Here I am giving you question papers for West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination medical biology subject in a PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily.

Q.1 to Q.60 carry one mark each, for which only one option is correct. Any wrong answer will lead to
deduction of 1/3 mark.
1. One molecule of triglyceride is produced using
(A) One fatty acid and one glycerol (B) One fatty acid and three glycerols
(C) Three fatty acids and three glycerols (D) Three fatty acids and one glycerol
Ans : (D)
Hints : One molecule of triglyceride is produced by three molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol.
2. Glutenin is an important protein in
(A) Potato (B) Wheat (C) Soybean (D) Spinach
Ans : (B)
Hints : Glutenin is a storage protein present in wheat
3. Which one of the followings is enriched with a non-reducing sugar ?
(A) Grapes (B) Germinating barley grains
(C) Table sugar (D) Mother’s milk
Ans : (C)
Hints : Table sugar is sucrose which is a non-reducing sugar.
4. Select the CORRECT statem nt elated o mitosis
(A) Amount of DNA in the par nt cell is first halved and then distributed into two daughter cells
(B) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first doubled and then distributed into two daughter cells
(C) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first halved and then distributed into four daughter cells
(D) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first doubled and then distributed into four daughter cells
Ans : (B)
5. The frequency of crossing-over occurring between two genes located on the same chromosome depends on
(A) Length of the chromosome (B) Position of the centromere
(C) Activities of two genes (D) Distance between two genes
Ans : (D)
Hints : Frequency of crossing-over is directly proportional to the distance between two genes.
6. Chlorophyll molecules are located in the
(A) Thylakoid membrane (B) Thylakoid lumen
(C) Stroma (D) Inner chloroplast membrane
Ans : (A)
7. The primary cell wall is mainly made up of
(A) Lignin (B) Pectin (C) Cellulose (D) Protein
Ans : (C)
8. Which of the folloiwng statements is wrong for sucrose ?
(A) It is a disaccharide (B) It is a non-reducing sugar
(C) It accumulates in the cytoplasm (D) It is comprised of maltose and fructose
Ans : (D)
Hints : Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose.
9. Which of the followings is always ABSENT in prokaryotic cells ?
(A) Ribosome (B) Mitochondria (C) DNA (D) Cell wall
Ans : (B)
10. Which of the following tissues provide maximum mechanical support to plant organs ?
(A) Sclerenchyma (B) Collenchyma (C) Parenchyma (D) Aerenchyma
Ans : (A)
Hints : It is thick walled, lignified dead mechanical tissue
11. The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of glucose is
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.7 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.5
Ans : (C)
12. Cross-pollination through insect agent is called
(A) Anthropophily (B) Malacophily (C) Entomophily (D) Ornithophily
Ans : (C)
13. Cleistogamous flowers are
(A) Bisexual flowers which remain opened (B) Bisexual flowers which remain closed
(C) Open female flower (D) Open male flower
Ans : (B)
14. Which one of the following is a g owth regulator produced by plants ?
(A) Naphthalene acetic acid (B) Zeatin
(C) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (D) Benzyl aminopurine
Ans : (B)
Hints : Zeatin belongs to the family of natural plant growth regulator called cytokinin.
15. In apple, the edible portion is
(A) Mesocarp (B) Epicarp (C) Endocarp (D) Thalamus
Ans : (D)
16. Anish is having colour-blindness and married to Sheela, who is not colour-blind. What is the chance that their son will
have the disease ?
(A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) 0%
Ans : (D)
Hints : According to the question, Sheela is not colour blind so, her genotype is XX and the colour blind Anish has the
genotype C X Y.
17. Insect pest resistant Bt-cotton plant was developed using
(A) Somaclonal variation (B) Micropropagation (C) Somatic hybridization (D) Transgenic technology
Ans : (D)
Hints : Bt cotton was produced by transgenic technology in which cry gene was introduced into cotton plant genome.
This gene was obtained form Bacillus thuringiensis.
