#1
July 3rd, 2014, 09:07 AM
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All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers
Will you please give me the All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
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#2
July 4th, 2014, 10:41 AM
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Re: All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers
As you want to get the All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam past year question papers so here is the information of the same for you: 1. Cystic artery is a branch of a. Common hepatic b. Right hepatic c. Left hepatic d. Gastroduodenal e. Left gastric 2. Stomach is supplied by a. Short gastric artery b. Left GA c. Sup pancreaticoduodenal d. Right G epiploieic e. Inf pancreatico duodenal 3. regarding pituitary gland a. sphenoidal air sinus lie inf to it b. supplied by ICA c. sept from third ventricle by pars art d. lies within the sella turcica e. hangs down from 3rd ventricle 4. true about trachea is a. lies post to oesophagus b. cranine reach to T6 in deep respi c. left bronchus is wide & obtuse than right d. arch of aorta is anterior to trachea e. supplied by branch of vagus nerve 5. true about female pelvis A/E a. acute suprapubic angle b. wide and shallow true pelvis c. narrow sacrosciatic notch d. gracious and lighter bone 6. physiological calcification is seen in a. choroid plexus b. pineal gland c. lens d. basal ganglion 7. tracts of post column a. spino rubral b. tract of gracilis c. spino cerebellar d. lat spinothalamic e. tract of cuniatus Physiology 8. BMR in a 40 kg man is a. 1000 K b. 1500 K c. 2000 K d. 2500 K e. 3000 K 9. True about BMR a. starvation decreases BMR by 50% b. starvation increases BMR c. independent of hormonal influence d. independent of energy expenditure 10. All hormones increase after trauma a. Adrenaline b. Insulin c. ACTH d. Glucagon e. Aldosterone 11. Ca+2 metabolism organs do not take part a. Skin b. Lung c. Spleen d. GIT e. Renal 12. thyroxin is carried by a. globulin b. pre albumin c. transferrin d. ceruloplasmin e. albumin 13. hyperkalemia is seen in a. in sec mets to bone b. m.myeloma c. hyper parathyroidism (primary) d. thyrotoxicosis 14. functions of basal ganglion a. co-ordination of sensory function b. co-ordination of motor function c. planning and motor co-ordination d. short term memory 15. CO2 retention is seen in a. Mountain climbing b. CO poisoning c. Respi failure d. Lung failure e. Drowning Biochemistry 16. all are used for separating protein acc to size a. iron exchange chromatograph b. high performance chromatograph c. affinity chromatograph d. SDS poly ceramide gel electrophoresis e. Electrophoresis 17. reducing sugar in urine found in a. fanconis b. lactose intolerance c. galactosemia d. phenylketonuria e. salicylate poisoning 18. western blot test is a. for proteins using nitrocellulose b. for DNA c. for RNA d. 19. Gluconeogenic key enzymes are a. Pyruvate carboxylase b. Fructose 1,6 biphosphate c. phosphoglucomutaze 20. phopholipid in cell have following functions except a. cell-cell recognition b. signal transduction c. DNA repair 21. iron containing enzymes a. peroxidase b. SOD c. Glutathione peroxidase d. Cytochrome 22. gene therapy technic used a. electrofocussing b. electrooperation c. intranuclesr injection 23. Regulation of TCA Cycle is by a. ATP b. Acetyl coA c. CoA d. Citrate e. NADH 24. True about genes coding for light & heavy chains a. **** b. ***** 25. Egg shell calcification seen in a. Silicosis b. Sarcoidosis c. Bronchogenic Carcinoma 26. Palindrome is a. highly repetitive b. local symmetry c. local asymmetry d. site of action of restriction endonuclease Pathology 27. Nephrotic syndrome occurs in a. gold b. Amphotericin B 28. Renal vein thrombosis seen in a. MCP b. Membranous c. Amyloid d. Post