a. shear b. axial c. torsional d. bearing 76. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beam with ad as the effective depth, in limit state method of design for Fe 415 steel is a. 0.46 d b. 0.48 d c. 0.50 d d. 0.53 d 77. The load factor to be used for plastic design of steel structures for dead load and imposed load is a. 2.2 b. 2.0 c. 1.7 d. 1.5 78. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer : List I A. A rubber bulldozer gives better output B. A bulldozer mounted on crawler tracks gives better output C. A rubber tyred bulldozer D. A crawler mounted bulldozer List II 1. While working on earth or soft ground 2. Results in lesser operator fatigues 3. Has greater use and versatility on jobs 4. When working on a hard surface A B C D a. 2 1 4 3 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2 3 4 1 d. 4 3 2 1 79. A compression member has a centre to centre length of 4.0 m. It is fixed at one end and hinged at the other end. The effective length of the column is a. 4.0 m b. 3.2 m c. 2.8 m d. 2.6 m 80. Deck bridges have the main disadvantage that a. their compression flanges have no lateral support b. the traffic is exposed to winds c. it is not possible to provide portal bracings d. the road level has to be very high 81. If cbc is permissible compressive stress in flexural compression in N/mm2 in service, the modular ratio is of the order of a. 280/ 3 cbc b. 280 / 4 cbc c. 19 d. 13 82. In a Pedestal, the factor by which the effective length should not exceed the least lateral dimension is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 83. The losses in prestress in pre-tensioning system are due to 1. elastic deformation of concrete when wires are tensioned successively 2. friction 3. shrinkage and creep of concrete Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 alone d. 3 alone 84. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer : List I(Type of mixers) A. Tilting, drum type concrete mixers B. Pan type concrete mixers C. Portable tilting drum type concrete mixers D. Portable non-tilting drum type concrete mixers List II(Characteristics) 1. Are very efficient especially with stiff mixes and the drum rotates about a vertical axis 2. Are meant for small, scattered jobs using small-sized aggregates 3. Are fed from on side of the drum while the mixed concrete is discharged from the other end and the drum rotates about a horizontal axis 4. Are best suited for large sized aggregates as in mass concrete A B C D a. 2 3 4 1 b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2 1 4 3 d. 4 3 2 1 85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I(Vibrators) A. Vibrating tables B. Screed vibrators C. Internal vibrators D. Form vibrators List II(Application) 1. For thin tunnel linings 2. for mass concrete work 3. Fro precasting concrete members 4. for thin slabs, pavements and floors A B C D a. 3 1 2 4 b. 2 4 3 1 c. 3 4 2 1 d. 2 1 3 4 86. An equipment of purchased of Rs. 40, 000 and is fully depreciated by straight line method over 8 years. Considering interest on average annual cost at 15 p.a., the charge on the Company due to use of this equipment, if made uniformly over the 8 years, is a. Rs. 5,750 b. Rs. 8,000 c. Rs. 8,350 d. Rs. 14,000 87. Which of the following are the disadvantages of non-tilting type concrete mixers ? 1. They are not favoured when large sized aggregates are use d 2. Mixing of the concrete occurs through both rolling and pulling from buckets 3. Content of fines is increased 4. They are no easy to clean Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4 88. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer : List I (Type of cranes) A. Hydraulic crane B. Electric overhead crane C. Travelling bridge crane D. Hammerhead crane List II(Characteristics) 1. Has legs moving on tracks laid on the floor 2. Has cantilever arms on both sides 3. Has the unique advantage that the boom length and the angle can be changed during operation 4. Has three-way motion in mutually perpendicular directions A B C D a. 3 2 1 4 b. 1 4 3 2 c. 3 4 1 2 d. 1 2 3 4 89. The norm for providing standby equipment for one shift operation is a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 30% 90. In the network given above, the maximum number of shovels and dumpers required are a. 6 shovels and 14 dumpers on days 9 and 10 b. 24 shovels and 10 dumpers on days 3 and 4 c. 30 shovels and 90 dumpers on all days d. 10 shovels and 24 dumpers on day s3 and 4 91. For cleaning and grubbing of construction site of 15000 m3 area, a bulldozer is used which has effective width of 2 m of the blade and an average speed of 2.5 kmph. If hiring charges of bulldozer are Rs. 500/hr., then cost per m2 is a. Rs. 10 b. Rs. 12 c. Rs. 15 d. Rs. 18 92. In the network given above, the critical path of activities is a. A-C-H b. B-E-F-H c. A-D-E-F-H d. A-D-E-G 93. The probability that the load on a scaffolding will exceed the design load of 3 tonnes is 0.15. At the same time, the probability that the strength of the scaffolding will be more than 3 tonnes is 0.85. The probability that the scaffolding will fail is a. 0.2775 b. 0.1275 c. 0.0225 d. 0.0020 94. The optimum duration is the a. the summation of normal-durations of each activity in the project b. summation of the normal-duration of activities on critical path c. one, which givens minimum total cost for completing the project d. summation of crash-time of activities on critical path 95. In order to investigate a method of least- cost scheduling, which of the following assumptions are made ? 1. the planned duration of an activity can be any whole day value between the normal and crash duration 2. the direct cost of an activity is linear between he normal and crash direct costs 3. The overhead costs I linear during the entire project. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3 96. Which one of the following statements applies to the declining balance method of depreciation accounting? a. Uniform write-off of cost throughout the service is aimed b. Greater write-off in the early years is aimed c. Smaller write-off in early years is aimed d. A varying rate of depreciation is applied on the basis of marker value of the assets 97. In selecting a roller I-section for a simply- supported beam, along with minimum sectional modulus, a minimum value of span/depth ratio is also ensured. This is stipulated to ensure that a. the buckling of beam does not take place b. the shear stress in beam remains within permissible limit c. the deflection of beam remains within permissible limit d. the bending stress in compression is within permissible limit 98. Assertion (A) : Trees which have broad leaves and shed in the autumn are classified as hard woods, while trees having needle-like leaves, broadly evergreen are classified as soft woods. Reason (R) : The term hard wood and a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 99. Assertion (A) : Flash set is the stiffening of the cement paste within a few minutes after mixing. Reason (R) : Flash set occurs due to insufficient gypsum to control the rapid reaction of C3A with water. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 100. Assertion (A) : The amount of cement past should be sufficient to cover the surface of all particle for proper work- ability and bond. Reason (R) : The water -cement ratio is fixed accordingly. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 101. Assertion (A) : the coefficient of friction is the ratio of limiting frictional force to normal reaction between two bodies in contact and one body being just on the sliding on the other. Reason (R) : The limiting friction is the maximum value of frictional force, which comes in to play, when a body just begins to slide over the surface of the other body. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 102. Assertion (A) : The bending moment at a section of a simply supported beam is a maximum. (i) in the case of a concentrated load, where the S.F. changes sign. (ii) in the case of u.d.l where shearing force is zero. Reason (R) : Actually in both the above cases shearing force should be zero at the section of maximum being moment, because dM/dx = f = 0, to satisfy the maxima condition. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 103. Assertion (A) : The principle of super- position for deflection of beams subjected to a number of loads can be applied in the case of large deformation. Reason (R) : In the principle of superposition, the resultant deflection s due to each load acting separately. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 104. Assertion (A) : In the working stress design method the internal stresses at a section of member are computed for factored loads. Reason (R) : In the working stress design method it is ensured that the internal stresses due to working loads are less than the allowable stresses. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 105. Assertion (A) : The salvage value is less in the initial period of the equipment and increases as the equipment ages. Reason (R) : The salvage value of an equipment is the actual amount the at can be realized on a trade-in for a replacement machine. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 106. Assertion (A) : Knots, one of the common features in wood, are associated with the beginning of branches. Reason (R) : Knots greatly improve the workability. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 107. Assertion (A) : More uniformly burnt bricks are obtained form a downward draught kiln. Reason (R) : The bricks are laid in a circular form in their kiln. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 108. Assertion (A) : The higher percentage of Tricalcium silicate in cement results in rapid hardening with an early gain in strength at a higher heat of hydration. Reason (R) : A higher percentage of dicalcium silicate in cement results in rapid slow hardening and less heat of hydration and greater resistance to chemical attack. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 109. Assertion (A) : For a given composition, a finer cement will develop strength and generate heat more quickly than a coarse cement. Reason (R) : The reaction between water and cement starts on the surface of the cement particles and in consequence the greater the surface area of a given volume of cement, the grater the hydration. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 110. Assertion (A) : The strain and stress system for a bar of length ‘l’ subjected to an axial pull will be the same whether both ends of the bar are free or one end is fixed 112. Assertion (A) : A beam of fixed length and for given weight of material, a rectangular cross-section provides the greatest possible moment of resistance. Reason (R) : In a beam of 1 cross-section, more material is positioned near the outer fibres representing regions of greatest stress and hence is stronger than beam of rectangular cross-section. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 113. Assertion (A) : Whenever a column section is subjected to an eccentric loading, it causes a direct stress, as well as the being stress to come into play. Since both these stresses act normal to the cross- section, these can be algebraically added into a single resultant stress. Reason (R) : The maximum and minimum intensities of stress at the base of the column are 6e and the other end is free. Reason (R) : Rigid body displacements have no effect on the elastic deformations. pmax = W b pmin = W 1+ b 6e 1 a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 111. Assertion (A) : for a section having an axis of symmetry, there will not be twisting if the loading axis coincides with the symmetrical axis. Reason (R) : The plane of loading contains the bending axis. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true b b where W = weight of column per unit length. b = width of the column c = eccentricity of the load. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 114. Assertion (A) : The intensity of the longitudinal stress is on half of the intensity of hoop-stress of hoop-stress or circumferential stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure. Reason (R) : The stress in the longitudinal and circumferential directions develop when a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to internal force which tries to burst the cylinder. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 115. Assertion (A) : When attempting resource optimization, activity-time cost trade off information could be gainfully employed. Reason (R) : Generally, as activity time is extended beyond the minimum cost duration, splitting of the activity duration is always possible. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 116. Assertion (A) : The more economical alternative of replacing an equipment is to redesign and improve the equipment. Reason (R) : Redesigning and improving an equipment can result in labour saving. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 117. Assertion (A) : Area of BMD represented by ‘X’ in the figure given above equals 2/3Ml. Reason (R) : Area of the figure represented by ‘Y’ equals ml/3. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of pin- jointed plane frames, the force method is generally preferable to the displacement method. Reason (R) : The degrees of freedom for pin-jointed plane frames are generally much larger than the degrees of static indeterminacy and thus force method requires less formulation and computation than the displacement method. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 119. Assertion (A) : In a built-in beam, the centroids of the fixed moment diagram and the free moment diagram will lie on the same vertical line. Reason (R) : the second theorem of area moment states that, if two points on the elastic line of the beam are at the same level, the moment of area of BMD enclosed between these point about any one of these point is zero. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true 120. Assertion (A) : The strength of a beam does not depend upon the sectional area provided. Reason (R) : It depends upon the disposition of the sectional area of the beam in relation to its neutral axis. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true Contact Details: Staff Selection Commission Pragati Vihar, CGO Complex, New Delhi, Delhi 110003 India Map Location: |
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