Here I am giving you question paper for UGC National Eligibility Test paper 3 of management subject in PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily.

1. Match the items of List – I with those
of List – II and give the correct code
from the following :
List – I List – II
a. Sales
Maximisation
Model
i. John
Williamson
b. Managerial
Discretion
Model
ii. R.M. Cyert and
J.G. March
c. Integrative
Model
iii. William J.
Baumol
d. Behavioural
Model
iv. Oliver
Williamson
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) iv i ii iii
2. Match the items of the following two
lists and give the correct code for the
following :
List – I List – II
a. Scale of
Preferences
i. Indifference
Curves
b. Inadequate
Explanation of
Giffen Goods
ii. Ordinal
Utility
c. Curves always
slope
negatively
iii. Demand
Curves
d. Inseparation of
Income and
Substitution
effects
iv. Marshallian
Utility
Analysis
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) iii ii iv i
3. Cost-plus pricing is not suitable for
(A) Monopoly Pricing
(B) Product Tailoring
(C) Refusal Pricing
(D) Monopsony Pricing
4. Indicate the correct code matching
the items of List – I with those in
List – II as follows :
List – I List – II
a. Resorting
to New
Technology
i. Cost reduction
through output
expansion
b. Excess
Capacity of
the Plant
ii. Constant cost
despite output
expansion
c. Employees’
Training
Centres
iii. Internal
Economies
d. Reserve
Capacity of
the Plant
iv. External
Economies
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) iv ii i iii
(D) ii iv iii i
5. In a mixed economy, the central
problems are solved through which of
following ?
(A) Price mechanism
(B) Regulated market mechanism
(C) Market mechanism and
economic planning
(D) Economic planning and control

6. Indicate the correct code matching
the items in List – I with those in
List – II as follows :
List – I List – II
a. Excess of
aggregate
investment over
aggregate savings,
at full
employment level
i. Stability of
National
Income
b. Equality of
aggregate income
and savings
ii. Recessionary
gap
c. Comparatively
greater decrease in
income following
a decrease in
investment
iii. Multiplier
effect
d. Aggregate
expenditure being
less than national
income at full
employment level
iv. Inflationary
gap
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
7. The study of gestures and body
postures for their impact on
communication is known as :
(A) Kinesics
(B) Proximics
(C) Semantics
(D) Informal channels
8. Which of the following deals with
“what, why, when and how” tasks to
be performed ?
(A) Job Analysis
(B) Job Description
(C) Job Specification
(D) Job Enrichment
9. According to Henry Mintberg,
managers perform three roles.
Indicate the one role which is not
among them.
(A) Decisional
(B) Informational
(C) Interpersonal
(D) Supervisory
10. The Ringlemann effect describes
(A) the tendency of groups to make
risky decisions
(B) social loafing
(C) social facilitation
(D) the satisfaction of members’
social needs
11. The term “workforce diversity”
refers to differences in race, age,
gender, ethnicity, and _______
among people at work.
(A) social status
(B) personal wealth
(C) able-bodiedness
(D) political preference
12. Match the following and indicate the
correct code :
List – I List – II
a. A form of learning
through association
that involves the
manipulation of
stimuli to influence
behaviour
i. Stimulus
b. The process of
controlling
behaviour by
manipulating its
consequences
ii. Reinforcement
c. Something that
incites action
iii. Operant
conditioning
d. The administration
of a consequence as
a result of
behaviour
iv. Classical
conditioning
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii i ii

