I am providing you the Sample Question Paper of AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam Sample Question Paper


ANAESTHESIA

1. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow in the portal vein. Portal flow is maximally reduced by –
A. ether
B. halothane
C. isoflurane
D. enflurane
Ans: b.

2. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
A. IV regional anaesthesia
B. Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
C. Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach
D. Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
Ans: a.

3. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia –
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etiodicaine
D. Ropivacaine
Ans: b.

ANATOMY

4. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:
A. Cricothyroid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Hyoepiglottie
D. Cricotracheal
Ans: A.

5. Paneth cells – true is
A. Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. High zine content
C. Foamy cytoplasm
D. Numerous lysozyme granules
Ans: A.

6. True about prostatic urethra are all except:
A. Trapezoid in cross section
B. Presence of verumontanum
C. Openings of prostatic ducts
D. Contains urethral crest
Ans: A.

7. Cranial nerve not carrying parasympathetic fibres
A. Fourth
B. Seventh
C. Third
D. Ninth
Ans: A.

8. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of
A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
B. Palatine division of maxillary nerve
C. Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve
D. Inferior alveolar nerve
Ans is none

9. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?
A. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of the patella
B. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
C. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medical border of patella
D. No change in position
Ans: b.

10. Coeliac plexus is located
A. Anterolateral & around the aorta
B. Posterolateral & around the aorta
C. Anteromedical to lumbar sympathetic chain
D. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Ans: c.

11. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Interior of nasal cavity
C. Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
D. Ethmoidal air cells
Ans: d.

12. Appendix epiploicae present in
A. Appendix
b. Caecum
C. Rectum
D. Sigmoid colon
Ans: a.

13. All of the following muscles retract the scapula except:
A. Trapezius
B. Rhomboid major
C. Rhomboid minor
D. Levator scapulae
Ans: d.

14. The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
A. smell
B. taste
C. Touch
D. Balance
Ans: d.

15. Pain insensitive structure in brain is:
A. Falx cerebri
B. Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
C. Middle meningeal artery
D. Choroid plexus
Ans: d.

16. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic nerves?
A. rectum
B. urinary bladder
C. appendix
D. Uterus
Ans: c.

BIOCHEMISTRY

17. Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all except:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Triglycerides
C. Lecithin
D. Cholesterol
Ans: b.

18. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except:
A. glucose
B. fatty acids
C. cholesterol
D. ketone bodies
Ans: a.

19. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
A. phenyketonuria
B. alkaptonuria
C. tyrosinemia type-2
D. argininosuccinic aciduria
Ans: b.

20. After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transporters reduced in
A. brain cells
B. RBCs
C. adipocytes
D. hepatocytes
Ans: c.

21. Splicing activity is a function of:
A. mRNA
B. snRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
Ans: b.

22. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by:
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA topoisomerase
D. DNA gyrase
Ans: b.

23. True about sickle cells are all, except:
A. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine
B. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a non polar residue with a polar residue
C. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
D. RFLP results from a single base change
Ans: b.

ENT

24. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
A. Cochlear aqueduct
B. Endolymphatic sac
C. Vestibular aqueduct
D. Hyrtle fissure
Ans: a.

25. Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A. Ethmoidal sinuses
B. Maxillary sinuses
C. Frontal sinuses
D. Tegmen tympani
Ans: a.

26. Endolymph in the inner ear:
A. Is a filterate of blood serum
B. Is secreted by stria vascularis
C. Is secreted by basilar membrane
D. Is secreted by hair cells
Ans: b.

27. Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3. treatment given would be:
A. Intratympanic steroids
B. Oral steroids + vitamin B
C. Oral steroids + Acyclovir
D. Vitamin B + vasodilators
Ans: c.

FORENSIC

28. Heat rupture is characterized by
A. irregular margin
B. Clotted blood
C. regular margin
D. clotted blood vessels
Ans: d.

29. Motorcyclist fracture among the following is
A. ring facture
B. sutural separation
C. comminuted fracture of vault of skull
D. Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
Ans: d.

30. A child brought with suspected ingestion, presented with dry mouth, dilated pupil, difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin, the substance is:
A. Anti-cholinergic
B. Sympathetic
C. Cholinergic
D. Alpha-blocker
Ans: a.

31. Incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in:
A. accidents
B. Suicides
C. Homicides
D. Postmortem artifact
Ans: c.

32. Destructive power of bullet is determined by:
A. weight of bullet
B. shape of bullet
C. Size of bullet
D. velocity of bullet
Ans: d.

GYNAE & OBSTETRICS

33. Causes of primary amenorrhea are all except –
A. Rokitansky syndrome
B. Sheehan syndrome
C. Kollman syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Ans: b.

34. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be –
A. Galactorrhoea
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Loss of menstruation
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans: c.

35. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
A. Phosphatidylesterase
B. Acetyl cholinesterase
C. Pseudocholine esterase
D. Butyrylcholine esterase
Ans: b.

36. A 35 yr old P 3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be –
A. Cryosurgery
B. Conization
C. LEEP
D. Hysterectomy
Ans: c.

37. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non-complaint. Baby was born with hydrocephalous and intracerebral calcification. Which of the these is likely cause?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. CMV
C. Cryptococcus
D. Rubella
Ans: a.

38. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
A. Tranexamic acid
B. Ethamylate
C. Combined OCP
D. Progesterone
Ans: b.

39. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are all except:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Sulphasalazine
C. Methotrexate
D. Hydroxychloroquine
Ans: c.

40. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except –
A. Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins
B. Mentoanterior
C. Extended breech
D. Dichorionic twins with first vertex & second breech
Ans: a.