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July 3rd, 2014, 09:07 AM
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All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers

Will you please give me the All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
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July 4th, 2014, 10:41 AM
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Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers

As you want to get the All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

1. Cystic artery is a branch of
a. Common hepatic
b. Right hepatic
c. Left hepatic
d. Gastroduodenal
e. Left gastric
2. Stomach is supplied by
a. Short gastric artery
b. Left GA
c. Sup pancreaticoduodenal
d. Right G epiploieic
e. Inf pancreatico duodenal
3. regarding pituitary gland
a. sphenoidal air sinus lie inf to it
b. supplied by ICA
c. sept from third ventricle by pars art
d. lies within the sella turcica
e. hangs down from 3rd ventricle
4. true about trachea is
a. lies post to oesophagus
b. cranine reach to T6 in deep respi
c. left bronchus is wide & obtuse than right
d. arch of aorta is anterior to trachea
e. supplied by branch of vagus nerve
5. true about female pelvis A/E
a. acute suprapubic angle
b. wide and shallow true pelvis
c. narrow sacrosciatic notch
d. gracious and lighter bone
6. physiological calcification is seen in
a. choroid plexus
b. pineal gland
c. lens
d. basal ganglion
7. tracts of post column
a. spino rubral
b. tract of gracilis
c. spino cerebellar
d. lat spinothalamic
e. tract of cuniatus
8. BMR in a 40 kg man is
a. 1000 K
b. 1500 K
c. 2000 K
d. 2500 K
e. 3000 K
9. True about BMR
a. starvation decreases BMR by 50%
b. starvation increases BMR
c. independent of hormonal influence
d. independent of energy expenditure
10. All hormones increase after trauma
a. Adrenaline
b. Insulin
d. Glucagon
e. Aldosterone
11. Ca+2 metabolism organs do not take part
a. Skin
b. Lung
c. Spleen
d. GIT
e. Renal
12. thyroxin is carried by
a. globulin
b. pre albumin
c. transferrin
d. ceruloplasmin
e. albumin
13. hyperkalemia is seen in
a. in sec mets to bone
b. m.myeloma
c. hyper parathyroidism (primary)
d. thyrotoxicosis
14. functions of basal ganglion
a. co-ordination of sensory function
b. co-ordination of motor function
c. planning and motor co-ordination
d. short term memory
15. CO2 retention is seen in
a. Mountain climbing
b. CO poisoning
c. Respi failure
d. Lung failure
e. Drowning
16. all are used for separating protein acc to size
a. iron exchange chromatograph
b. high performance chromatograph
c. affinity chromatograph
d. SDS poly ceramide gel electrophoresis
e. Electrophoresis
17. reducing sugar in urine found in
a. fanconis
b. lactose intolerance
c. galactosemia
d. phenylketonuria
e. salicylate poisoning
18. western blot test is
a. for proteins using nitrocellulose
b. for DNA
c. for RNA
19. Gluconeogenic key enzymes are
a. Pyruvate carboxylase
b. Fructose 1,6 biphosphate
c. phosphoglucomutaze
20. phopholipid in cell have following functions except
a. cell-cell recognition
b. signal transduction
c. DNA repair
21. iron containing enzymes
a. peroxidase
b. SOD
c. Glutathione peroxidase
d. Cytochrome
22. gene therapy technic used
a. electrofocussing
b. electrooperation
c. intranuclesr injection
23. Regulation of TCA Cycle is by
a. ATP
b. Acetyl coA
c. CoA
d. Citrate
24. True about genes coding for light & heavy chains
a. ****
b. *****
25. Egg shell calcification seen in
a. Silicosis
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Bronchogenic Carcinoma
26. Palindrome is
a. highly repetitive
b. local symmetry
c. local asymmetry
d. site of action of restriction endonuclease

27. Nephrotic syndrome occurs in
a. gold
b. Amphotericin B
28. Renal vein thrombosis seen in
a. MCP
b. Membranous
c. Amyloid
d. Post streptococcal GN
e. HUS
29. pericarditis is seen in all except