13. Which of the following techniques
permits the complainant to remain
anonymous ?
(A) The exit interview
(B) The gripe-box system
(C) The opinion survey
(D) None of the above
14. Which of the following Acts has a
direct relevance for grievance
handling practices ?
(A) The Industrial Employment
(Standing Order) Act, 1946
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act,
1947
(C) The Factories Act, 1948
(D) All of the above
15. That the authority rests solely with
the management with no right to
anyone to challenge is the basis of
the
(A) Pluralist Approach
(B) Systems Approach
(C) Unitary Approach
(D) Social Action Approach
16. Which of the following is not a
welfare provision under the Factories
Act, 1948 ?
(A) Canteen
(B) Crèches
(C) First Aid
(D) Drinking water
17. A person who has ultimate control
over the affairs of the factory under
the Factories Act, 1948 is called
(A) Occupier
(B) Manager
(C) Chairman
(D) Managing Director
18. In which of the following methods
grievances are ascertained at the time
of employees quitting the
organisation ?
(A) The exit interview method
(B) The gripe-box system
(C) The open-door policy
(D) Opinion surveys
19. Redressal of employees’ grievances
covers
(A) positive attitude towards
employees’ grievances and
readiness to help
(B) expediting machinery for
resolving employees’
grievances
(C) equitable salary system for all
(D) both (A) and (B)
20. Which of the following are most
closely interconnected ?
(A) Leadership and organisation
structure
(B) Leadership and motivation
(C) Leadership and planning
(D) Leadership and performance
appraisal
21. _______ is defined as disputes
between parties submitted and
decided by a neutral third party.
(A) Collective Bargaining
(B) Affirmation Action
(C) Arbitration
(D) Negotiation

22. The appropriate method to derive the
growth rate according to Dividend-
Growth Model for equity valuation is
(A) Growth rate of sales over a
period of time
(B) Plough-back ratio multiplied
with return-on-equity
(C) Plough-back ratio multiplied
with net profit margin
(D) Growth rate of fixed assets
over a period of time
23. Match the items given in List – I and
List – II and indicate the correct
code :
List – I List – II
a. The technique
used in examining
the effect of
change in one
variable at a time
i. Hillier
Model
b. The process of
developing the
frequency
distribution of Net
Present Value
ii. Sensitivity
Analysis
c. The technique
used in examining
the chances of Net
Present Value
being greater than
zero
iii. Decision
tree
d. The technique
used when
investment at a
future date is to be
decided based on
the probable
outcome of
previous
investment
iv. Simulation
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv i ii iii
24. Match the correct option for each of
the following approaches of Capital
structure theories :
a. The Net
Income
Approach
i. The market value
of the firm is not
affected by
changes in the
capital structure
b. The Net
Operating
Income
Approach
ii. Declining
weighted-average
cost of capital
c. The
Modigliani
& Miller
Proposition
– I
iii. The firms prefer to
rely on internal
accruals followed
by debt finance
and external
finance
d. The
Pecking
Order
Theory
iv. The value of the
firm depends on
the earnings and
risk of its assets
rather than the way
the assets have
been financed
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv ii iii i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii iv i ii
25. Under the Walter Model, if the rate
of return is greater than the cost of
capital :
(A) Price per share does not vary
with the increase or decrease in
dividend pay-out ratio.
(B) Price per share increases as the
dividend pay-out ratio
increases.
(C) Price per share increases as the
dividend pay-out ratio
decreases.
(D) None of the above.

