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  #1  
January 30th, 2013, 10:17 AM
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Join Date: Mar 2012
AUCET Model Paper

I am taking part in the Andhra University Common Entrance Test and for the preparation I need the model papers of the exam so please can you give me the model papers and provide me the page where I can download the papers?

As you Asking for the Question Paper of the AUCET Microbiology the Question Paper is given below

Question 1: A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?

120 m
240 m
300 m
None of these



Question 2: Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is:

50 m
72 m
80 m
82 m


Question 3: The most electronegative element among the following is

sodium
bromine
fluorine
oxygen
Answer: 3



Question 4: The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to that of

p-electrons in Ne(Z = 10)
s-electrons in Mg(Z = 12)
d-electrons in Fe(Z = 26)
p-electrons in CI(Z = 17)
Answer: 4

Question 5: out of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates present in a cell membrane, what is true?

Lipids are maximum
Carbohydrates are minimum
Carbohydrates are maximum
All three are in equal proportion



Question 6: Large transformers, when used for some time, become very hot and are cooled by circulating oil. The heating of the transformer is due to

the heating effect of current alone
hysteresis loss alone
both the heating effect of current and hysteresis loss
intense sunlight at noon


Out of the following pairs, choose the pair in which the physical quantities do not have identical dimension?

Pressure and Young’s modules
Planck’s constant and Angular momentum
Impulse and moment of force
Force and rate of change of linear momentum


Which of the following bonds will be most difficult to break?
1. C–O
2. C–C
3. C–N
4. C–S


23. The conformation of a nucleotide in DNA is affected by rotation about how many bonds?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 7
4. 3
24. Which of the following proteins acts as an energy transducer?
1. G-protein.
2. Bacteriorhodopsin.
3. Hemoglobin.
4. Heat shock protein.

. Which of the following predicted property of lipid bilayers would result if the
phospholipids had only one hydrocarbon chain instead of two?
The bilayers formed would be much less fluid.
The diameter of the head group would be much larger than the acyl chain and would
tend to form micelles rather than bilayers.
the bilayers formed would be much more fluid.
the bilayers would be more permeable to small water-soluble molecules.


Which of the following statements is not true for transposable element system?
1. It consists of both autonomous and non-autonomous elements.
2. Dissociation elements are autonomous in nature.
3. Transposase is transcribed by the central region of autonomous elements.
4. Certain repeats in the genome remain fixed even after the element transposes out.


A set of virulence genes (vir genes), located in the Agrobacterium Ti-plasmid, is activated
by
1. octopine.
2. nopaline.
3. acetosyringone.
4. auxin.

. When two mutants having the same phenotype were crossed, the progeny obtained showed
a wild-type phenotype. Thus the mutations are
1. non-allelic.
2. allelic.
3. segregating from each other.
4. independently assorting.

Rest of the Question Paper you may get from the below Attachement that is Free to Download