a. amidrione
b. procainamide
c. brytellium
d. methyserzide
e. hydralizine
30. all of the following pigments are seen in hepatocytes except
a. iron
b. bile pigments
c. lipofuschine
d. pseudomelanine
e. malaria pigments
31. von villibrand disease is diagnosed by
a. BT
c. APTT + BT + VIIIc: roc cofactor
d. Prothrombin time
e. CT
32. multiple mycloma shows
a. preformed increase B cell in marrow
b. B cell in settle in pl marrow
33. vegetation of RHD
a. along closure of values
b. calcification of mitral annular ring
c. monoclonal proliferation of B cell in matured state
d. monoclonal proliferation of B cell in early stage
34. AFP- is increased in
a. Ca prostate
b. Ca liver
c. Ca colon
d. Ca lung
e. Germ cell tumor
35. mitochondrial abnormality
a. oncocytomas
b. mitochondrial dystrophies
36. glycogen storage disease are
a. von gerkeis
b. fabrys
c. macarld’s
d. krabbes
37. rib notching is seen in
a. marfans syndrome
b. coarctation of aorta
c. blalock Taussing shunt
d. Aneurysm arch of aorta
38. klinefelter syndrome
a. 47 XXY
b. mental retardation
c. hypogonadism
d. * FSH
39. turner syndrome true is
a. XO
b. Cubitus valgus
c. Subnormal intelligence
d. Streek ovaries
e. Shield chest with ill develop breast
40. gene imprinting is
a. paternal slicing
b. maternal slicing
c. prader villi syndrome
d. angelmans syndrome
41. features of mesothelioma
a. Microvilli
b. Desmosomes
42. True about Bronchiolitis obliterans
a. protinaceous exudates
b. fibrinous exudates
43. Following are true of Sarcoma botyroides
a. c layer seen
b. grape like appearance
c. associated with DES consumption in pregnancy
44. Thrombotic microangiopathy most likely resembles
a. Diabetes
b. Malignant Hypertension
c. Acute Graft rejection
45. cefepine
a. is a IVth generation cephalosporin
b. on O.d dose
c. Pro drug
d. Dose decreases in liver failure
e. Active against pseudomonas
46. b-blocker + CCB causes
a. AV block
b. hypotension
c. Ppt CCF
47. in acute severe asthma which can be given to induce sleep
a. nitrazepam
b. morphine
c. phenobarbitone
d. choral hydrate
e. all hypnotics are safe
48. mefiprestone is
a. also called RU-486
b. it is a non steroid 21 progestone
c. used as inter captive
d. used for menstrual regulation
49. teratogenic drugs are
a. heparin
b. warfarin
c. phenytoin
d. valproate
e. steroids
50. safe in pregnancy
a. Rmy
b. INH
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
e. pyrizinamide
51. K + sparing diuretics
a. Amiloride
b. Spironolactone
c. Triamterene
52. metabolic alkalosis is caused by
a. acetazolomide
b. spironolactone
c. bemetemide
53. NO is
a. Vasoconstrictor
b. Used in pul HTN
c. Sympathomimetics
d. Decreases MAC of desoflurane
54. methicillin resistant staph is treatment by
a. vancomycin
b. ampicillin clavulonic acid
c. cephalosporins
d. ciprofloxacillin
e. naladixic acid
55. Drugs used in attention deficit disorder
a. Imipramine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Amphetamine
56. Drugs effective against S typhi
a. Tetracycline
b. Clotrimazole
c. Ciprofloxacin
57. Drugs causing pigmentation
a. Minocycline
b. Clofazamine
c. R Cin
d. Phenytoin
e. Hydroxyurea
58. young male presents with diarrhoea and pus cells, following causes
a. E.toxigenic coli
b. E.invasive coli
c. Shigella
d. V.cholera
e. El-tor cholera
59. true about anthrax
a. humans are relatively resistant
b. less no of spores sufficient for pulmonary anthrax
c. primarily disease of carnivorous animals
d. mac fadyen reactions is characteristic capsular swelling reactions
60. all are zoonotic except
a. brucellosis
b. leptospirosis
c. anthrax
d. typhoid
e. Q-fever
61. taxonomically this is a bacteria
a. chlymidia
b. rickettsia
c. bacteriophage
d. prion
e. mycoplasma
62. staphylocci found in stools in large number in
a. staph food poisoning
b. TSS
c. Ischiorectal abscess
d. Is a normal phenomenon
e. As a commensal
f. Pseudomembraneous colitis