26. Which one of the following is not the
major objectives of International
Monetary Fund ?
(A) Promoting co-operation among
countries on international
monetary issues.
(B) Giving loans to countries for
the purpose of economic
development.
(C) Promoting stability in the
exchange rates.
(D) Promoting free mobility of
capital across countries.
27. Match the correct combination for
Assertion and Reason as argued by
Shapiro and Titman :
Assertion (A) : Management
decisions to insure or hedge
asset appear at best neutral
mutation.
Reason (R) : The price of systematic
risk is identical for all the participants
in the financial market.
(A) Assertion (A) is correct, but
Reason (R) is incorrect.
(B) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but
Reason (R) is correct.
(C) Both the Assertion (A) and the
Reason (R) are incorrect.
(D) Both the Assertion (A) and the
Reason (R) are correct.
28. Conservative policy of working
capital refers to
i. Situation with high investment in
current assets
ii. Situation which stimulates sales
iii. Situation with frequent
production stoppages
Codes :
(A) iii is correct.
(B) ii is correct.
(C) i is correct.
(D) i and ii are correct.
29. DUPONT analysis refers to
(A) Earning Per Share = (Net Profit
/ Number of Equity Shares)
(B) Return on Assets =
Net Profit Margin
Total Assets Turnover Ratio
(C) Total Assets Turnover Ratio =
Sales
Average Total Assets
(D) None of the above
30. Match the following and indicate the
correct code :
a. Mergers resulting
into economies
achieved primarily
by eliminating the
duplicate facilities
i. Conglomerate
Merger
b. Mergers resulting
into expansion of
company’s
business towards
ultimate consumer
or source of raw
material
ii. Horizontal
Merger
c. Mergers in
unrelated line of
business
iii. Vertical
Merger
Codes :
a b c
(A) i ii iii
(B) ii iii i
(C) iii i ii
(D) iii ii i
31. Consider the following statements :
1. Usually people from the same
culture, social class and
occupation have the same life
style.
2. The consumer buying decision
will involve the same stages
regardless of whether the goods
involved are low or high
involvement.
3. “Salesmen are born, not made.”
4. The ultimate goal of a
customer-oriented organisation
is to maximise its customer’s
satisfaction.
Indicate the correct answer through
the codes.
Codes :
(A) All the statements are true.
(B) Statements 1 and 2 are false,
others are true.
(C) Statement 3 is true, others are
false.
(D) All are false.

32. Cognitive dissonance is associated
with which stage of the consumer
buying decision process ?
(A) Need recognition
(B) Information search
(C) Evaluation of alternative
(D) None of the above
33. Consider the following statements :
i. Brand equity is a function of
brand awareness and brand
preference.
ii. Product lines tend to shorten
over time.
iii. The Standards of Weights and
Measures (Packaged
Commodities) Rules, 1977
provide for the labelling rules
relating to packaged
commodities.
iv. AIDA Model is relevant to
advertising as well as physical
distribution.
Indicate the correct answer.
Codes :
(A) All the above statements are
false.
(B) Only iii is true.
(C) i, iii and iv are true.
(D) Only i is true.
34. A marketer developing a brand name
that is easy to pronounce would
conduct :
(A) An association test
(B) A memory test
(C) A preference test
(D) A recall test
35. Before performing the business
analysis for developing a new
product, a company should be
engaged in
(A) Idea screening
(B) Product development
(C) Marketing strategy development
(D) Product positioning
36. Relationship marketing aims at
building mutually satisfying longterm
relations with
(A) Customers
(B) Employees
(C) Marketing partners
(D) All of the above
37. In the social-cultural arena,
marketers may not understand
(A) People’s views
(B) Organisation’s views
(C) Society’s views
(D) Government’s views
38. A manufacturer of industrial goods
would use ______ sales force
structure.
(A) Territorial (B) Matrix
(C) Product (D) Market
39. Which of the following is/are a
type(s) of direct marketing ?
(A) Direct-Response Advertising
(B) Personal Selling
(C) Telemarketing
(D) All of the above
40. In inventory control, which one of
the following factors does not affect
the ROL (Re-Order-Level) ?
(A) Average Daily Usage
(B) Lead Time
(C) Safety Stock
(D) Holding Costs
41. The number of allocated cells in the
optimal solution of a transportation
problem having m rows and n
columns is :
(A) m + n – 1
(B) m + n – 1 or less
(C) m + n + 1
(D) None of the above
42. In a railway yard, goods trains arrive
at a rate of 30 trains per day. Assume
that the inter-arrival time follows an
exponential distribution and the
service distribution is also an
exponential with an average of 36
minutes. The probability that the size
of the queue exceeds 10 is
(A) 0.944 (B) 0.750
(C) 0.250 (D) 0.056