18. In which one of the followings, expenditure of energy is required ?
(A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion (C) Active transport (D) Passive transport
Ans : (C)
Hints : Active transport requires expenditure of energy since, it occurs against the concentration gradient.
19. Emasculation ensures cross-pollination in
(A) Staminate flower (B) Bisexual flower (C) Neuter flower (D) Pistillate flower
Ans : (B)
20. The protein component of a holoenzyme is known as
(A) Coenzyme (B) Cofactor (C) Prosthetic group (D) Apoenzyme
Ans : (D)
Hints : Protein part of a conjugated or holoenzyme is called as apoenzyme. Non-protein part is called as co-factor.
21. Pseudopodia are produced by
(A) Plasma Cell (B) Mast Cell
(C) Adipose Cell (D) Fibroblast Cell
Ans : (D)
Hints : Protoplasmic processes of fibroplast can act as pseudopdia supported by axial filaments. They are lamellipodia.
22. Formation of polysome does not require
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) snRNA
Ans : (D)
23. Km is
(A) Product (B) Enzyme (C) Constant (D) Unit
Ans : (C )
Hints : Km is Michaelis-Menten constant. It indicat s substrate concentration at which rate of reaction is half of the
maximum velocity
24. Proteins helping in Kinetocore forma ion of yeast are
(A) CBF2 and Kar3 P (B) CBF2 and CBF3
(C) CBF3 and Kar3 P (D) CBF2, CBF3 and Kar3P
Ans : (D)
25. Juvenile hormone in insects is released from
(A) Protocerebrum (B) Corpora Cardiaca (C) Corpora Allata (D) Thoracic Gland
Ans : (C )
Hints : Juvenile hormone is produced by corpora allata. It ensures the retention of juvenile characters
26. Genes which are located only in the X-Chromosome are known as
(A) Epistasis genes (B) Holandric genes (C) Operator genes (D) Antiepistasis genes
Ans : (A)
Hints : Epistasis genes is the most probable option though none of the options seem appropriate.
[According to Barr Body concept (applicable only for X-chromosomes) genes present on the Barr body (inactive
X-chromosome) are at times hypostatic due to presence of epistatic genes on the active X-chromosome].
* Genes which are located on X-chromosome only are called hologynic genes and those found on Y-chromosome
only are called holandric genes.
27. Industrial Melanism is an
(A) Effect of industrial pollution (B) Effect of mutation
(C) Evidence of survival of fittest (D) Evidence in favour of Natural Selection
Ans : (D)
Hints : Industrial melanism is an evidence of Natural Selection but industrial pollution acted as the selective factor
28. The concept of Hot-Spot was first introduced by
(A) Mayer (B) Simpson (C) Myers (D) David
Ans : (C)
29. With the rise of water temperature, dissolved oxygen
(A) Remains unchanged (B) Increases in amount
(C) Decreases in amount (D) Is more available to the aquatic organisms
Ans : (C)
30. Intermediate host of malarial parasite is
(A) Pig (B) Man (C) Mosquito (D) Larva of Mosquito
Ans : (B)
Hints : Human is considered as the intermediate host or secondary host because the parasite performs its asexual
cycle within human in medicine. In zoology or biological science mosquito is the intermediate host
31. Which codon is not an indicator of completion of protein synthesis ?
(A) UAG (B) AUG (C) UAA (D) UGA
Ans : (B)
Hints : Since, AUG only initiates protein synthesis.
32. ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is a multination international treaty for
(A) Phasing out green house gases (B) Controlli g ozone destroying substances
(C) Management of hazardous wastes (D) Conse vatio of biodiversity
Ans : (A)
33. The objective of ‘Ramsar Convention’ was
(A) Forest conservation (B) Wildlife conservation
(C) Wetland conservation (D) Biodiversity conservation
Ans : (C)
Hints : Signed–2nd Feb 1971 (Iran) & effective from 21st December, 1975
34. Which of the following human parasites requi e mos uito to complete their life-cycle ?
(A) Ascaris lumbricoides and Wuchereria bancrofti (B) Leishmania donovani and Plasmodium ovale
(C) Ascaris lumbricoides and Leishmania donovani (D) Wuchereria bancrofti and Plasmodium ovale
Ans : (D)
Hints : Wuchereria bancrofti requires femal Culex and Plasmodium ovale requires female Anopheles to complete
their life-cycle
35. In which diagnostic system, Piezoelectric effect and Reverse Piezoelectric effect are involved ?
(A) EEG (B) CAT (C) USG (D) MRI
Ans : (C)
Hints : In Ultrasonographic technique these effects are involved for proper diagnosis
36. Main cause of Eutrophication is
(A) Fluctuation of temperature (B) Unusual growth of aquatic vegetations
(C) Enrichment of nutrients (D) Abundance of microorganisms
Ans : (C)
Hints : Enrichment of nutrients occur by addition of nitrates and phosphates through fertilizers or sewage to an
aquatic system.
37. The body of Rohu fish is covered by
(A) Cycloid scale but the tail is homocercal (B) Placoid scale but the tail is heterocercal
(C) Cycloid scale but the tail is heterocercal (D) Placoid scale but the tail is homocercal
Ans : (A)
Hints : Rohu (Labeo rohita) is a carp in which body is covered by cycloid scales and the tail is homocercal
38. Management of National Park is controlled by
(A) State Government (B) Central Government
(C) United Nations (D) Non-Government Organizations
Ans : (B)
39. Which one is an example of living fossil ?
(A) Coral (B) Ascidia (C) Octopus (D) King crab
Ans : (D)
Hints : It belongs to phylum arthropoda and retains all ancient characters
40. The removal of ‘Keystone’ species will affect
(A) The producers (B) The consumers
(C) The ecosystem (D) The decomposers
Ans : (C)
Hints : Keystone species is that which inspite of its low abundance affects the whole ecosystem
41. Objects less than 0.2 m in size cannot be seen under light microscope because
(A) The wave length of visible light is 3900 Å to 7800 Å
(B) Only two types of lenses are used
(C) Maximum magnifying power of ocular lens is 20 X
(D) Maximum magnifying power of objective lens is 100 X
Ans : (A)
Hints : Because at the wavelength of visible light (3900 Å to 7800 Å) objects cannot be resolved that are less than 0.2
m.
42. If the sequence of bases in the coding strand of a double stranded DNA is 5′GTTCGAGTC-3′, the sequence of
bases in its transcript will be
(A) 5′- GACUCGAAC-3′(B) 5′- CAAGCUCAG-3′(C) 5′- GUUCGAGUC-3′(D) 5′- CUGAGCUUG-3′
Ans : (C)
Hints : The sequence of transcript (i.e., RNA transcribed) is same as t e coding strand except in place of thymine it
is uracil.
43. Immunity that develops in the fetus after receiving antibodies from mother’s blood through placenta is
(A) Naturally acquired active immunity
(B) Artificially acquired active immunity
(C) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
Ans : (C)
Hints : Fetus receives IgG antibody from mother through the placenta so, it is naturally acquired passive immunity.
44. The serous membrane which covers the lungs is called
(A) Pericardium (B) Periton um (C) Perichondrium (D) Pleura
Ans : (D)
Hints : Parietal and visceral pleura cover lungs.
45. The volume of air that can be breathed i by maximum forced inspiration over and above the normal inspiration is
called
(A) Expiratory Reserved Volume (B) Inspiratory Reserved Volume
(C) Vital Capacity (D) Inspiratory Capacity
Ans : (B)
Hints : Volume of air that can be breathed in by maximum forced inspiration above tidal volume or normal inspiration
is called as inspiratory reserve volume.