63. culture of causative organisms from lesion can be done from
a. diptheria from myocarditis
b. meningoccus from skin lesions (pustules)
c. CSF in tetanus
d. Staph from rheumatic valve
64. hydatid cyst is caused by
a. E. granulosus
b. E.multilocularis
c. T.solium
d. T.saginata
65. larva in stool are seen in case of
a. A.duodenale
b. N.Americans
c. Strongyloides
d. Trichuris trichura
66. chlamydia is cultured in
a. Hel 2
b. Hela
c. Me Coy cell
d. kidney
e. human fibroblast
67. di george syndrome shows
a. decreased T cells in paracortial areas of lymp node
b. decreased t cells in red pulp
c. facial dymorphim
68. secretory IgA
a. by epithelial cells
b. by plasma cells
69. Media for TB Bacilli are
a. LJ medium
b. Dorset
70. Pin point pupil is seen in
a. Morphine
b. OP poisoning
c. Dhatura poisoning
71. PM staining disappears on
a. 2-3 days
b. 3-4 days
c. 12-24 hrs
d. merges with putrefaction
72. paraphillia is
a. bisexuallity
b. bestiality
c. fretturism
d. homosexuality
e. sodomascohaism
73. strangulation shows
a. dribbling of saliva
b. froth in the nostril
c. ligature mark
d. bruising and ecchymosis below the ligature mark
e. cyanosis
74. hanging

75. Consumption of tobacco causes
a. buccal cancer
b. lung cancer
c. bladder
d. breast
e. cervix
76. two important test in a patient with polyuriaand polydipsia
of 30 yrs excreting 6 l per day
a. water loading
b. water deprivation
c. urines and plasma osmality
d. skull x ray
77. gullian-barre syndrome
a. proximal motor weakness
b. distal motor weakness
c. involves facial n
78. samtire’s triad
a. B asthma
b. Nasal polyps
c. Broncheictasis
d. Aspirin hypersentitively
79. least diff between systolic BP of both limbs that is abnormal
a. 5mm
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
80. NIDDM fundoscopy is done at
a. At diagnosis
b. 5 yrs after diagnosis
c. 10 yrs after diagnosis
81. huge cardiomegaly is seen in
a. anemia
b. pericardial effusion
c. multiple valvular diseases
d. TOF
e. CCF
82. B asthma diagnosed by
a. Wheeze
b. Dypnoea
c. CXR
d. Reversible airway flow obstruction
83. only chemotherapy is treatment in
a. lymphoma
b. ALL
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. RCC
e. Nephroblastoma
84. barter syndrome seen in
a. hyperkalemia
b. hyporeninemia
c. HTN
d. Hypokalemia
e. Alkalosis
85. In CPR organs systems supported are
a. Heart
b. Respi
c. CNS
d. GIT
e. Renal
86. what occurs in CPR,injuries seen in all except
a. liver rupture
b. stomach rupture
c. DIC
d. Rib#
e. Lung rupture
87. in emphysema
a. lung compliance increased
b. FEV1 normal
c. Increased VC
d. Diffusion capairty decreased
88. severe MR is indicated by
a. atrial fibrillation
b. systemic embolism
c. SV3
d. Loud S1
e. Long murmurs
89. In MI done is
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Alteplase
d. Oral anticoagulants
e. ACE inhibitors
90. parkinsonism is caused by
a. bromocriptine
b. carbidopa
c. haloperidol
d. phenothiazines
91. lepromatous leprosy
a. > 10 lesion
b. bilat symmetrical
c. BI + to ++
d. Loss of eyebows
e. Ear lobules infiltration
92. leprosy
a. palpable nerves
b. hot and moist area involved
93. butyomycosis is caused by
a. staph aureus
b. streptococcus
c. sporotrichosis
d. Pseudomonads
e. Staph epidermidis
94. renal failure is caused by
a. amyloidosis
b. HUS
c. Interstitial nephritis
d. Post step GN
e. ATN
95. IDDM
a. Mostly occurs in children
b. Need insulin to prevent ketoacidosis
c. Predictable inheritance
d. Strong family history
96. celiac sprue patient can be given
a. rice
b. rye
c. soyabeen
d. corn
e. barley
97. splenectomy patient seen in
a. howel jowel bodies
b. eosinophilia
c. megakaryocytosis
d. neutrophilia
e. neutropenia
98. aplastic anemia leads to
a. AML
b. Myelodysplastic syndrome
c. PNH
99. ineffective erythropoiesis is seen in
a. iron def
b. megaloblastic anemia
c. aplastic anemia
d. myelodysplastic syndrome
e. all anemias