43. If in the optimal solution of a linear
programming problem, a non-basic
variable has zero value in the Cj – Zj
row, the problem
(A) has no feasible solution
(B) has multiple optimal solutions
(C) is unbounded
(D) (A) and (B), but not (C)
44. The best model to compute the
probability that a machine
functioning well in one period will
continue to function or will break
down in the next period is
(A) Delphi Model
(B) Decision-tree Model
(C) Multiplicative Model
(D) Markov-Process Model
45. Statement – I : –X and R charts use
the sample standard deviation
to measure process variability.
Statement – II : The lower control
limit on an R chart is always
–R – (1 – 3d3/d2).
Codes :
(A) Both Statements I and II are
correct.
(B) Statement I is correct, but II is
wrong.
(C) Statement I is wrong, but II is
correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are
wrong.
46. Assuming ‘X’ as the ‘quantity of
rainfall’ and ‘Y’ as the ‘agricultural
yield’, which of the following will
express the regression equation of Y
on X ?
(A) (X –
__
X) = r
σX
σY (Y –
__
Y)
(B) (X –
__
X) = r
σY
σX (Y –
__
Y)
(C) (Y –
__
Y) = r
σY
σX (X –
__
X)
(D) (Y –
__
Y) = r
σX
σY (X –
__
X)
47. Read the following statements and
indicate the correct code from given
below :
Statement I : A subjective
probability may be nothing
more than an educated guess.
Statement II : One reason that
decision-makers at high levels
often use subjective probabilities
is that they are concerned with
unique situations.
Codes :
(A) Statement I is correct, but
Statement II is wrong.
(B) Statement I is wrong, but
Statement II is correct.
(C) Both Statements I and II are
correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are
wrong.
48. Which of the following is a step in
performing analysis of variance ?
i. Determine an estimate of
population variance from
within samples.
ii. Determine an estimate of
population variance from
among the sample means.
iii. Determine the difference
between expected and observed
frequency for each class.
Codes :
(A) i and ii only.
(B) i and iii only.
(C) ii and iii only.
(D) i, ii and iii
49. From the following, identify the
decision-support systems :
i. Status inquiry system
ii. Data analysis system
iii. Accounting system
iv. Information system
Codes :
(A) i, ii and iii
(B) ii, iii and iv
(C) only iii
(D) i, ii, iii and iv

50. Which of the following are the
components of data warehouses ?
i. Metadata
ii. Integration Programs
iii. Summarised data
iv. Archives
Codes :
(A) i, ii and iii only
(B) i, iii and iv only
(C) ii, iii and iv only
(D) i, ii, iii and iv
51. Arrange the following stages
involved in DBMS in proper
sequence :
i. Creating
ii. Defining
iii. Data structuring
iv. Updating
v. Interrogating
Codes :
(A) i, iii, ii, iv and v
(B) ii, i, iii, v and iv
(C) iii, ii, v, iv and i
(D) ii, iii, i, iv and v
52. For years Converse had a major share
in the athletic shoe market. Then, in
the 1980’s, Nike and Reebok
re-invented the athletic shoe industry,
and Converse changed nothing. Now
Converse is a minor brand in a
growth industry. According to the
BCG matrix, Converse is an example
of
(A) Cash Cow
(B) Dog
(C) Question mark
(D) Star
53. The managerial process of
developing and maintaining a viable
fit between an organisation’s
objectives, skills, and resources, and
its market opportunities is called
(A) Establishing strategic business
units
(B) Market-oriented strategic
planning
(C) Market research
(D) Portfolio analysis
54. Low cost, product differentiation,
and focused market are the examples
of
(A) Corporate strategy
(B) Business strategy
(C) Functional strategy
(D) Behavioural strategy
55. The word “Tactic” is the most likely
to be associated with
(A) Corporate strategy
(B) Business strategy
(C) Operational strategy
(D) Behavioural strategy
56. A marketing effectiveness review is
part of _______ control.
(A) Annual Plan
(B) Profitability
(C) Proficiency
(D) Strategic
57. When a cigarette manufacturing
company drastically cuts price of a
popular brand of its cigarettes, to
increase its share in the competitive
market, it is implementing a ______
strategy.
(A) Integrative growth
(B) Market development
(C) Market penetration
(D) Product development