streptococcal GN e. HUS 29. pericarditis is seen in all except a. amidrione b. procainamide c. brytellium d. methyserzide e. hydralizine 30. all of the following pigments are seen in hepatocytes except a. iron b. bile pigments c. lipofuschine d. pseudomelanine e. malaria pigments 31. von villibrand disease is diagnosed by a. BT b. APTT c. APTT + BT + VIIIc: roc cofactor d. Prothrombin time e. CT 32. multiple mycloma shows a. preformed increase B cell in marrow b. B cell in settle in pl marrow 33. vegetation of RHD a. along closure of values b. calcification of mitral annular ring c. monoclonal proliferation of B cell in matured state d. monoclonal proliferation of B cell in early stage 34. AFP- is increased in a. Ca prostate b. Ca liver c. Ca colon d. Ca lung e. Germ cell tumor 35. mitochondrial abnormality a. oncocytomas b. mitochondrial dystrophies 36. glycogen storage disease are a. von gerkeis b. fabrys c. macarld’s d. krabbes 37. rib notching is seen in a. marfans syndrome b. coarctation of aorta c. blalock Taussing shunt d. Aneurysm arch of aorta 38. klinefelter syndrome a. 47 XXY b. mental retardation c. hypogonadism d. * FSH 39. turner syndrome true is a. XO b. Cubitus valgus c. Subnormal intelligence d. Streek ovaries e. Shield chest with ill develop breast 40. gene imprinting is a. paternal slicing b. maternal slicing c. prader villi syndrome d. angelmans syndrome 41. features of mesothelioma a. Microvilli b. Desmosomes 42. True about Bronchiolitis obliterans a. protinaceous exudates b. fibrinous exudates 43. Following are true of Sarcoma botyroides a. c layer seen b. grape like appearance c. associated with DES consumption in pregnancy 44. Thrombotic microangiopathy most likely resembles a. Diabetes b. Malignant Hypertension c. Acute Graft rejection Pharmacology 45. cefepine a. is a IVth generation cephalosporin b. on O.d dose c. Pro drug d. Dose decreases in liver failure e. Active against pseudomonas 46. b-blocker + CCB causes a. AV block b. hypotension c. Ppt CCF 47. in acute severe asthma which can be given to induce sleep a. nitrazepam b. morphine c. phenobarbitone d. choral hydrate e. all hypnotics are safe 48. mefiprestone is a. also called RU-486 b. it is a non steroid 21 progestone c. used as inter captive d. used for menstrual regulation 49. teratogenic drugs are a. heparin b. warfarin c. phenytoin d. valproate e. steroids 50. safe in pregnancy a. Rmy b. INH c. Ethambutol d. Streptomycin e. pyrizinamide 51. K + sparing diuretics a. Amiloride b. Spironolactone c. Triamterene 52. metabolic alkalosis is caused by a. acetazolomide b. spironolactone c. bemetemide 53. NO is a. Vasoconstrictor b. Used in pul HTN c. Sympathomimetics d. Decreases MAC of desoflurane 54. methicillin resistant staph is treatment by a. vancomycin b. ampicillin clavulonic acid c. cephalosporins d. ciprofloxacillin e. naladixic acid 55. Drugs used in attention deficit disorder a. Imipramine b. Methylphenidate c. Amphetamine 56. Drugs effective against S typhi a. Tetracycline b. Clotrimazole c. Ciprofloxacin 57. Drugs causing pigmentation a. Minocycline b. Clofazamine c. R Cin d. Phenytoin e. Hydroxyurea Microbiology 58. young male presents with diarrhoea and pus cells, following causes a. E.toxigenic coli b. E.invasive coli c. Shigella d. V.cholera e. El-tor cholera 59. true about anthrax a. humans are relatively resistant b. less no of spores sufficient for pulmonary anthrax c. primarily disease of carnivorous animals d. mac fadyen reactions is characteristic capsular swelling reactions 60. all are zoonotic except a. brucellosis b. leptospirosis c. anthrax d. typhoid e. Q-fever 61. taxonomically this is a bacteria a. chlymidia b. rickettsia c. bacteriophage d. prion e. mycoplasma 62. staphylocci found in stools in large number in a. staph food poisoning b. TSS c. Ischiorectal abscess d. Is a normal phenomenon e. As a commensal