100. risk factors for CAD
a. smoking
b. homocystinuria
c. increases HDL
d. female is more prone than mal
101. raynaud’s disease seen in
a. systemic sclerosis
b. mixed connective tissue disease
c. behcet’s syndrome
d. reiters syndrome
102. renal vein thrombosis seen in
a. Membranous glomerulonephritis
b. OC
c. Amyloidosis
d. DIC

103. cyanosis is seen in
a. TOF
b. Eissenmenger’s
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. VSD
e. PDA
f. Coarctation of aorta
104. IQ of 50 child can do
a. Study upto 8
b. Can handle money
c. Obey simple instruction
d. Recognize family members
e. Can look after himself
105. post streptocococal GN
a. follows throat and skin infection
b. antibiotics prevent recurrence
c. lead to chronic renal damage
d. low compliment level
106. hypoglycemia in new born is seen in
a. erythroblastosis foetalis
c. Macrosomia
d. Hypo thyroid
e. Hyperthyroid
107. genralised seizure can be cause by
a. Viral encephalitis
b. Hypo natraemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
e. hypokalemia
108. hypothyroidism in newborn
a. presents as goiter
b. decreased level of T4
c. prolongation of physiological jaundice
d. MC in patient from endemic region
e. Can be diagnosed by TSH
109. maintained body proportion with decreased bone maturity
a. hypothyroidism
b. malnutrition
c. achondroplasia
d. Mariques
110. 8 week old child can do
a. turn head 180 deg to bright light
b. social smile
c. hold head in vertical suspension
111. periphery of retina is seen in
a. direct opthalmoscopy
b. in direct opthalmoscopy
c. + 90 diopter lens
d. gold man’s lens
e. ruby lens
112. cornea epithelium is
a. str squamous keratinized
b. pseudo stratified
c. columnar
d. transitional
e. str-sq non keratinized
113. Advantage of posterior capsule preservation in ECCE
a. cystoid macular odema
b. endoopthalmitis
c. endothelial damage
d. retinal detachment
114. photoopthalmia done is
a. saline irrigation
b. steroids eye drops
c. reassurance
d. eye patching
115. cataract is caused by all except
a. UV waves
b. Infrared
c. Microwave radiation
d. Ionizing radiation
e. MRI
116. staphylococcal blephritis causes all except
a. vernal keratoconjunctivitis
b. phlyctenular conjunctivitis
c. marginal corneal ulcer
d. follicular conjunctivitis
e. predisposes to basal cell Ca
117. chalazion is a
a. true retension cyst
b. staphylococcal infection
118. fovea true is
a. lowest light threshold
b. highest no of cones
c. max no of rods
d. present over optic head
e. max visual acquity
119. true about dendritic ulcer is
a. caused by HSV
b. steroid decreases the severity
c. oral acyclovir is effective
d. topical acyclovir is effective
e. heals spontaneously
120. to reduce infection after cataract surgery best method is
a. intra op antibiotic
b. pre Op topical antibiotic
c. sub corneal inj of antibiotic
d. post op systemic antibiotic
121. LMA-laryngeal mask airway
a. Is used in short neck
b. For short surgical procedure
c. Prevent gastric aspiration
d. Where intubation is CI
e. Difficult airways
122. headache of dural puncture
a. prevented by small bore needle
b. blood patch is treatment of choice at initial stage
c. early ambulation increases headache
d. common in old age
123. anesthetic with less analgesia
a. thiopentone
b. ketamine
c. NO
d. Propofol
e. Methohexitone
124. CPR drugs used
a. Xylocaine
b. Adr
c. O2
d. Magnesium
e. noradrenaline
125. fungal sinusitis
a. x ray shows hazy opacity
b. amp-B is given iv
c. surgical removal of fungus
d. a niger is most common cause
e. aspergillus niger is MC
126. recurrent laryngeal has an abberent course
a. in carotid sheath
b. posterior to inferior thyroid A
c. anterior to inferior thyroid art
d. between the branches of inferior thyroid
e. passes through sternocleidomastoid
127. nasophayngeal Ca
a. MC is adeno ca
b. Arises in fossa of rosenmullar
c. RT is treatment of choice
d. EBV virus is causative