AUCET Question Paper Microbiology

21. Which of the following bonds will be most difficult to break?
1. C–O
2. C–C
3. C–N
4. C–S
22. A solution of 1% (w/v) starch at pH 6.7 is digested by 15 µg of -amylase (mol wt
152,000). The rate of maltose (mol wt = 342) had a maximal initial velocity of 8.5 mg
formed per min. The turnover number is
1. 0.25  105 min–1.
2. 25  105 min–1.
3. 2.5  105 min–1.
4. 2.5  104 min–1.
23. The conformation of a nucleotide in DNA is affected by rotation about how many bonds?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 7
4. 3
24. Which of the following proteins acts as an energy transducer?
1. G-protein.
2. Bacteriorhodopsin.
3. Hemoglobin.
4. Heat shock protein.
25. Which of the following predicted property of lipid bilayers would result if the
phospholipids had only one hydrocarbon chain instead of two?
1. The bilayers formed would be much less fluid.
2. The diameter of the head group would be much larger than the acyl chain and would
tend to form micelles rather than bilayers.
3. the bilayers formed would be much more fluid.
4. the bilayers would be more permeable to small water-soluble molecules.
26. Which pump is responsible for initiating muscle contraction through depolarization of
muscle cell membrane?
1. Na+ pump.
2. K+ pump.
3. Ca2+ pump.
4. Mg2+ pump.
27. Which of the following statements is not true for transposable element system?
1. It consists of both autonomous and non-autonomous elements.
2. Dissociation elements are autonomous in nature.
3. Transposase is transcribed by the central region of autonomous elements.
4. Certain repeats in the genome remain fixed even after the element transposes out.
28. A set of virulence genes (vir genes), located in the Agrobacterium Ti-plasmid, is activated
by
1. octopine.
2. nopaline.
3. acetosyringone.
4. auxin.
29. When two mutants having the same phenotype were crossed, the progeny obtained showed
a wild-type phenotype. Thus the mutations are
1. non-allelic.
2. allelic.
3. segregating from each other.
4. independently assorting.
30. A conjugation experiment is carried out between F+ his+ leu+ thr+ pro+ bacteria and F– his–
leu– thr- pro- bacteria for a period of 25 minutes. At this time the mating is stopped, and the
genotypes of the recipient F– bacteria are determined. The results are shown below:
Genotype Number of colonies
his+ 0
leu+ 13
thr+ 26
pro+ 6
What is the probable order of these genes on the bacterial chromosome?
1. thr, leu, pro, his
2. pro,leu, thr and the position of his cannot be determined.
3. thr, leu, pro, and the position of his cannot be determined.
4. his, pro, leu, thr
31. Two varieties of maize averaging 48 and 72 inches in height, respectively, are crossed.
The F1 progeny is quite uniform averaging 60 inches in height. Of the 500 F2 plants, the
shortest 2 are 48 inches and the tallest 2 are 72 inches. What is the probable number of
polygenes involved in this trait?
1. Four.
2. Eight.
3. Sixteen.
4. Thirty two.
32. Repair of double strand breaks made during meiosis in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae
1. occurs mostly by non-homologous end joining.
2. occurs mostly using the sister chromatid as a template.
3. occurs mostly using the homologous chromosome as a template.
4. is associated with a high frequency of mutations.
33. Which of the following signaling molecules enters the cell to initiate its action?
1. Transferrin
2. Insulin
3. Glucagon
4. Thyroxine
34. The mode of action of the anticancer drug methotrexate is through its strong competitive
inhibition on
1. dihydrofolate reductase.
2. thymidine synthase.
3. thymidine kinase.
4. adenylate cyclase.
35. Which class of immunoglobulins will increase in case of a chronic infection?
1. IgA
2. IgG
3. IgM
4. IgE
36. When prospective neuroectoderm from an early amphibian gastrula is transplanted in the
prospective epidermal region of a recipient (early gastrula) embryo, the donor tissue will
give rise to
1. neural tube.
2. epidermis.
3. neural tube and notochord.
4. neural tube and epidermis.
37. Amphibian oocytes remain for years in the diplotene stage of meiotic prophase.
Resumption of meiosis is initiated by
1. gonodatropic hormone.
2. growth hormone.
3. oestrogen.
4. progesterone.
38. A group of six cells called 'equivalence group cells' divide to form the vulval structure in
Caenorhabditis elegans. They are called so because
1. they have similar fates during development of vulva.
2. all the six cells are competent to form vulva and can replace each other under various
experimental conditions.
3. they are all under the influence of the anchor cell, signals from which initiate
vulval development.
4. they interact with each other to form the vulval structure.
39. Due to the presence of cellulose in the cell wall of plants, leaf shape is determined in the
leaf primorida by
1. rates of cell division.
2. planes of cell division.
3. cell migration.
4. cell-cell interactions.
40. DCMU inhibits electron transport in chloroplast by preventing the reduction of
1. P 680.
2. QA.
3. PQ.
4. QB.
41. In higher plant leaves, the reduction of nitrate to ammonium takes place by the combined
action of nitrate reductase localized in cytosol and nitrite reductase localized in
1. peroxisomes.
2. mitochondria.
3. chloroplasts.
4. cytosol.