f. Pseudomembraneous colitis 63. culture of causative organisms from lesion can be done from a. diptheria from myocarditis b. meningoccus from skin lesions (pustules) c. CSF in tetanus d. Staph from rheumatic valve 64. hydatid cyst is caused by a. E. granulosus b. E.multilocularis c. T.solium d. T.saginata 65. larva in stool are seen in case of a. A.duodenale b. N.Americans c. Strongyloides d. Trichuris trichura 66. chlamydia is cultured in a. Hel 2 b. Hela c. Me Coy cell d. kidney e. human fibroblast 67. di george syndrome shows a. decreased T cells in paracortial areas of lymp node b. decreased t cells in red pulp c. facial dymorphim 68. secretory IgA a. by epithelial cells b. by plasma cells 69. Media for TB Bacilli are a. LJ medium b. Dorset Forensic 70. Pin point pupil is seen in a. Morphine b. OP poisoning c. Dhatura poisoning 71. PM staining disappears on a. 2-3 days b. 3-4 days c. 12-24 hrs d. merges with putrefaction 72. paraphillia is a. bisexuallity b. bestiality c. fretturism d. homosexuality e. sodomascohaism 73. strangulation shows a. dribbling of saliva b. froth in the nostril c. ligature mark d. bruising and ecchymosis below the ligature mark e. cyanosis 74. hanging Medicine 75. Consumption of tobacco causes a. buccal cancer b. lung cancer c. bladder d. breast e. cervix 76. two important test in a patient with polyuriaand polydipsia of 30 yrs excreting 6 l per day a. water loading b. water deprivation c. urines and plasma osmality d. skull x ray 77. gullian-barre syndrome a. proximal motor weakness b. distal motor weakness c. involves facial n 78. samtire’s triad a. B asthma b. Nasal polyps c. Broncheictasis d. Aspirin hypersentitively 79. least diff between systolic BP of both limbs that is abnormal a. 5mm b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 80. NIDDM fundoscopy is done at a. At diagnosis b. 5 yrs after diagnosis c. 10 yrs after diagnosis 81. huge cardiomegaly is seen in a. anemia b. pericardial effusion c. multiple valvular diseases d. TOF e. CCF 82. B asthma diagnosed by a. Wheeze b. Dypnoea c. CXR d. Reversible airway flow obstruction 83. only chemotherapy is treatment in a. lymphoma b. ALL c. Choriocarcinoma d. RCC e. Nephroblastoma 84. barter syndrome seen in a. hyperkalemia b. hyporeninemia c. HTN d. Hypokalemia e. Alkalosis 85. In CPR organs systems supported are a. Heart b. Respi c. CNS d. GIT e. Renal 86. what occurs in CPR,injuries seen in all except a. liver rupture b. stomach rupture c. DIC d. Rib# e. Lung rupture 87. in emphysema a. lung compliance increased b. FEV1 normal c. Increased VC d. Diffusion capairty decreased 88. severe MR is indicated by a. atrial fibrillation b. systemic embolism c. SV3 d. Loud S1 e. Long murmurs 89. In MI done is a. Aspirin b. Heparin c. Alteplase d. Oral anticoagulants e. ACE inhibitors 90. parkinsonism is caused by a. bromocriptine b. carbidopa c. haloperidol d. phenothiazines 91. lepromatous leprosy a. > 10 lesion b. bilat symmetrical c. BI + to ++ d. Loss of eyebows e. Ear lobules infiltration 92. leprosy a. palpable nerves b. hot and moist area involved 93. butyomycosis is caused by a. staph aureus b. streptococcus c. sporotrichosis d. Pseudomonads e. Staph epidermidis 94. renal failure is caused by a. amyloidosis b. HUS c. Interstitial nephritis d. Post step GN e. ATN 95. IDDM a. Mostly occurs in children b. Need insulin to prevent ketoacidosis c. Predictable inheritance d. Strong family history 96. celiac sprue patient can be given a. rice b. rye c. soyabeen d. corn e. barley 97. splenectomy patient seen in a. howel jowel bodies b. eosinophilia c. megakaryocytosis d. neutrophilia e. neutropenia 98. aplastic anemia leads to a. AML b. Myelodysplastic syndrome c. PNH 99. ineffective erythropoiesis is seen in a. iron def b. megaloblastic anemia c. aplastic anemia d. myelodysplastic syndrome e. all anemias 100. risk factors for