e. Secretory otitis media is a present in adults
128. pre cancerous lesion of larynx are
a. hyperplastic laryngitis
b. lichen planus
c. leucoplakia
d. papilloma vocal cords
129. DNS treatment is done in case of
a. Severe DNS
b. Severe sinusitis
c. With bony spur
d. Severe rhinorrhea
e. Recurrent epistaxis
130. structure seen in indirect laryngoscopy
a. pyriformis fossa
b. arylenoid cartilage
c. lingual surface of epiglottis
131. recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies
a. cricothyroid
b. omohyoid
c. vocalis
d. post arrytenoid
e. Stylopharyngeus
132. True about syphilis congenital from present as snuffles
a. involves cartilagenous part
b. presentation of sec syphilis
c. collapse of nasal bridge
133. radium emits
a. n-rays
b. b-rays
c. a-rays
d. c-rays

134. all are live vaccine
a. measles
b. BCG
c. polio
d. rabies
e. pertussis
135. AIDS defining condition
a. Western blot +
b. CD4 /CD5 ratio 1
c. CD4 <500
d. CD4 <200
e. Opportunistic infection with TB , P.carini
136. Diarrhoea in AIDS is caused by
a. Isospora belli
b. Microsporidium
c. Cryptococcus
d. Giardia
e. Cryptosporidium
137. AIDS WHO defining conditions
a. diarrhoea fever weight loss
b. generalized lymphadenopathy
c. opportunistic infn with TB , P. carini
138. central tendencies
a. median
b. mean
c. mode
d. std deviation
e. range
139. blood transfusion transmits
a. hep A
b. hep B+C
c. CMV
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Syphilis
140. chicken pox true is
a. infective periodic is 2 weeks
b. prevented by giving immuno globulins
c. pleomorphic rash
d. adult chicken pox is less severe
141. WHO ORS true is
a. 4.5 gm NaCl
b. 3.5 gm NaCl
c. 1.5 gm KCl
d. 2.9 g in Na citrate
142. cholera is diagnosed by
a. watery stool
b. many cases from same locality
c. dysentry
d. abdominal pain
e. fever
143. rights of children are protected by article
a. 24
b. 28
c. 48
d. 42
144. Schiller Dural inclusion bodies seen in
a. Brumer’s tumor
b. yolk salk tumor
c. choricarcinoma
d. granulosa cell tumor
145. insulin resistance is increase in pregnancy in presence of
a. HPL
b. Oestrogen
c. Progesterone
146. progesterone withdrawal bleeding indicates
a. adequate progesterone
b. adequate estrogen
c. ovarian failure
d. intact endometrium
147. factors initiating lactation
a. oxytocin
b. polactin
c. FSH
d. LH
148. all are used for treatment of DUB
a. danazol
c. Oestrogen
d. Progesterone
e. Mifeperistone
149. hydatiform mole true is
a. more common in develop country
b. complete is seen in 46 XX
c. maternal in origin
d. associated with theca luteal cyst
150. OCP causes
a. Ca breast
b. Ca hepatic adenoma
c. Ca Cx
151. PCOD all are seen
a. Hirsutism
b. Insulin resistance
c. Streak ovaries
d. Increased FSH
152. polyhydroamnios are caused by
a. renal agenesis
b. oesophageal atresia
c. maternal diabetes
d. preeclampsia
e. hydrops
153. hydrocephalus seen
a. breech presentation
b. diabetic mothers
c. spinabifida
154. Ca breast is predisposed by
a. Family history
b. OCP
c. Multiparity
d. Nulliparty
e. First pregnancy at 30 yrs
155. Ca Cx is predisposing factor
a. Family history
b. Caused by HPV
c. OCP predisposes
d. Multiparity
e. Nulliparity
156. pre eclampsia seen in
a. HTN
b. Proteinuria
c. Convulsions
d. Pedal odema
157. antiphospholipid syndrome seen in
a. recurrent arterial thrombosis
b. recurrent abortion
c. rec IUD
d. thrombocytopenia
158. causes of DUB s
a. irregular ripening
b. irregular shedding
c. ca endometrium
d. granulosa cell tumour
159. manning scoring include
a. breathing 3 episodes in30 mts
b. feotal movement
c. fetal tone
160. breast conserving surgery CI in all except
a. poor socioeconomic
b. age > 40
c. multicentric disease
d. axillary LN involvement
161. gas under both sides of diaph seen in
a. peptic perforation
b. appendix perforation
c. meckel’s perforation
d. uterine perforation
e. amoebic lives abscess
