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July 2nd, 2014, 10:23 AM
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All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination past year question papers

Will you please give me the All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination past year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
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  #2  
July 3rd, 2014, 01:34 PM
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Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination past year question papers

As you want to get the All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination past year question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

Question 1: A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paraesthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except?
A) Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
B) A tight cast or dressing
C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
D) Tourniquet pressure
Answer: C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics

Question 2: A patient undergoing caesarian section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocaine was used as anaesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Amniotic fluid embolism
B) Lignocaine toxicity
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypokalemia
Answer: C) Hypocalcemia

Question 3: When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted except?
A) Carotid sinus massage
B) Adenosine 3 - 12 mg IV
C) Direct current cardioversion
D) Verapamil 5 mg IV
Answer: A) Carotid sinus massage

Question 4: Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children?
A) Enflurane
B) Isoflurane
C) Sevoflurane
D) Desflurane
Answer: C) Sevoflurane

Question 5: Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
A) Neurosurgery
B) Day care surgery
C) Patients with coronary artery disease
D) In neonates
Answer: B) Day care surgery

Subject - Anatomy

Question 6: The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right of left?
A) Atlanto-occipital joint
B) Atlanto-axial joint
C) C2-C3 joint
D) C3-C4 joint
Answer: B) Atlanto-axial joint

Question 7: The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as?
A) Choroid plexus
B) Tuberal plexus
C) Pampiniform plexus
D) Pectiniform plexus
Answer: D) Pectiniform plexus

Question 8: An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features, except?
A) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung
B) Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus
C) Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung
D) Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
Answer: A) Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung

Question 9: Infection / inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except?
A) Isthmus of uterine tube
B) Inferior part of anal canal
C) Big toe
D) Penile urethra
Answer: D) Penile urethra

Question 10: While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except?
A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
B) Ilioinguinal nerve
C) Subcostal nerve
D) Iliohypogastric nerve
Answer: A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Question 11: The articular cartilage is characterised by all of the following features, except ?
A) It is devoid of perichondrium
B) It has a rich nerve supply
C) It is avascular
D) It lacks the capacity to regenerate
Answer: B) It has a rich nerve supply

Question 12: The first costochondral joint is a ?
A) Fibrous joint
B) Synovial joint
C) Syndesmosis
D) Syncendrosis
Answer: D) Syncendrosis

Question 13: All of the following are catagorized as secondary lymphoid organs except?
A) Lymph nodes
B) Spleen
C) Thymus
D) Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes
Answer: C) Thymus

subject - Biochemistry

Question 14: The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is?
A) Laminin
B) Fibronectin
C) Collagen type 4
D) Heparan sulphate
Answer: A) Laminin

Question 15: To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong?
A) Kinin system
B) Cytokines
C) Chemokines
D) Arachidonic acid metabolites
Answer: D) Arachidonic acid metabolites

Question 16: Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins?
A) Quaternary structure
B) Tertiary structure
C) Amino acid sequence
D) Loop and turn segments
Answer: A) Quaternary structure

Question 17: Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
A) Proteases
B) Proteosomes
C) Templates
D) Chaperones
Answer: D) Chaperones

Question 18: Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for valine in hemoglobin?
A) Isoleucine
B) Glutamic acid
C) Phenylalanine
D) Lysine
Answer: A) Isoleucine

Question 19: Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to?
A) Clathrin
B) Pepsin
C) Laminin
D) Ubiquitin
Answer: D) Ubiquitin

Question 20: Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's ability to handle oxidative stress?
A) Calcium
B) Iron
C) Potassium
D) Selenium
Answer: D) Selenium

Question 21: Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of ?
A) Primary structure
B) Secondary structure
C) Tertiary structure
D) Quaternary structure
Answer: B) Secondary structure

Question 22: Radioisotopes are used in the following techniques except?
A) Mass spectroscopy
B) RIA
C) ELISA
D) Sequencing of nucleic acid
Answer: C) ELISA

Question 23: Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of defect in?
A) DNA polymerase III
B) DNA polymerase I
C) DNA exonuclease
D) DNA ligase
Answer: D) DNA ligase

Question 24: A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except?
A) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is higher than normal
B) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is lower than normal
C) Less pyruvate is formed
D) Less ATP is generated
Answer: A) Level of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphate is higher than normal

Question 25: The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have?
A) A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids
B) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids
C) A disulphide loop
D) Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids
Answer: B) A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids

Question 26: A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
A) Chylomicrons
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) HDL
Answer: B) VLDL

Question 27: A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy products. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient?
A) alpha - amylase
B) beta - galactosidase
C) alpha- glucosidase
D) Sucrase
Answer: B) beta - galactosidase

Question 28: A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as?
A) Intron
B) Exon
C) Plasmid
D) TATA Box
Answer: A) Intron

Question 29: An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as?
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) Phosphokinase
Answer: C) Reverse transcriptase

Question 30: A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known as?
A) Cycline
B) Calmodulin
C) Collagen
D) Kinesin
Answer: B) Calmodulin

Question 31: Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP?
A) Tyrosine kinase
B) Polymerase
C) ATP synthase
D) Adenylate cyclase
Answer: D) Adenylate cyclase

Question 32: Shine - Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near?
A) AUG codon
B) UAA codon
C) UAG codon
D) UGA codon
Answer: A) AUG codon

Question 33: For which of the following diseases the enzyme replacement therapy is available?
A) Albinism
B) Niemann Pick disease
C) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
D) Gaucher disease
Answer: D) Gaucher disease

Question 34: Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca2++ from endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Inositol triphosphate
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
D) Diacylglycerol
Answer: A) Inositol triphosphate

Subject - Community Medicine

Question 35: A 3 1/2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child?
A) BCG, DPT1, OPV1 and DPT2, OPV2 after 4 weeks
B) BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A
C) BCG, DPT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A
D) DT1, DT2 and booster after 1 year
Answer: B) BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A

Question 36: If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mm Hg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be?
A) Symmetrical
B) Positively skewed
C) Negatively skewed
D) Either positively or negatively skewed depending on the Standard deviation
Answer: C) Negatively skewed

Question 37: If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is?
A) Original std. Deviation X 10
B) Original std. Deviation / 10
C) Original std. Deviation - 10
D) Original std. Deviation it self
Answer: A) Original std. Deviation X 10

Question 38: A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?
A) The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia
B) Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care
C) Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens
D) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic
Answer: D) Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic

Question 39: Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except?
A) Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies
B) Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal services
C) Reduce the under five mortality to half
D) Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections
Answer: C) Reduce the under five mortality to half

Question 40: Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the following except?
A) A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption
B) Reduction in fat intake to 20 - 30 percent of caloric intake
C) Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake
D) Reduction of cholesterol to below 100 mg per 1000 Kcal per day
Answer: A) A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption

Question 41: A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had any antenatal care till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to ?
A) Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protect the newborn and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime
B) Do not waste the TT vaccine at it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnancy
C) Give one dose of TT and explain that it will not be useful for this pregnancy
D) Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine
Answer: A) Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protect the newborn and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime

Question 42: The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is?
A) Mass Miniature Radiography
B) Sputum Examination
C) Tuberculin Test
D) Clinical Examination
Answer: C) Tuberculin Test

Question 43: A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of?
A) Cross-sectional study
B) Retrospective cohort study
C) Concurrent cohort study
D) Case-control study
Answer: C) Concurrent cohort study

Question 44: If the prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is?
A) 0.01
B) 0.03
C) 0.001
D) 0.003
Answer: C) 0.001

Question 45: If the grading of diabetes is classified as "mild", "moderate" and "severe" the scale of measurement used is?
A) Interval
B) Nominal
C) Ordinal
D) Ratio
Answer: C) Ordinal

Question 46: The usefulness of a 'screening test' in a community depends on its?
A) Sensitivity
B) Specificity
C) Reliability
D) Predictive value
Answer: D) Predictive value

Question 47: Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of?
A) Srivastava Committee
B) Bhore Committee
C) Kartar Singh Committee
D) Mudaliar Committee
Answer: C) Kartar Singh Committee

Question 48: All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except?
A) Breast milk
B) Insect bite
C) Transplacental spread
D) Droplet infection
Answer: C) Transplacental spread

Question 49: All of the following statements about leprosy are true except?
A) Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches
B) New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy
C) A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more
D) The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population
Answer: C) A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more
  #3  
July 3rd, 2014, 01:34 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination past year question papers

Question 50: The following statements about breast milk are true except?
A) The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months
B) The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%
C) Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow's milk
D) It provides about 65K cals per 100 ml
Answer: A) The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months