CAD a. smoking b. homocystinuria c. increases HDL d. female is more prone than mal 101. raynaud’s disease seen in a. systemic sclerosis b. mixed connective tissue disease c. behcet’s syndrome d. reiters syndrome 102. renal vein thrombosis seen in a. Membranous glomerulonephritis b. OC c. Amyloidosis d. DIC Paediatrics 103. cyanosis is seen in a. TOF b. Eissenmenger’s c. Tricuspid atresia d. VSD e. PDA f. Coarctation of aorta 104. IQ of 50 child can do a. Study upto 8 b. Can handle money c. Obey simple instruction d. Recognize family members e. Can look after himself 105. post streptocococal GN a. follows throat and skin infection b. antibiotics prevent recurrence c. lead to chronic renal damage d. low compliment level 106. hypoglycemia in new born is seen in a. erythroblastosis foetalis b. IUGR c. Macrosomia d. Hypo thyroid e. Hyperthyroid 107. genralised seizure can be cause by a. Viral encephalitis b. Hypo natraemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis e. hypokalemia 108. hypothyroidism in newborn a. presents as goiter b. decreased level of T4 c. prolongation of physiological jaundice d. MC in patient from endemic region e. Can be diagnosed by TSH 109. maintained body proportion with decreased bone maturity a. hypothyroidism b. malnutrition c. achondroplasia d. Mariques 110. 8 week old child can do a. turn head 180 deg to bright light b. social smile c. hold head in vertical suspension Ophthalmology 111. periphery of retina is seen in a. direct opthalmoscopy b. in direct opthalmoscopy c. + 90 diopter lens d. gold man’s lens e. ruby lens 112. cornea epithelium is a. str squamous keratinized b. pseudo stratified c. columnar d. transitional e. str-sq non keratinized 113. Advantage of posterior capsule preservation in ECCE a. cystoid macular odema b. endoopthalmitis c. endothelial damage d. retinal detachment 114. photoopthalmia done is a. saline irrigation b. steroids eye drops c. reassurance d. eye patching 115. cataract is caused by all except a. UV waves b. Infrared c. Microwave radiation d. Ionizing radiation e. MRI 116. staphylococcal blephritis causes all except a. vernal keratoconjunctivitis b. phlyctenular conjunctivitis c. marginal corneal ulcer d. follicular conjunctivitis e. predisposes to basal cell Ca 117. chalazion is a a. true retension cyst b. staphylococcal infection 118. fovea true is a. lowest light threshold b. highest no of cones c. max no of rods d. present over optic head e. max visual acquity 119. true about dendritic ulcer is a. caused by HSV b. steroid decreases the severity c. oral acyclovir is effective d. topical acyclovir is effective e. heals spontaneously 120. to reduce infection after cataract surgery best method is a. intra op antibiotic b. pre Op topical antibiotic c. sub corneal inj of antibiotic d. post op systemic antibiotic Anesthesia 121. LMA-laryngeal mask airway a. Is used in short neck b. For short surgical procedure c. Prevent gastric aspiration d. Where intubation is CI e. Difficult airways 122. headache of dural puncture a. prevented by small bore needle b. blood patch is treatment of choice at initial stage c. early ambulation increases headache d. common in old age 123. anesthetic with less analgesia a. thiopentone b. ketamine c. NO d. Propofol e. Methohexitone 124. CPR drugs used a. Xylocaine b. Adr c. O2 d. Magnesium e. noradrenaline ENT 125. fungal sinusitis a. x ray shows hazy opacity b. amp-B is given iv c. surgical removal of fungus d. a niger is most common cause e. aspergillus niger is MC 126. recurrent laryngeal has an abberent course a. in carotid sheath b. posterior to inferior thyroid A c. anterior to inferior thyroid art d. between the branches of inferior thyroid e. passes through sternocleidomastoid 127. nasophayngeal Ca a. MC is adeno ca b. Arises in fossa of rosenmullar c. RT is treatment of choice d. EBV virus is causative e. Secretory