58. An entrepreneur who is neither
willing to introduce new changes nor
to adopt new methods is known as :
(A) Adoptive Entrepreneur
(B) Fabian Entrepreneur
(C) Innovative Entrepreneur
(D) Drone Entrepreneur
59. UNIDO preparatory meeting on the
“Role of Women in Industrialisation
in Developing Countries” held in
February 1978. Identified constraints,
which hinder women from
participating in industrial activities.
The meeting was held at
(A) Vienna
(B) New Delhi
(C) Geneva
(D) Mexico City
60. Which of the following statements is
false ?
(A) Venture capital is outside
equity that comes from
professionally managed pools
of investor money.
(B) Term Loan from bank is
needed to pay dividends to
shareholders on time.
(C) Permanent working capital is
the amount a firm needs to
produce goods and services at
the lowest point of demand.
(D) Temporary working capital is
the amount which a firm may
need to meet seasonal demand.
61. Small Industries Development
Organisation (SIDO) has been set up
to
(A) promote, aid and foster the
growth of small-scale
industries in the country.
(B) formulate, coordinate and
monitor the policies and
programmes for promotion and
development of small scale
industries.
(C) provide consultancy and
training to small entrepreneurs
– both existing and prospective.
(D) provide integrated
administrative framework at
the district level for promotion
of small-scale industries in
rural areas.
62. Match the items in the two lists :
List – I
(Part of Social
Responsibility)
List – II
(Features)
a. Responsibility
towards owners
i. Stock
b. Responsibility
towards
employees
ii. Quality product
c. Responsibility
towards depositors
iii. Safety of their
investment
d. Responsibility
towards customers
iv. Job security
v. Interest
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii ii v
(B) iii iv v ii
(C) i iii v ii
(D) iii iv ii i
63. First industrial estate in India was
established by SSIB in 1955 at
(A) Okhla in Delhi
(B) Ghaziabad in Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajkot in Gujarat
(D) Sannat Nagar in Jammu &
Kashmir

64. The Companies Bill, 2012 has been
passed by Parliament in August,
2013. What is not true about this Bill ?
1. It does not provide for
corporate social responsibility.
2. It provides for measures to curb
corporate frauds.
3. It does not include the concept
of corporate fraud.
4. It emphasises on self reputation
and stringent penalties on
professionals.
Codes :
(A) All of the above are true.
(B) While items 1 and 2 are true,
the rest are not.
(C) While items 2 and 4 are true,
the rest are not.
(D) All of the above are false.
65. A high ranking organizational
official (e.g. general counsellor or
vice president) who is expected to
provide strategies for ensuring ethical
conduct throughout the organization
is known as
(A) Ethics Manager
(B) Ethics Officer
(C) Ethics Controller
(D) Ethics Counsellor
66. Indicate the correct code for the
following statements about Assertion
(A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : All ethical theories
are not equally applicable
every time in all types of
ethical dilemma resolution.
Reason (R) : The ethical resolution
should be based as far as
possible on a cognitive ethical
principle with justification.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
(B) (R) is correct, (A) is incorrect.
(C) Both the statements (A) and
(R) are correct.
(D) Both the statements (A) and
(R) are incorrect.
67. According to which committee
should an organization submit
regular social reports ?
(A) Sachchar Committee
(B) Kumarmangalam Birla Report
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above
68. The method of collecting money for
Corporate Social Responsibility
(CSR) by raising prices or following
many other unethical ways is often
described as :
(A) Reverse effect
(B) Reverse Robinhood effect
(C) Boomerang
(D) Roosevelt effect
69. When the values and priorities of the
parent organization guides the
strategic decision making of all its
international operations, it is known
as
(A) Polycentric Orientation
(B) Regiocentric Orientation
(C) Ethnocentric Orientation
(D) Geocentric Orientation
70. Indicate the correct code for the
following two statements of
Assertion and Reason :
Assertion (A) : GDP increases a
currency’s value.
Reason (R) : Since there is likely to
be greater demand for
country’s currency.
Codes :
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct,
but (R) is not the appropriate
explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct
and (R) is the right explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not
correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not
correct.

Attached Files

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