Question 51: According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of Yellow Fever if the Aedes Aegypti index remains below?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 8%
D) 10%
Answer: A) 1%

Question 52: The current recommendation for breast feeding is that ?
A) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
B) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods
C) Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days
D) The baby should be allowed to breast feed till one year of age
Answer: A) Exclusive breast feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods


Question 53: "Five clean practices" under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except?
A) Clean surface for delivery
B) Clean hand of the attendant
C) New blade for cutting the cord
D) Clean airway
Answer: D) Clean airway

Question 54: All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except?
A) Latent period
B) Period of communicability
C) Serial interval
D) Generation time
Answer: B) Period of communicability

Question 55: The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except?
A) To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015
B) To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births
C) To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate to 100 per 100,000 live births
D) 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages and pregnancies
Answer: A) To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015

Question 56: The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except?
A) Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect
B) Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant effect
C) Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenicity
D) Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenicity
Answer: D) Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenicity

Question 57:The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the population being tested:
Screening test results Disease Z Yes No Total
Positive 400 200 600
Negative 100 600 700
Total 500 800 1300
The specificity of the screening test is?
A) 70%
B) 75%
C) 79%
D) 86%
Answer: B) 75%

Subject - Dermatology

Question 58: A 25 - year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from?
A) Seborrheic dermatitis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Airborne contact dermatitis
D) Nummular dermatitis
Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis

Question 59: A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesions with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Fixed drug eruption
B) Lichen planus
C) Urticaria pigmentosa
D) Urticarial vasculitis
Answer: C) Urticaria pigmentosa

Question 60: A 30 year old male had severely itchy papulo-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows, and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is?
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Bullous pemphigoid
C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
D) Nummular eczema
Answer: C) Dermatitis herpetiformis

Subject - Forensic Medicine & Toxicology

Question 61: BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except ?
A) Lead
B) Organic Mercury
C) Cadmium
D) Arsenic
Answer: C) Cadmium

Question 62: A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of Mees's lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is?
A) Lead
B) Arsenic
C) Thallium
D) Mercury
Answer: B) Arsenic

Question 63: The cephalic index of Indian population is between?
A) 70 - 75
B) 75 - 80
C) 80 - 85
D) 85 - 90
Answer: A) 70 - 75

Question 64: Which of the following is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level?
A) Cavett's test
B) Breath alcohol analyzer
C) Gas liquid chromatography
D) Thin layer chromatography
Answer: C) Gas liquid chromatography

Question 65: A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped from the jail. A dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by?
A) Blood grouping
B) DNA profile
C) Anthropometry
D) HLA typing
Answer: C) Anthropometry

Question 66: A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most possible diagnosis is?
A) Alcohol intoxication
B) Carbamates poisoning
C) Organophosphorus poisoning
D) Datura poisoning
Answer: D) Datura poisoning

Question 67: A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as?
A) Grievous
B) Simple
C) Dangerous
D) Serious
Answer: A) Grievous

Question 68: Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by?
A) Potassium cyanide
B) Phosphorus
C) Aniline dyes
D) Carbon monoxide
Answer: C) Aniline dyes

Question 69: In which of the following conditions postmortem caloricity may be seen in death due to?
A) Massive haemorrhage
B) Cyanide poisoning
C) Corrosive poisoning
D) Septicemia
Answer: D) Septicemia

Question 70: Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except?
A) Blood grouping
B) HLA typing
C) Precipitin test
D) DNA fingerprinting
Answer: C) Precipitin test

Question 71: Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except?
A) Benzedine test
B) Phenolphthalein test
C) Orthotoluidine test
D) Teichmann's test
Answer: B) Phenolphthalein test

Question 72: Contre-coup injuries are seen in?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
Answer: A) Brain

Subject - Gynaecology

Question 73: A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be?
A) Craniopharyngioma
B) Prolactinoma
C) Meningioma
D) Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage
Answer: B) Prolactinoma

Question 74: Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treatment of Leiomyosarcoma?
A) Adriamycin
B) Doxorubicin
C) Methotrexate
D) Cisplatin
Answer: B) Doxorubicin

Question 75: Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4?
A) Atrophic vagnitis
B) Candidal vaginitis
C) Trichomonas vaginitis
D) Gardnerella vaginitis
Answer: A) Atrophic vagnitis

Question 76: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility and hirsuitism?
A) Polycystic ovaries
B) Endometriosis
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Turner's syndrome
Answer: A) Polycystic ovaries