46. How many ATP are produced when one molecule of FADH2 is oxidized to FAD through Electron Transport System?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4
Ans : (A)
47. Which valve is present at the opening of coronary sinus?
(A) Mitral valve (B) Eustachian valve (C) Thebesian valve (D) Tricuspid valve
Ans : (C)
Hints : Opening of coronary sinus is guarded by Thebesian valve.
48. Which of the following organs does not produce any digestive enzymes?
(A) Salivary gland (B) Pancreas (C) Liver (D) Stomach
Ans : (C)
Hints : Liver produces bile juice which is devoid of enzymes.
49. The disease that occurs in mature adult human being due to deficiency of calciferol is
(A) Keratomalacia (B) Osteomalacia (C) Glossitis (D) Pernicious anaemia
Ans : (B)
Hints : Calciferol is vitamin D. Its deficiency in adult causes osteomalacia in which bone becomes weak and fragile.
50. Which blood cells can engulf bacteria by phagocytosis?
(A) Eosinophil and Basophil (B) Basophil and Lymphocyte
(C) Neutrophil and Monocyte (D) Neutrophil and Lymphocyte
Ans : (C)
Hints : Neutrophil and monocyte are major phagocytic cells of immune system.
51. Which excitatory neurotransmitter is involved in the transmission of impulse at the neuro-muscular junction?
(A) Epinephrine (B) Serotonin (C) Acetyl choline (D) Glycine
Ans : (C)
Hints : Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that helps in neuromuscular transmission.
52. Which area of cerebral cortex is responsible for the interpretation of speech?
(A) Brocca’s area (B) Wernicke’s area
(C) Premotor area (D) Association area of sensory cortex
Ans : (B)
Hints : Interpretation of speech (understanding speech) is in Werni ke s area of temporal lobe.
53. Which of the following pituitary hormones is secreted withou the involvement of a releasing hormone (RH)?
(A) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) (B) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
(C) Oxytocin (D) Prolactin
Ans : (C)
Hints : Oxytocin and ADH are synthesize and secreted directly from hypothalamic nuclei without involvement of
releasing hormones.
54. Which of the following hormones is a derivative of fatty acid?
(A) Gastrin (B) T yroxin (C) Estrogen (D) Prostaglandins
Ans : (D)
Hints : Prostaglandin is the derivative of unsaturated 20 C fatty acid. It is a local hormone.
55. Which of the followings is NOT involved in muscular contraction?
(A) Calcium ion (B) Troponin (C) Actin (D) Magnesium ion
Ans : (D)
Hints : Actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin and calcium ions are directly involved in muscle contraction but Mg++ ion
is secondarily involved in this process.
56. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron is responsible for
(A) Filtration of blood
(B) Maintenance of Glomerular Filtration Rate
(C) Selective reabsorption of glucose, amino acid, NaCl and water
(D) Reabsorption of salts only
Ans : (C)
Hints : PCT of nephron is the main site for selective reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, water and different ions.
57. Which of the following processes was discovered by Lederberg and Tatum (1946)?
(A) Transduction (B) Transformation (C) Asexual reproduction (D) Conjugation
Ans : (D)
58. The component of bacteria that retains the crystal violet stain during Gram-staining is
(A) O-antigen (B) Lipopolysaccharide
(C) Peptidoglycan (D) Cytoplasmic membrane
Ans : (C)
Hints : During Gram staining alcohol treatment is done. Alcohol solubilises lipid but not peptidoglycan. In Gram
positive bacteria lipid percentage is less and peptidoglycan peprcentage is more. So, peptidoglycan which does not
gets solubilised retains the stain.
59. Which of the following bacteria is observed as chain-like formation?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Sreptococcus pyogenes (D) Micrococcus flavus
Ans : (C)
60. During gene cloning, the enzyme used to join the insert DNA with the plasmid vector is
(A) DNA ligase (B) Restriction endonuclease
(C) Alkaline phosphatase (D) Exonuclease
Ans : (A)
Hints : DNA ligase is also called as molecular glue because it is used to join insert DNA with the plasmid vector.

Attached Files

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