otitis media is a present in adults 128. pre cancerous lesion of larynx are a. hyperplastic laryngitis b. lichen planus c. leucoplakia d. papilloma vocal cords 129. DNS treatment is done in case of a. Severe DNS b. Severe sinusitis c. With bony spur d. Severe rhinorrhea e. Recurrent epistaxis 130. structure seen in indirect laryngoscopy a. pyriformis fossa b. arylenoid cartilage c. lingual surface of epiglottis 131. recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies a. cricothyroid b. omohyoid c. vocalis d. post arrytenoid e. Stylopharyngeus 132. True about syphilis congenital from present as snuffles a. involves cartilagenous part b. presentation of sec syphilis c. collapse of nasal bridge Radiology 133. radium emits a. n-rays b. b-rays c. a-rays d. c-rays SPM 134. all are live vaccine a. measles b. BCG c. polio d. rabies e. pertussis 135. AIDS defining condition a. Western blot + b. CD4 /CD5 ratio 1 c. CD4 <500 d. CD4 <200 e. Opportunistic infection with TB , P.carini 136. Diarrhoea in AIDS is caused by a. Isospora belli b. Microsporidium c. Cryptococcus d. Giardia e. Cryptosporidium 137. AIDS WHO defining conditions a. diarrhoea fever weight loss b. generalized lymphadenopathy c. opportunistic infn with TB , P. carini 138. central tendencies a. median b. mean c. mode d. std deviation e. range 139. blood transfusion transmits a. hep A b. hep B+C c. CMV d. Toxoplasmosis e. Syphilis 140. chicken pox true is a. infective periodic is 2 weeks b. prevented by giving immuno globulins c. pleomorphic rash d. adult chicken pox is less severe 141. WHO ORS true is a. 4.5 gm NaCl b. 3.5 gm NaCl c. 1.5 gm KCl d. 2.9 g in Na citrate 142. cholera is diagnosed by a. watery stool b. many cases from same locality c. dysentry d. abdominal pain e. fever 143. rights of children are protected by article a. 24 b. 28 c. 48 d. 42 OBG 144. Schiller Dural inclusion bodies seen in a. Brumer’s tumor b. yolk salk tumor c. choricarcinoma d. granulosa cell tumor 145. insulin resistance is increase in pregnancy in presence of a. HPL b. Oestrogen c. Progesterone 146. progesterone withdrawal bleeding indicates a. adequate progesterone b. adequate estrogen c. ovarian failure d. intact endometrium 147. factors initiating lactation a. oxytocin b. polactin c. FSH d. LH 148. all are used for treatment of DUB a. danazol b. GNRH c. Oestrogen d. Progesterone e. Mifeperistone 149. hydatiform mole true is a. more common in develop country b. complete is seen in 46 XX c. maternal in origin d. associated with theca luteal cyst 150. OCP causes a. Ca breast b. Ca hepatic adenoma c. Ca Cx 151. PCOD all are seen a. Hirsutism b. Insulin resistance c. Streak ovaries d. Increased FSH 152. polyhydroamnios are caused by a. renal agenesis b. oesophageal atresia c. maternal diabetes d. preeclampsia e. hydrops 153. hydrocephalus seen a. breech presentation b. diabetic mothers c. spinabifida 154. Ca breast is predisposed by a. Family history b. OCP c. Multiparity d. Nulliparty e. First pregnancy at 30 yrs 155. Ca Cx is predisposing factor a. Family history b. Caused by HPV c. OCP predisposes d. Multiparity e. Nulliparity 156. pre eclampsia seen in a. HTN b. Proteinuria c. Convulsions d. Pedal odema 157. antiphospholipid syndrome seen in a. recurrent arterial thrombosis b. recurrent abortion c. rec IUD d. thrombocytopenia 158. causes of DUB s a. irregular ripening b. irregular shedding c. ca endometrium d. granulosa cell tumour 159. manning scoring include a. breathing 3 episodes in30 mts b. feotal movement c. fetal tone Surgery 160. breast conserving surgery CI in all except a. poor socioeconomic b. age > 40 c. multicentric disease d. axillary LN involvement 161. gas under both sides of diaph seen in a. peptic perforation b. appendix perforation c. meckel’s perforation d. uterine perforation e. amoebic lives abscess 162. sphincter saving operation in Ca rectum is CI in all except a. age > 50 b. < 4 cm from anal verge c. high grade tumor 163. 