162. sphincter saving operation in Ca rectum is CI in all except
a. age > 50
b. < 4 cm from anal verge
c. high grade tumor
163. 30 yr old hypotensive patient comes in shock USG shows splenic tear treatment Mn
a. iv fluids and blood
b. adv CECT
c. laprotomy and splenectomy
d. observation
e. diagnostic peritoneal lavage
164. fq .of USG (diagnostic )
a. 1-20 hz
b. 20-30 hz
c. 30-40 hz
d. 40-50 hz
165. reflux esophagitis is prevented by
a. long abd esophagus
b. increased abd pressure
c. increased thoracic pressure
d. right crux of diaphragm
e. left crux of diaphragm
166. x-ray lat decubitus is indicated in
a. dependent hydrothorax
b. pneumothorax
c. middle lobe pnemonitis
d. pleural effusion
167. gonococcal arthritis
a. females more severe than men
b. single dose of ciplox is treatment of choice
c. commonly leads to arthritis
168. trendlenberg’s operation is
a. stripping of long saphenous vein
b. ligation of sapheno femoral perforation
c. flush ligation of sapheno femoral junction
d. proximal 5 cm stripping of sap vein
169. varicose surgical treatment is indicated if
a. involves superficial system
b. if size > 3mm
c. if size < 3m
d. if ass with DVT
e. is not ass with DVT
170. Schuller Duval inclusion bodies found in
a. Bremer’s
b. yolk salk tumor
c. granulosa cell tumor
d. choriocarcinoma
171. long standing gastric outlet obstruction causes
a. hypokalemia
b. hyponatremia
c. hypochloremia
d. metabolic acidosis
172. burger’s disease involves A/E
a. small sized arteries
b. median sized veins
c. median sized arteries
d. small sized veins
e. large sized arteries
173. for diagnosis of intestinal obstruction
a. x-ray supine abd
b. CXR
c. X-ray Abd erect
d. Barium study
e. CT scan
174. perforated peptic ulcer treatment includes
a. iv fluids +
b. drainage of paracolic gutters
c. immediate surgery
d. antacid
e. iv pentocid
175. immediate surgery is indicated in
a. DU perforation
b. Post op adhesions
c. Volvulus of sigmoid
d. Paralytic ileus
176. in traumatic transection of ent femoral A and vein
a. repair of A & vein
b. repair of A & ligation of vein
c. repair of A & contralateral sympathectomy
d. amputation below knee
177. premalignant lesions are
a. ulcerative colitis
b. crohns
c. TB
178. ulcerative colitis involves
a. circular muscles
b. longitudinal muscles
c. mucosa
d. submucosa
e. serosa
179. in ulcerative colitis malignancy is mostly likely in
a. child hood onset
b. present of crypt abscess with cell abnormal cytology
c. length of involvment
180. rigid esophagoscopy is C/I in
a. aneurysm
b. lung abscess
c. cervical spine damage
d. ca esophagus
181. CBD stone is managed by
b. Stenting with T tube
c. Direct surgical incision
182. complication of gall stones
a. pancreatitis
b. ca stomach
c. cholecystitis
183. charcot’s triad
a. fever
b. pruritis
c. jaundice
d. pain
184. in strangulated inguinal hernia investigation done is all except
a. USG serotum
b. Needle biopsy
c. X-ray abd
185. which is premalignant
a. FAP
b. Villous adenoma
c. Hyperplastic polyp
186. acalculous cholecystitis is seen in
a. crohn’s disease
b. diabetes mellitus
187. medulary Ca of thyroid
a. secrete calcitonin
b. familial
c. amyloid strauma
d. hormone dependent
188. which of the following arise in epiphysis
a. ewings
b. osteosarcoma
c. giant cell tumor
d. chondroblastoma
e. osteoblastoma
189. true about osteochondromatosis
a. autosomal dominant
b. also known as multiple endostosis
c. occur in diaphysis
d. involves long bones & skull
190. paraosteal osteosarcoma
a. x-ray diagnostic
b. rarely invades medullary cavity
191. stance muscles
a. quadriceps
b. hamstring
c. anterior tibial
d. peroneus longus
e. gastrocnermins
192. bow leg is due to
a. bowing of tibia
b. both tibias & femur
c. mild degree in children needs no treatment
193. Osgood sheller syndrome osteochondritis of
a. Upper tibia
b. Lower tibia
c. Femur
d. Patella

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