Question 77: The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is?
A) Suprapubic needle aspiration
B) Midstream clean catch
C) Foley's catheter
D) Sterile speculum
Answer: A) Suprapubic needle aspiration

Question 78: The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is?
A) Direct fluorescent antibody test
B) Enzyme immunoassay
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
Answer: C) Polymerase chain reaction

Question 79: All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogens in post menopausal women except?
A) Reduces fracture rates
B) Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia
C) Reduces incidence of Venous thrombosis
D) No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma
Answer: C) Reduces incidence of Venous thrombosis

Question 80: A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Her height is 153 cms, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Stein-Leventhal syndrome
C) Premature ovarian failure
D) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Answer: D) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

Question 81: The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except?
A) Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD
B) The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar
C) IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days
D) Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years
Answer: A) Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD

Subject - Obstetrics

Question 82: A 37 year old multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of?
A) Iron deficiency
B) Folic deficiency
C) Malnutrition
D) Combined iron and folic acid deficiency
Answer: A) Iron deficiency

Question 83: The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not serious during first pregnancy because?
A) Antibodies are not able to cross placenta
B) Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response
C) IgG generated is ineffective against foetal red cells
D) Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropoiesis
Answer: B) Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response


Question 84: A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labor. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions except?
A) Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours
B) Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Chorioamnionitis
Answer: A) Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours

Question 85: Which of the following is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy?
A) Serum iron
B) Serum ferritin
C) Serum transferrin
D) Serum iron binding capacity
Answer: B) Serum ferritin

Question 86: Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most useful in distinguishing between open neural tube defects and ventral wall defects in a fetus?
A) Carcinoembryo antigen
B) Sphingomyelin
C) Alpha - feto protein
D) Pseudocholinesterase
Answer: D) Pseudocholinesterase

Question 87: Which of the following is not an indication for Antiphospholipid antibody testing?
A) Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnancy losses
B) Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents
C) Early onset severe pre-eclampsia
D) Gestational Diabetes
Answer: D) Gestational Diabetes

Question 88: Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except?
A) Neural tube defects
B) Duodenal atresia
C) Talipes equinovarus
D) Omphalocele
Answer: C) Talipes equinovarus

Question 89: A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by?
A) Intravenous frusemide
B) Saline infusion
C) Amniocentesis
D) Artificial rupture of membranes
Answer: C) Amniocentesis

Question 90: Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome?
A) Triple screen test
B) Amniocentesis
C) Chorionic villous biopsy
D) Ultrasonography
Answer: B) Amniocentesis

Question 91: A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by Caesarian section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula?
A) Urethrovaginal
B) Vesico-vaginal
C) Vesico-uterine
D) Uretero-uterine
Answer: C) Vesico-uterine

Question 92: Anti-D prophylaxis should be given in all of the following conditions except?
A) Medical abortion for 63 days pregnancy
B) Amniocentesis at 16 weeks
C) Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks
D) Manual removal of Placenta
Answer: C) Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks

Question 93: Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is?
A) 63 days
B) 72 days
C) 88 days
D) 120 days
Answer: A) 63 days

Question 94: All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except?
A) Biparietal diameter
B) Head circumference
C) Transcerebellar diameter
D) Femur length
Answer: C) Transcerebellar diameter

Question 95: All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except?
A) Prostaglandin E2
B) Oxytocin
C) Progesterone
D) Misoprostol
Answer: C) Progesterone

Question 96: Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester?
A) Hepatitis B virus
B) Syphilis
C) Toxoplasmosis
D) Rubella
Answer: D) Rubella

Question 97: All of the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy except?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Sickle cell disease
D) Vesicoureteral reflux
Answer: B) Hypertension

Question 98: All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except?
A) Nifedipine
B) Captopril
C) Methyldopa
D) Hydralazine
Answer: B) Captopril

Subject - Medicine

Question 99: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Doxycycline
D) Minocycline
Answer: C) Doxycycline

Question 100: An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5g/dL). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Indolent myeloma
C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
D) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
Answer: C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance

Question 101: HBAic level in blood explains?
A) Acute rise of sugar
B) Long term status of blood sugar
C) Hepatorenal syndrome
D) Chronic pancreatitis
Answer: B) Long term status of blood sugar

Question 102: Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?
A) Triple test
B) alpha - fetoprotein
C) Karyotyping
D) beta - human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
Answer: A) Triple test

