Can you provide me the previous year question paper of All India PG Medical Entrance - National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Post Graduation (NEET PG)?

The previous year question paper of All India PG Medical Entrance - National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Post Graduation (NEET PG) is as follows:

1. All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except:
1. No creases on sole.
2. Abundant lanugo.
3. Thick ear cartilage.
4. Empty scrotum.

2. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except :
1. Stand alone.
2. Play peek a boo.
3. Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger.
4. Build a tower of 3-4 cubes.

3. The following are characteristic of autism except :
1. Onset after 6 years of age.
2. Repetitive behaviour.
3. Delayed language development.
4. Severe deficit in social interaction.

4. The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6- year-old girl with iron deficiency is:
1. Increased reticulocyte count.
2. Increased hemoglobin.
3. Increased ferritin.
4. Increased serum iron.

5. A 1 month old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows features of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is :
1. Congenital aortic stenosis.
2. Coarctation of aorta.
3. Patent ductus arteriosus.
4. Congenital aortoiliac disease.

6. All of the following statements regarding subendocardinal infarction are true, except
:
1. These are multifocal in nature.
2. These often result from hypotension or shock.
3. Epicarditis is not seen.
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4. These may result in aneurysm.
7. All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse, except :
1. Transmission may be as an Autosomal dominant trait.
2. Majority of the case present with features of mitral regurgitation.
3. The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degeneration.
4. The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan
Syndrome.
8. The following diseases are associated with Epstein – Barr virus infection, except :
1. Infectious mononucleosis.
2. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis.
3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
4. Oral Hairy leukoplakia
9. Megaloblastic anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to :
1. Inadequate dietary intake.
2. Defective intestinal absorption.
3. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum.
4. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine. -
10. The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is :
1. Histological grade of the tumour.
2. Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis.
3. Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors.
4. Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene.
11. Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with :
1. Small cell carcinoma.
2. Respiratory bronchiolitis.
3. Emphysema.
4. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia.
12. The tumour, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following
wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is :
1. Leiomyosarcoma.
2. Squamous cell carcinoma.
3. Basal cell carcinoma.
4. Angiosarcoma.
-
13. The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a
palpable abnormality in the breast is :
1. Apocrine DCIS.
2. Neuroendocrine DCIS.
3. Well differentiated DCIS.
4. Comedo DCIS.
14. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the :
1. Parotid salivary gland.
2. Minor salivary glands.
3. Submandibular salivary gland.
4. Sublingual salivary gland.
15. All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true
except :
1. It generally presents in elderly patients.
2. There is often an association with HHV-8.
3. The proliferating cells are NK cells.
4. Patients are commonly HIV positive. -
16. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except :
1. CD 23.
2. CD 20.
3. CD 5.
4. CD 43.
17. Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing :
1. Tubercular lymphadenitis.
2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid.
3. Plasmacytoma.
4. Aneurymal bone cyst.
18. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplastic
cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except :
1. CD 45 RO.
2. CD 43.
3. Myeloperoxidase.
-
4. Lysozyme.
19. B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic
lymphocytic leukemia in :
1. Presenting at a younger age.
2. Having a lower total leucocyte count.
3. Having prominent lymphadenopathy.
4. Having a shorter survival.
20. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi?
1. The intraocular pressure is increased.
2. Calcification of the lens is common.
3. Sclera is thickened.
4. Size of the globe is reduced.
21. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma?
1. Has a peak incidence in first decade.
2. Arises from oligodendrocytes.
3. Causes meningeal hyperplasia.
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4. Is associated with type I neurofirbromatosis.
22. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition ?
1. Lattice dystrophy.
2. Granular dystrophy.
3. Macular dystrophy.
4. Fleck dystrophy.
23. In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently occurs?
1. Actinic Keratoses.
2. Seborrheic keratoses.
3. Molluscum contagiosum.
4. Basal cell carcinoma.
24. Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of
gastric carcinoma?
1. Paneth cell metaplasia.
2. Pyloric metaplasia.
3. Intestinal metaplasia. -
4. Ciliated metaplasia.
25. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic
portal hypertension?
1. Chronic liver failure.
2. Ascites.
3. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
4. Encephalopathy.
26. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of :
1. Tonic-clonic seizure.
2. Absence seizure.
3. Myoclonic seizure.
4. Simple partial seizure.
27. Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate?
1. It is an intravenous anesthetic.
2. It precipitates coronary insufficiency.
3. It inhibits cortisol synthesis. -
4. It causes pain at site of injection.
28. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
1. Norfloxacin.
2. Streptomycin.
3. Doxycycline.
4. Cefotaxime.
29. Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
1. Cephalexin.