42. In higher plants, the red/far-red sensory photoreceptor, phytochrome, is a light-regulated
kinase. Which of the following classes of kinases does it represent?
1. Two-component sensor regulator (histidine kinase).
2. Two-component sensor regulator (serine/threonine kinase).
3. Leucine rich repeat (LRR) receptor kinase.
4. Calcium-dependent protein kinase.
43. Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhiza (VAM) represents a beneficial association between plant
roots and fungus, where fungus assists plants in obtaining from the soil
1. iron.
2. zinc.
3. sulphate.
4. phosphate.
44. Unidirectional propagation of electrical signal in nervous system is
1. proportional to the length of axon.
2. due to chemical synapse.
3. due to electrical synapse.
4. proportional to myelination.
45. A myasthenia gravis patient develops muscle paralysis because
1. the nerve terminal at the neuromuscular junction fails to release acetylcholine.
2. although enough acetylcholine is released at the neuromuscular junction, it is
destroyed by acetylcholinesterase.
3. the patient develops immunity against his own acetylcholine receptor.
4. the patient develops antibody against his own acetylcholine.
46. Inhibin from sertoli cells of testes selectively inhibits
1. luteinizing hormone.
2. follicle stimulating hormone.
3. thyroid stimulating hormone.
4. growth hormone.
47. Hawk's retina possesses a large number of
1. rods.
2. melanocytes.
3. cones.
4. kuffer cells.
48. E. coli cells were grown in N15 medium for several generations and then shifted to normal
medium for one generation. If the DNA isolated from the culture would be centrifuged on
a CsCl equilibrium density gradient, the result will be
1. a single band of double helix DNA consisting of one strand with N14 and another
with N15 label.
2. single band of double helix DNA consisting of N14 and N15 in both the
strands.
3. two bands containing double helix DNA each containing both N14 and N15 label.
4. two bands containing single stranded DNA one with N14 and other with N15
label.
49. Which of the following processes does not take place in the 5′→3′ direction?
1. DNA replication
2. Transcription
3. Nick translation
4. RNA editing
50. A deletion of three consecutive bases in the coding region of a gene cannot result in
1. deletion of a single amino acid without any other change in the protein.
2. replacement of two adjacent amino acids by a single amino acid.
3. replacement of a single amino acid by another without any other change in
sequence of the protein.
4. production of a truncated protein.
51. Deletion of the leader sequence of trp operon of E. coli would result in
1. decreased transcription of trp operon.
2. increased transcription of trp operon.
3. no effect on transcription.
4. decreased transcription of trp operon in the presence of tryptophan.
52. In the endodermis of higher plants, the role of Casperian strip is to control the water
movement so that it flows
1. between the cells.
2. through the plasma membrane.
3. through the cell wall.
4. through the transfusion tissue.
53. The reptilian order Squamata includes
1. crocodiles and alligators.
2. the living fossil 'tuatara'.
3. turtles and tortoises.
4. snakes and lizards.
54. Cultivated bananas are sterile because
1. male flower-bearing plants are very rare.
2. they lack natural pollinators in the crop plants.
3. they are triploid and therefore seeds are not set.
4. they are a cross of two unrelated species.
55. One life history trait that is not characteristic of very small sized organisms is
1. delayed age at first reproduction.
2. earlier age at first reproduction.
3. high population growth rate.
4. short lifespan.
56. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate example of character
displacement?
1. Two related species depending on the same prey species avoid competition by
feeding at different times of the day.
2. The body sizes of two related species are very similar when they are allopatric,
but in geographical areas of sympatry, one species is significantly smaller than
the other.
3. The food niche of a species is generally wider in the absence of competing species
than in their presence.
4. Closely related species can coexist if their densities are regulated by a predator.
57. In a population growing logistically and approaching Carrying Capacity (K), the
change in density (N) per unit time (dN/dt) is maximum when N equals to
1. K2
2. K/2.
3. K.
4. K.
58. The losses of ozone over Arctic are significantly lower than that over Antarctica
because
1. polar vortex over Arctic is not as tight as over Antarctic.
2. Arctic stratosphere warms slower in the spring.
3. concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere over Arctic is less than over
Antarctic.
4. freezing of NO2 and CH4 are slower over Arctic than over Antarctic.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf AUCET Question Paper Microbiology .pdf (365.7 KB, 236 views)

Last edited by Neelurk; February 18th, 2020 at 08:21 AM.
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  #2  
February 27th, 2017, 01:59 PM
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Re: AUCET Model Paper

Hii sir, I Wants to get the Question Paper of the AUCET Microbiology Will you Please provide It ?


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