Question 103: All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except?
A) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
B) Acute intermittent porphyria
C) Lead intoxication
D) Arsenic intoxication
Answer: D) Arsenic intoxication

Question 104: A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Acute pyogenic meningitis
B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
C) Neurocysticercosis
D) Carcinomatous meningitis
Answer: B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

Question 105: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by?
A) Significant numbers of schiztocytes
B) A brisk reticulocutosis
C) Decreased coagulation factor levels
D) Significant thrombocytopenia
Answer: C) Decreased coagulation factor levels

Question 106: Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of ?
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Anaemia of chronic disease
C) Hemochromatosis
D) Lead poisoning
Answer: C) Hemochromatosis

Question 107: A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was?
A) Verapamil
B) Digoxin
C) Carvedilol
D) Propranolol
Answer: B) Digoxin

Question 108: All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except?
A) Pulsus paradoxus
B) Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram
C) Electrical alternans
D) Kussmaul's sign
Answer: D) Kussmaul's sign

Question 109: Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection?
A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues
B) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression
C) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients
D) In latent phase HIV is minimal replication
Answer: A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues

Question 110: In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterised by the presence of all the following except?
A) Red cell casts
B) Acanthocytes
C) Crenated red cells
D) Dysmorphic red cells
Answer: B) Acanthocytes

Question 111: Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except?
A) Testosterone
B) Prolactin
C) Estradiol
D) Luteinizing hormone
Answer: B) Prolactin

Question 112: All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women, except?
A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention
B) It is not related to menstrual cycles
C) There is increased water retention in upright position
D) ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases
Answer: A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention

Question 113: A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
A) Nutritional rickets
B) Renal rickets
C) Hyperparathyroidism
D) Skeletal dysplasia
Answer: C) Hyperparathyroidism

Question 114: A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 Kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?
A) Serum electrolytes
B) Plasma cortisol
C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis
D) T3, T4 and TSH
Answer: B) Plasma cortisol

Question 115: An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Wegener's granulomatosis
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
C) Takayasu's arteritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Answer: B) Polyarteritis nodosa

Question 116: A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficit/ access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood?
A) Ref ford nomogram
B) DuBio's nomogram
C) Goldman constant field equation
D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram
Answer: D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram

Question 117: A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptive for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dL. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum. All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except?
A) Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion
B) Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines
C) Decreased hemoglobin level
D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level
Answer: D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level

Question 118: A 45 - year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as follows:
Parameters Fasting 1 hr 2 hr
Blood glucose (mg/dL) 155 270 205
Urine glucose -ve +++ ++
Ketone bodies -ve -ve -ve

Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case ?
A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
B) She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
C) She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation
D) Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of diabetes
Answer: A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

Question 119: A 20 year old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm3, red cell casts in the urine and 12000/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B) Polyarteritis nodosa
C) Wegener's granulomatosis
D) Disseminated tuberculosis
Answer: C) Wegener's granulomatosis

Question 120: A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except?
A) CD4/CD8 counts in the blood
B) Serum ACE levels
C) CECT of chest
D) Gallium scan
Answer: C) CECT of chest

Question 121: Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome?
A) Loss of diurnal variation
B) Increased ACTH
C) Increased plasma Cortisol
D) Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol
Answer: A) Loss of diurnal variation

Question 122: The occurence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as?
A) Jod- Basedow effect
B) Wolff- Chaikoff effect
C) Thyrotoxicosis factitia
D) de Quervain's thyroiditis
Answer: A) Jod- Basedow effect

Question 123: The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is?
A) T3
B) T4
C) TSH
D) Thyroglobulin
Answer: C) TSH

Question 124: Ataxia telangiectacia is characterized by all of the following except ?
A) Chronic sinopulmonary disease
B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein
C) Chromosomal breakage
D) IgA deficiency
Answer: B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein

Question 125: The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because?
A) The plasma oncotic pressure is high
B) There is renal compensation
C) Increased cardiac output
D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure
Answer: D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure

Question 126: Duchenne Muscular Dsytrophy is a disease of ?
A) Neuromuscular junction
B) Sarcolemmal proteins
C) Muscle contractile proteins
D) Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
Answer: B) Sarcolemmal proteins

Question 127: All of the following are associated with low complement levels except?
A) Lupus nephritis
B) Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis
C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome
D) Post-infections glomerulonephritis
Answer: C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome


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