2. Cloxacillin.
3. Piperacillin.
4. Dicloxacillin.
30. The following statements regarding benzodiazephines are true except:
1. Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors.
2. They have active metabolites.
3. Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human being. -
4. Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes.
31. One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect:
1. It is a prodrug.
2. It is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate
dehydrogenase.
3. It also inhibits calcineurin.
4. Selectivity inhibits lymphocyte proliferation.
32. All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except
:
1. Inhibition of ovulation.
2. Prevention of fertilization.
3. Interference with implantation of fertilized ovum.
4. Interference with placental functioning.
33. Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism?
1. Phenytoin.
2. Gabapentin.
-
3. Phenobarbitone.
4. Primidone.
34. Which one of the following drugs causes constipation?
1. Propranolol.
2. Verapamil.
3. Nitroglycerin.
4. Captopril.
35. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle
glaucoma:
1. Latanoprost.
2. Brimonidine.
3. Acetazolamide.
4. Dorzolamide.
36. Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following
antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status?
1. Sodium valproate.
-
2. Phenobarbitone.
3. Carbamazepine.
4. Phenytoin.
37. Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?
1. Phenylpropanolamine.
2. Terfenadine.
3. Quinidine.
4. Fenfluramine.
38. All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except :
1. Bacterial meningitis.
2. Rickettsial Infection.
3. Syphilis.
4. Anthrax.
39. All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, except:
1. Hypokalemia.
2. Hypothermia. -
3. Hypomagnesemia.
4. Hypocalcemia.
40. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?
1. Atracurium.
2. Vecuronium.
3. Rocuronium.
4. Doxacurium.
41. Which enzyme is inhibited by Aminophylline?
1. Monoamine Oxidase.
2. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
3. Phjosphodiesterase.
4. Cytochrome P-450.
42. Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
1. Procaine.
2. Bupivacaine. -
3. Lignocaine.
4. Mepivacaine.
43. The following are the benozodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with liver
disease, except:
1. Lorazepam.
2. Oxazepam,
3. Temazepam.
4. Diazepam.
44. Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catecholamines?
1. Isoflurane
2. Ether.
3. Halothane.
4. Propofol.
45. Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure?
1. Rapacurium
-
2. Pancuronium
3. Atracurium
4. Rocuronium
46. Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of :
1. Estradiol.
2. Luteinizing hormone.
3. Progesterone.
4. Follicle stimulating hormone.
47. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary
visual cortex in :
1. Layer 1.
2. Layer 2 & 3.
3. Layer 4.
4. Layer 5 & 6.
48. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with :
1. Ocular dominance.
-
2. Orientation.
3. Color processing.
4. Saccadic eye movements.
49. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex,
carries signals for the detection of :
1. Movement, depth and flicker.
2. Color vision, shape and fine details.
3. Temporal frequency.
4. Luminance contrast.
50. A pilot in Sukhoi aircraft is experiencing negative G. Which of the following
physiological events will manifest in such situation?
1. The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases.
2. The cardiac output decreases.
3. Black out occurs.
4. The cerebral arterial pressure rises.
51. In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental
temperature is :
-
1. Shivering.
2. Vasoconstriction.
3. Release of thyroxine.
4. Piloerection.
52. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in:
1. Locus coeruleus.
2. Dorsal raphe.
3. Lateral hypothalamic area.
4. Hippocampus.
53. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by:
1. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa.
2. Sensing of Cl+ concentration in macula densa.
3. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa.
4. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole.
54. The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is :
-
1. Medullary hperosmolarity.
2. Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb.
3. Action of ADH via aquaporin channels.
4. Urea recycling.
55. Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis?
1. Kidneys.
2. Skin.
3. Intestines.
4. Lungs.
56. Testosterone production is mainly contributed by:
1. Leydig cells.
2. Sertolie cells.
3. Seminiferous tubules.
4. Epididymis.
57. Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?
-
1. Gastric juice.
2. Pancreatic juice.
3. Bile in gall bladder.
4. Saliva.
58. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon:
1. Integrity of reflex are.
2. Muscle power.
3. Type of muscle fibres.
4. Joint movements in physiological range.
59. The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is :
1. Tympanic reflex.
2. Withdrawal reflex.
3. Neck righting reflex.
4. Labyrinthine reflex..
60. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington’s disease are due to the loss of :
-
1. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system.
2. Intrastriatal cholinergic system.
3. GABA-ergic and choloinergic system.
4. Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system.
61. All of the following are part of the treatment of Lithium toxicity, except:
1. Treating dehydration.
2. Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate.
3. Hemodialysis.
4. Using an antagonist.
62. All are side effects of Clozapine except:
1. Granulocytopenia.
2. Seizures.
3. Sedation.
4. Extrapyramidal side effects
63. Pavlov’s experiment is an example of:
1. Operant conditioning. -
2. Classical conditioning.
3. Learned helplessness.
4. Modelling.
64. Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of :
1. Anorexia Nervosa.
2. Seasonal Affective Disorder.
3. Schizophrenia.
4. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.
65. The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol is :
1. Hypotension.
2. Akathisia.
3. Dryness of mouth.
4. Tic disorder.

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