30 yr old hypotensive patient comes in shock USG shows splenic tear treatment Mn a. iv fluids and blood b. adv CECT c. laprotomy and splenectomy d. observation e. diagnostic peritoneal lavage 164. fq .of USG (diagnostic ) a. 1-20 hz b. 20-30 hz c. 30-40 hz d. 40-50 hz 165. reflux esophagitis is prevented by a. long abd esophagus b. increased abd pressure c. increased thoracic pressure d. right crux of diaphragm e. left crux of diaphragm 166. x-ray lat decubitus is indicated in a. dependent hydrothorax b. pneumothorax c. middle lobe pnemonitis d. pleural effusion 167. gonococcal arthritis a. females more severe than men b. single dose of ciplox is treatment of choice c. commonly leads to arthritis 168. trendlenberg’s operation is a. stripping of long saphenous vein b. ligation of sapheno femoral perforation c. flush ligation of sapheno femoral junction d. proximal 5 cm stripping of sap vein 169. varicose surgical treatment is indicated if a. involves superficial system b. if size > 3mm c. if size < 3m d. if ass with DVT e. is not ass with DVT 170. Schuller Duval inclusion bodies found in a. Bremer’s b. yolk salk tumor c. granulosa cell tumor d. choriocarcinoma 171. long standing gastric outlet obstruction causes a. hypokalemia b. hyponatremia c. hypochloremia d. metabolic acidosis 172. burger’s disease involves A/E a. small sized arteries b. median sized veins c. median sized arteries d. small sized veins e. large sized arteries 173. for diagnosis of intestinal obstruction a. x-ray supine abd b. CXR c. X-ray Abd erect d. Barium study e. CT scan 174. perforated peptic ulcer treatment includes a. iv fluids + b. drainage of paracolic gutters c. immediate surgery d. antacid e. iv pentocid 175. immediate surgery is indicated in a. DU perforation b. Post op adhesions c. Volvulus of sigmoid d. Paralytic ileus 176. in traumatic transection of ent femoral A and vein a. repair of A & vein b. repair of A & ligation of vein c. repair of A & contralateral sympathectomy d. amputation below knee 177. premalignant lesions are a. ulcerative colitis b. crohns c. TB 178. ulcerative colitis involves a. circular muscles b. longitudinal muscles c. mucosa d. submucosa e. serosa 179. in ulcerative colitis malignancy is mostly likely in a. child hood onset b. present of crypt abscess with cell abnormal cytology c. length of involvment 180. rigid esophagoscopy is C/I in a. aneurysm b. lung abscess c. cervical spine damage d. ca esophagus 181. CBD stone is managed by a. ERCP b. Stenting with T tube c. Direct surgical incision 182. complication of gall stones a. pancreatitis b. ca stomach c. cholecystitis 183. charcot’s triad a. fever b. pruritis c. jaundice d. pain 184. in strangulated inguinal hernia investigation done is all except a. USG serotum b. Needle biopsy c. X-ray abd 185. which is premalignant a. FAP b. Villous adenoma c. Hyperplastic polyp 186. acalculous cholecystitis is seen in a. crohn’s disease b. diabetes mellitus 187. medulary Ca of thyroid a. secrete calcitonin b. familial c. amyloid strauma d. hormone dependent Ortho 188. which of the following arise in epiphysis a. ewings b. osteosarcoma c. giant cell tumor d. chondroblastoma e. osteoblastoma 189. true about osteochondromatosis a. autosomal dominant b. also known as multiple endostosis c. occur in diaphysis d. involves long bones & skull 190. paraosteal osteosarcoma a. x-ray diagnostic b. rarely invades medullary cavity 191. stance muscles a. quadriceps b. hamstring c. anterior tibial d. peroneus longus e. gastrocnermins 192. bow leg is due to a. bowing of tibia b. both tibias & femur c. mild degree in children needs no treatment 193. Osgood sheller syndrome osteochondritis of a. Upper tibia b. Lower tibia c. Femur d. Patella |
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