#1
July 7th, 2014, 10:50 AM
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Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry
Will you please give me the Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry as it is very urgent for me?
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#2
July 8th, 2014, 10:26 AM
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Re: Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry
As you want to get the Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry so here is the information of the same for you: 1. Acetyl CoA directly gives rise to all except: (1) Glucose (3) Cholesterol 2. Ovarian reserve is best indicated by : (1) LH (3) LH/FSH ratio 3. Hyperaldosteronism causes all except: (1) Hypokalemia (3) Hypertension 4. The chief mineral of bone is : (1) Calcium oxalate (3) Hydroxyapetite 5. Splicing is done by : • (1) mRNA (2) tRNA (2) Ketone bodies (4) Fatty acids (2) FSH (4) Estrogen (2) Hypematremia (4) Metabolic acidosis (2) Calcium carbonate (4) Calcite (3) rRNA (4) SnRNA 6. Which of the following serves as a coenzyme for transketolase ? (1) Thiamine (2) Biotin (3) Pyridoxine (4) Cobalamine 7. Malabsorption is caused by all except: (1) Ascaris lumbricodes (3) Strongyloides (2) Capillaria phillipinensis (4) Giardia lamblia 8. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: (1) UAA (2) UAG (3) AUG (4) UGA 9. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is known as: (1) Intron (3) Plasmid (2) Exon (4) TATA box 10. Eukaryotic cell membrane is formed by all except: (1) Cholesterol (2) Lecithin (3) Triglycerides (4) Carbohydrates 11. Insulin is responsible for all except: (1) Glycolysis (3) Lipogenesis (2) Glycogenesis (4) Ketogenesis 12. Free radicals in lens are held by all except: (1) Vitamin A (3) Vitamin C 13. Hyaluronic acid is present in: (1) Vitreous humor (3) Dermis 14. Sertoli cells have receptors for: (1) lnhibin (3) Luteinizing hormone (2 ) (2) Vitamin E (4) Glutathione peroxidase (2) Cornea (4) Mast cells (2) Melatonin (4) Follicle stimulating hormone 6. Which of the following serves as a coenzyme for transketolase ? (1) Thiamine (2) Biotin (3) Pyridoxine (4) Cobalamine 7. Malabsorption is caused by all except: (1) Ascaris lumbricodes (3) Strongyloides (2) Capillaria phillipinensis (4) Giardia lamblia 8. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: (1) UAA (2) UAG (3) AUG (4) UGA 9. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is known as: (1) Intron (3) Plasmid (2) Exon (4) TATA box 10. Eukaryotic cell membrane is formed by all except: (1) Cholesterol (2) Lecithin (3) Triglycerides (4) Carbohydrates 11. Insulin is responsible for all except: (1) Glycolysis (3) Lipogenesis (2) Glycogenesis (4) Ketogenesis 12. Free radicals in lens are held by all except: (1) Vitamin A (3) Vitamin C 13. Hyaluronic acid is present in: (1) Vitreous humor (3) Dermis 14. Sertoli cells have receptors for: (1) lnhibin (3) Luteinizing hormone (2 ) (2) Vitamin E (4) Glutathione peroxidase (2) Cornea (4) Mast cells (2) Melatonin (4) Follicle stimulating hormone 15. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in eNS is : (1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate (3) Glycine (4) Acetylcholine 16. Which of the following element is known to influence body's ability to handle oxidative stress? (1) Calcium (2) Potassium (3) Selenium (4) Iron 17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is : (1) Desmolase (3) Isomerase (2) Hydroxylase (4) Aromatase 18. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA from a single stranded RNA template is known as : (1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase (3) DNA topoisomerase (4) Reverse transcriptase 19. Proteins targeted for destruction ir. eukaryotes are covalently linked to : (1) Pepsin (2) Clathrin (3) Ubiquitin (4) Laminin 20. Which of the following assist in protein folding? (1) Proteases (2) Templates (3) Proteosomes (4) Chaperones 214 Restriction endonuclease cut the D~'IA into fragments by: (1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase III (3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase 22. The chief organelle involved in afFlptosis is : (1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria 23. Functions of CD4 are all except: (1) Antibody production (3) Opsonization (3) (2) Immunogenic memory (4) Activate cytotoxic cells 15. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in eNS is : (1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate (3) Glycine (4) Acetylcholine 16. Which of the following element is known to influence body's ability to handle oxidative stress? (1) Calcium (2) Potassium (3) Selenium (4) Iron 17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is : (1) Desmolase (3) Isomerase (2) Hydroxylase (4) Aromatase 18. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA from a single stranded RNA template is known as : (1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase (3) DNA topoisomerase (4) Reverse transcriptase 19. Proteins targeted for destruction ir. eukaryotes are covalently linked to : (1) Pepsin (2) Clathrin (3) Ubiquitin (4) Laminin 20. Which of the following assist in protein folding? (1) Proteases (2) Templates (3) Proteosomes (4) Chaperones 214 Restriction endonuclease cut the D~'IA into fragments by: (1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase III (3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase 22. The chief organelle involved in afFlptosis is : (1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria 23. Functions of CD4 are all except: (1) Antibody production (3) Opsonization (3) (2) Immunogenic memory (4) Activate cytotoxic cells 24. Antigen-antibody precipitation is maximum in : (1) Antigen excess (2) Antibody excess (3) Equivalence of antigen antibody (4) Interaction of antibody with haptens 25. Which of the following is seen in a patient with severe hyperglycemia receiving insulin? (1) Hypokalemia (3) Hyponatremia (2) Hyperkalemia (4) Hypematremia 26. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is : (1) Serum iron levels (2) Serum ferritin levels (3) Transferrin saturation (4) Serum transfecing receptor population 27. Glutathione present in the membrane of RBCs is: (1) A lipid (2) A dipeptide (3) A tripeptide (4) An oligosaccharide 28. Urine on exposure to air and light turns black in : (1) Alcaptonuria (2) Phenylketonuria (3) Homocystinuria (4) Maple syrup urine disease 29. Heme synthesis requires all except: (1) Iron (3) Vitamin B6 (2) Glycine (4) Selenium 30. All of the following are branched chain amino acids except: (1) Leucine (2) Isoleucine (3) Lysine 31. Respiratory acidosis may be due to : (1) Pneumonia (3) Hyperventilation ( 4 ) (4) Valine (2) VOmiting (4) Starvation 24. Antigen-antibody precipitation is maximum in : (1) Antigen excess (2) Antibody excess (3) Equivalence of antigen antibody (4) Interaction of antibody with haptens 25. Which of the following is seen in a patient with severe hyperglycemia receiving insulin? (1) Hypokalemia (3) Hyponatremia (2) Hyperkalemia (4) Hypematremia 26. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is : (1) Serum iron levels (2) Serum ferritin levels (3) Transferrin saturation (4) Serum transfecing receptor population 27. Glutathione present in the membrane of RBCs is: (1) A lipid (2) A dipeptide (3) A tripeptide (4) An oligosaccharide 28. Urine on exposure to air and light turns black in : (1) Alcaptonuria (2) Phenylketonuria (3) Homocystinuria (4) Maple syrup urine disease 29. Heme synthesis requires all except: (1) Iron (3) Vitamin B6 (2) Glycine (4) Selenium 30. All of the following are branched chain amino acids except: (1) Leucine (2) Isoleucine (3) Lysine 31. Respiratory acidosis may be due to : (1) Pneumonia (3) Hyperventilation ( 4 ) (4) Valine (2) VOmiting (4) Starvation 12P1210J30 32. Which of the following amino add does not have a codon? (1) Alanine (2) Valine (3) Taurine (4) Methionine 33. All of the following biochemical pathways occUr in mitochondria except: (1) Krebs Cycle (2) Ketogenesis (3) Fatty add oxidation (4) Fatty add synthesis 34. Malonate competitively inhibits: (1) Fumarate dehydrogenase (3) Sued nate dehydrogenase 35. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is : (1) An oxidoreductase (3) A ligase (2) Sucdnate thiokinase (4) Aconitase (2) A transferase (4) A hydrolase 36. Beta-oxidation of odd chain fatty adds produces: (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Propionyl CoA (3) Malonyl CoA (4) Sucdnyl CoA 37. Decreased glycolytic activity impaires oxygen transport by Hemoglobin due to (1) Decreased production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate (2) Low levels of oxygen (3) Reduced energy production (4) Reduced production of hemoglobin 38. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is : (1) Glutathione- S- transferase (3) Cytochrome P450 reductase (2) Cytochrome P450 (4) Glucuronyl transferase 39. Which of the following statement is correct about Vitamin B 12 ? (1) The coenzyme form is Vitamin B 12 itself (2) It requires an intrinsic factor for its absorption (3) It is involved in the transfer of amino groups (4) It is present in plant sources 32. Which of the following amino add does not have a codon? (1) Alanine (2) Valine (3) Taurine (4) Methionine 33. All of the following biochemical pathways occUr in mitochondria except: (1) Krebs Cycle (2) Ketogenesis (3) Fatty add oxidation (4) Fatty add synthesis 34. Malonate competitively inhibits: (1) Fumarate dehydrogenase (3) Sued nate dehydrogenase 35. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is : (1) An oxidoreductase (3) A ligase (2) Sucdnate thiokinase (4) Aconitase (2) A transferase (4) A hydrolase 36. Beta-oxidation of odd chain fatty adds produces: (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Propionyl CoA (3) Malonyl CoA (4) Sucdnyl CoA 37. Decreased glycolytic activity impaires oxygen transport by Hemoglobin due to (1) Decreased production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate (2) Low levels of oxygen (3) Reduced energy production (4) Reduced production of hemoglobin 38. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is : (1) Glutathione- S- transferase (3) Cytochrome P450 reductase (2) Cytochrome P450 (4) Glucuronyl transferase 39. Which of the following statement is correct about Vitamin B 12 ? (1) The coenzyme form is Vitamin B 12 itself (2) It requires an intrinsic factor for its absorption (3) It is involved in the transfer of amino groups (4) It is present in plant sources 40. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of : (1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (2) Phenylpyruvate hydroxylase (3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase 41. In a solution, the concentration of H+ ion is 1 x ] 0 moles/I. The pH of the solution is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) . 12 42. Bacteria capable of growing in 3M NaCI are called: (1) Haplophiles (2) Osmotolerant (3) Aerotolerant (4) Thermophiles 43. Glycogen storage disease includes all of the following except: (1) Forbe's disease (2) Fabry's disease (3) Hers'Disease (4) Anderson's disease 44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to complete deficiency of : (1) HGPR Tase (2) Xanthine oxidase (3) Purine phosphorylase (4) Adenosine deaminase 45. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in maple syrup urine disease? (1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine (3) Leucine (4) Arginine 46. The minimum number of polypeptide chain in immunoglobulin is : (1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight 47. The osmotic pressure of a solution relating to solute molecules depend on the: (1) Size (2) Shape (3) Volume (4) Number 48. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of : (1) Amylase (2) lipase (3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin 49. The epimer of glucose is : (1) Fructose (2) Ribose (3) Galactose (4) Deoxyribose 40. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of : (1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (2) Phenylpyruvate hydroxylase (3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase 41. In a solution, the concentration of H+ ion is 1 x ] 0 moles/I. The pH of the solution is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) . 12 42. Bacteria capable of growing in 3M NaCI are called: (1) Haplophiles (2) Osmotolerant (3) Aerotolerant (4) Thermophiles 43. Glycogen storage disease includes all of the following except: (1) Forbe's disease (2) Fabry's disease (3) Hers'Disease (4) Anderson's disease 44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to complete deficiency of : (1) HGPR Tase (2) Xanthine oxidase (3) Purine phosphorylase (4) Adenosine deaminase 45. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in maple syrup urine disease? (1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine (3) Leucine (4) Arginine 46. The minimum number of polypeptide chain in immunoglobulin is : (1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight 47. The osmotic pressure of a solution relating to solute molecules depend on the: (1) Size (2) Shape (3) Volume (4) Number 48. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of : (1) Amylase (2) lipase (3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin 49. The epimer of glucose is : (1) Fructose (2) Ribose (3) Galactose (4) Deoxyribose 50. Human heart muscle contains: (1) D-ribose (2) D-arabinose (3) D-xylose (4) D-lyxose 51. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of : (1) Lactose (2) Maltose (3) Starch (4) Insulin 52. Osmosis is opposite to : (1) Affusion (2) Effusion (3) Diffusion (4) Confusion 53. The surface tension of a solution is increased by : (1) Bile salts (2) Bile acids (3) Conc. Sulphuric acid (4) Acetic acid 54. Large amount of teicoic acid polymer is found in : (1) Gram +ve bacteria .. (3) Green algae (2) Gram -ve bacteria (4) Blue green algae 55. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through: (1) Active transport (2) Passive transport (3) Facilitated transfer (4) Nonfacilitated transfer 56. Iodine solution produces no colour with: (1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Dextrin 57. Barfode's solution is not reduced by ; (1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Mannose 58. N~acetylneuraminic acid is known as : . (1) Sialic acid (3) Mucic acid 59. Blood group substances consist of : (1) Lactose (2) Fucose (2) Hippuric acid (4) Glucuronic acid (3) Maltose (4) Mucose 60. The component of cartilage and cornea is : (1) Keratan sulphate (2) Chondroitin sulphate (3) Antimony sulphate (4) Cadmium sulphate 50. Human heart muscle contains: (1) D-ribose (2) D-arabinose (3) D-xylose (4) D-lyxose 51. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of : (1) Lactose (2) Maltose (3) Starch (4) Insulin 52. Osmosis is opposite to : (1) Affusion (2) Effusion (3) Diffusion (4) Confusion 53. The surface tension of a solution is increased by : (1) Bile salts (2) Bile acids (3) Conc. Sulphuric acid (4) Acetic acid 54. Large amount of teicoic acid polymer is found in : (1) Gram +ve bacteria .. (3) Green algae (2) Gram -ve bacteria (4) Blue green algae 55. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through: (1) Active transport (2) Passive transport (3) Facilitated transfer (4) Nonfacilitated transfer 56. Iodine solution produces no colour with: (1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Dextrin 57. Barfode's solution is not reduced by ; (1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Mannose 58. N~acetylneuraminic acid is known as : . (1) Sialic acid (3) Mucic acid 59. Blood group substances consist of : (1) Lactose (2) Fucose (2) Hippuric acid (4) Glucuronic acid (3) Maltose (4) Mucose 60. The component of cartilage and cornea is : (1) Keratan sulphate (2) Chondroitin sulphate (3) Antimony sulphate (4) Cadmium sulphate 61. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are : (1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Oxidases (4) Ligases 62. Magnesium is required for: (1) Aldolase (3) Dismutase 63. Thiamine level is best monitored by : (1) Transketolase level in blood (2) Thiamine level in blood (2) ATPase (4) Phosphatase (3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase activity (4) Reticulocytosis 64. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all except: (1) Tyrosine (2) ThyroxinE (3) Epinephrine (4) Melatonin 65. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by : (1) Tubulin (2) Ubiquitin (3) Laminin 66. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of : (1) Succinyl CoA to succinate (2) Acetoacetate to alpha ketoglutarate (3) Succinate to fumarate (4) Fumarate to malate 67. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is: (1) Succinate (2) Fumarate 68. "Fructokinase is present in : (3) Malate (1) Intestine (2) Adipose tissue (3) Brain 69. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base as : (1) Ethanolamine (2) Choline (3) Inositol (4) Lipositol 70. Phosphatidyl inositol is found in : (1) Cabbage (2). Cauliflower (3) Soyabean ( 8 ) (4) Keratin (4) Oxaloacetate (4) Heart (4) Apple 61. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are : (1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Oxidases (4) Ligases 62. Magnesium is required for: (1) Aldolase (3) Dismutase 63. Thiamine level is best monitored by : (1) Transketolase level in blood (2) Thiamine level in blood (2) ATPase (4) Phosphatase (3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase activity (4) Reticulocytosis 64. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all except: (1) Tyrosine (2) ThyroxinE (3) Epinephrine (4) Melatonin 65. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by : (1) Tubulin (2) Ubiquitin (3) Laminin 66. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of : (1) Succinyl CoA to succinate (2) Acetoacetate to alpha ketoglutarate (3) Succinate to fumarate (4) Fumarate to malate 67. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is: (1) Succinate (2) Fumarate 68. "Fructokinase is present in : (3) Malate (1) Intestine (2) Adipose tissue (3) Brain 69. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base as : (1) Ethanolamine (2) Choline (3) Inositol (4) Lipositol 70. Phosphatidyl inositol is found in : (1) Cabbage (2). Cauliflower (3) Soyabean ( 8 ) (4) Keratin (4) Oxaloacetate (4) Heart (4) Apple |
#3
July 8th, 2014, 10:26 AM
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Re: Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry
71. The concentration of sphingomyelins increases in : (1) Gaucher's disease (2) Niemann-Pick disease (3) Fabry's disease (4) Tarui's disease 72. RuBP carboxylase can utilize following as the substrate: (1) Water (2) 02 and CO2 (3) CO2 73. Gangliosides are the glycolipids in : (1) Brain (3) ](jdney (2) Liver (4) Muscle 74. The protein mOiety of lipoprotein is known us: (4) 02 (1) Apoprotein (2) Pre-protein (3) Pseudoprotein (4) Post-protein 75. The prostaglandins are synthesized from: (1) Linoleic acid (2) Linolenic acid (3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid 76. Chaulimoogric acid was earlier used in the treatment of : (1) Bronchitis (2) Nephritis (3) Leprosy (4) Oedema 77. Before the action of lipase, the fat is emulsified by: (1) Lipoproteins (2) Phospholipids (3) Digitonin (4) Ergosterol 78. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl eoA in : (1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondria (3) Lysosomes (4) Microsomes 79. The great majority of absorbed fat appears in the form of : (1) HDL (2) Chylomicrons (3) DL (4) VLDL 80. Carboxylation of acetylCoA to malonyl eoA requires; (1) Biotin (2) FAD (3) NAD+ (4) NADP+ 81. The prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited by : (1) Arsenite (2) Aspirin (3) Fluoride (4) Cyanide 71. The concentration of sphingomyelins increases in : (1) Gaucher's disease (2) Niemann-Pick disease (3) Fabry's disease (4) Tarui's disease 72. RuBP carboxylase can utilize following as the substrate: (1) Water (2) 02 and CO2 (3) CO2 73. Gangliosides are the glycolipids in : (1) Brain (3) ](jdney (2) Liver (4) Muscle 74. The protein mOiety of lipoprotein is known us: (4) 02 (1) Apoprotein (2) Pre-protein (3) Pseudoprotein (4) Post-protein 75. The prostaglandins are synthesized from: (1) Linoleic acid (2) Linolenic acid (3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid 76. Chaulimoogric acid was earlier used in the treatment of : (1) Bronchitis (2) Nephritis (3) Leprosy (4) Oedema 77. Before the action of lipase, the fat is emulsified by: (1) Lipoproteins (2) Phospholipids (3) Digitonin (4) Ergosterol 78. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl eoA in : (1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondria (3) Lysosomes (4) Microsomes 79. The great majority of absorbed fat appears in the form of : (1) HDL (2) Chylomicrons (3) DL (4) VLDL 80. Carboxylation of acetylCoA to malonyl eoA requires; (1) Biotin (2) FAD (3) NAD+ (4) NADP+ 81. The prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited by : (1) Arsenite (2) Aspirin (3) Fluoride (4) Cyanide 82. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of: (1) Citrate (3) Oxalosuccinate 83. Most nonpolar amino acid is : (1) Arginine (2) Glycine (2) Acetoacetate (4) Palmitoyl CoA (3) Leucine 84. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except: (4) Lysine (1) Methionine (2) Hydroxyproline (3) Cystine (4) Cysteine 85. The principal site for acidification of urine is : (1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule (3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle 86. Prost,aglandin decreases cAMP levels in : (1) Thyroid (2) Lung (3) Adipose tissue (4) Platelets 87. HDL is synthesized and secreted from: (1) Liver (2) Kidney (3) Pancreas (4) Muscle 88. The lowered glucokinase leading to diminished fatty acid synthesis in the liver is caused by : (1) Feeding (2) Overfeeding (3) Starvation (4) Diarrhea 89. The edible part of litchi is : (1) Mesocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Ari! (4) Seed coat 90. Fatty liver results in the deficiency of : (1) Vitamin A (2) Stearic acid (3) Caproic acid (4) Pantothenic acid 91. Ketone bodies are utilized in : (1) Mitochondria (3) Nucleus ( 10 ) (2) Extrahepatic tissues (4) Chromosomes 82. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of: (1) Citrate (3) Oxalosuccinate 83. Most nonpolar amino acid is : (1) Arginine (2) Glycine (2) Acetoacetate (4) Palmitoyl CoA (3) Leucine 84. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except: (4) Lysine (1) Methionine (2) Hydroxyproline (3) Cystine (4) Cysteine 85. The principal site for acidification of urine is : (1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule (3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle 86. Prost,aglandin decreases cAMP levels in : (1) Thyroid (2) Lung (3) Adipose tissue (4) Platelets 87. HDL is synthesized and secreted from: (1) Liver (2) Kidney (3) Pancreas (4) Muscle 88. The lowered glucokinase leading to diminished fatty acid synthesis in the liver is caused by : (1) Feeding (2) Overfeeding (3) Starvation (4) Diarrhea 89. The edible part of litchi is : (1) Mesocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Ari! (4) Seed coat 90. Fatty liver results in the deficiency of : (1) Vitamin A (2) Stearic acid (3) Caproic acid (4) Pantothenic acid 91. Ketone bodies are utilized in : (1) Mitochondria (3) Nucleus ( 10 ) (2) Extrahepatic tissues (4) Chromosomes 92. Eicosanoids are synthesized from: (1) Palmitic acid (3) Butyric add 93. Cyclo-oxygenase is known as : (1) Suicidal enzyme (3) Oxidizing enzyme 94. Leukotrienes are important in : (1) Oxidation reaction (3) Allergic reaction 95. The basic amino acid is : (1) Glycine (2) Proline (2) Stearic acid (4) Arachidonic acid (2) Inhibiting enzyme (4) Reducing enzyme (2) Reduction reaction (4) Inhibitory reaction (3) Serine (4) Histidine 96. i"roteins react with Biuret reagent suggesting 2 or more: (1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond (3) Disulfide bond (4) Hydrophobic bond 97. The milk protein in infants is digested by : (1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin (3) Chymotrypsin (4) Chymosin 98. Trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages in the small intestine containing: (1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Serine (4) Aspartate 99. The half life of an antibody is about: (1) One week (2) Two weeks (3) Three weeks (4) Four weeks 00. The metabolism of protein is integrated with carbohydrate and fat through: (1) Oxaloacetate (2) Malate (3) Citrate (4) lsocitrate 01. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of : (1) Phospholipids (2) Uric add (3) Glycolipids (4) Chondroitin sulfates 02. Keratin, the protein of hair, is synthesized from: (1) Glycine (2) Proline (3) Methionine (4) Serine 92. Eicosanoids are synthesized from: (1) Palmitic acid (3) Butyric add 93. Cyclo-oxygenase is known as : (1) Suicidal enzyme (3) Oxidizing enzyme 94. Leukotrienes are important in : (1) Oxidation reaction (3) Allergic reaction 95. The basic amino acid is : (1) Glycine (2) Proline (2) Stearic acid (4) Arachidonic acid (2) Inhibiting enzyme (4) Reducing enzyme (2) Reduction reaction (4) Inhibitory reaction (3) Serine (4) Histidine 96. i"roteins react with Biuret reagent suggesting 2 or more: (1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond (3) Disulfide bond (4) Hydrophobic bond 97. The milk protein in infants is digested by : (1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin (3) Chymotrypsin (4) Chymosin 98. Trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages in the small intestine containing: (1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Serine (4) Aspartate 99. The half life of an antibody is about: (1) One week (2) Two weeks (3) Three weeks (4) Four weeks 00. The metabolism of protein is integrated with carbohydrate and fat through: (1) Oxaloacetate (2) Malate (3) Citrate (4) lsocitrate 01. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of : (1) Phospholipids (2) Uric add (3) Glycolipids (4) Chondroitin sulfates 02. Keratin, the protein of hair, is synthesized from: (1) Glycine (2) Proline (3) Methionine (4) Serine 103. the cnd product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic animals is: (1) Urea (3) Bilirubin (2) Uric add (4) Biliverdin 104. Most amino acids arc substrate (or transamination except: (1) Alanine (2) Serine (3) Threonine (4) Valine 105. Oxidative conversion of amino acids to their corresponding keto acids OCell m: (I) Livcr & Kidney (2) Adipose tissue (3) Pancreas (4) Intostine 106. "Jh£' symptoms of ammonia intoxication includes: (1) Ulurring of vision (3) Constipation (2) Ml'ntal retardatiun (4) [)iarrhea 107. Amino acid with dissociation constant clo::;est to physiological pH is (I) 5.!rine (2) Histidine (3) 'Ihrconine (4) Proline 108. Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle arc: (1) Aspartate and ammonia (3) Arginine and ammonia (2) Glutamate and ammonia (4) Uric add 109. Force n1,.)t acting in an enzyme substrate complex: (1) Electrostatic (3) Hydrogcn 110. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by ; (1) Cy.nide (3) Chon,l.te 111. Triple bond:-; are formed betwccn (I) A•T (2) G-C (2) Covalent (4) Van der Waals (2) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbonated beverages (3) A•C (4) CoT , 12. Whi(:h fatty aCid is found exclusively in brca!'t milk? (I) l.inuleic acid (3) DocoSt.'lhexanoic acid ( 12 ) (2) Linolenic acid (4) Palmitic acid 103. the cnd product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic animals is: (1) Urea (3) Bilirubin (2) Uric add (4) Biliverdin 104. Most amino acids arc substrate (or transamination except: (1) Alanine (2) Serine (3) Threonine (4) Valine 105. Oxidative conversion of amino acids to their corresponding keto acids OCell m: (I) Livcr & Kidney (2) Adipose tissue (3) Pancreas (4) Intostine 106. "Jh£' symptoms of ammonia intoxication includes: (1) Ulurring of vision (3) Constipation (2) Ml'ntal retardatiun (4) [)iarrhea 107. Amino acid with dissociation constant clo::;est to physiological pH is (I) 5.!rine (2) Histidine (3) 'Ihrconine (4) Proline 108. Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle arc: (1) Aspartate and ammonia (3) Arginine and ammonia (2) Glutamate and ammonia (4) Uric add 109. Force n1,.)t acting in an enzyme substrate complex: (1) Electrostatic (3) Hydrogcn 110. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by ; (1) Cy.nide (3) Chon,l.te 111. Triple bond:-; are formed betwccn (I) A•T (2) G-C (2) Covalent (4) Van der Waals (2) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbonated beverages (3) A•C (4) CoT , 12. Whi(:h fatty aCid is found exclusively in brca!'t milk? (I) l.inuleic acid (3) DocoSt.'lhexanoic acid ( 12 ) (2) Linolenic acid (4) Palmitic acid 113. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is : (1) Myeloperoxidase (2) Superoxide dismutase (3) Monoamine oxidase (4) Hydroxylase 114. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from; (1) Ethylene (2) Propylene (3) Isoprene (4) Butadiene 115. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and myosin? (1) Troponin (2) Calmodulin (3) Thymosin (4) Tropomyosin , 16. Uremia occurs in : (1) Cirrhosis of liver (3) Diabetes mellitus 117. The sparing action of methionine is : (2) Nephritis (4) Coronary thrombosis (1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Cystine 118. Which of the following inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is used chemotherapeutic agent? (1). Methotrexate (2) Fluorouridine (3) Aminopterin (4) Trimethoprirn 119. Which of the following best describes the role of sigma factor in synthesis? (1) It is essential for elongation as a RNA (2) It is responsible for the recognition of the specific initiation sites on a DNA template (3) It is responsible for releasing the completed chain (4) It is responsible for separation of DNA strands 120. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by: (1) Chemical methods (2) Physical methods (3) Chemiosmotic methods (4) Conformational changes 113. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is : (1) Myeloperoxidase (2) Superoxide dismutase (3) Monoamine oxidase (4) Hydroxylase 114. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from; (1) Ethylene (2) Propylene (3) Isoprene (4) Butadiene 115. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and myosin? (1) Troponin (2) Calmodulin (3) Thymosin (4) Tropomyosin , 16. Uremia occurs in : (1) Cirrhosis of liver (3) Diabetes mellitus 117. The sparing action of methionine is : (2) Nephritis (4) Coronary thrombosis (1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Cystine 118. Which of the following inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is used chemotherapeutic agent? (1). Methotrexate (2) Fluorouridine (3) Aminopterin (4) Trimethoprirn 119. Which of the following best describes the role of sigma factor in synthesis? (1) It is essential for elongation as a RNA (2) It is responsible for the recognition of the specific initiation sites on a DNA template (3) It is responsible for releasing the completed chain (4) It is responsible for separation of DNA strands 120. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by: (1) Chemical methods (2) Physical methods (3) Chemiosmotic methods (4) Conformational changes 121. TRH stimulation testing is useful in the diagnosis of disorders of which of the following hormones? (1) Insulin (3) Growth hormone (2) AClH (4) PIH 122. Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of : (1) Histidine (2) Keratin (3) Lysine (4) Cysteine 123. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because : (\) It is an open system (3) It is governed by vitalism 124. HIV virus contains : (\) Single stranded DNA (3) Double stranded DNA (2) It is a closed system (4) It is related to thermodynamics (2) Single stranded RNA (4) Double stranded RNA 125. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except: (\) Phenytoin (2) Diazepam (3) Morphin (4) Heparin 126. The oxidation and phosphorylation is completely blocked by : (\) Oligomycin (2) Streptomycin (3) Puromycin (4) Gentamycin 127. Zinc is a constituent of : (\) Carbonic anhydrase (3) Amylase (2) Malate dehydrogenase (4) Aldolase 128. The absorption of calcium is increased by : (\) Fat (2) Protein (3) Cereal (4) Vitamin A 129. Biological value of proteins depend on the presence of : (\) Essential amino acids (2) Semi-essential amino acids (3) Non•essential amino acids (4) Incomplete proteins 130. Carotenes are transported through : (\) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Minerals (4) Lipoproteins 121. TRH stimulation testing is useful in the diagnosis of disorders of which of the following hormones? (1) Insulin (3) Growth hormone (2) AClH (4) PIH 122. Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of : (1) Histidine (2) Keratin (3) Lysine (4) Cysteine 123. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because : (\) It is an open system (3) It is governed by vitalism 124. HIV virus contains : (\) Single stranded DNA (3) Double stranded DNA (2) It is a closed system (4) It is related to thermodynamics (2) Single stranded RNA (4) Double stranded RNA 125. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except: (\) Phenytoin (2) Diazepam (3) Morphin (4) Heparin 126. The oxidation and phosphorylation is completely blocked by : (\) Oligomycin (2) Streptomycin (3) Puromycin (4) Gentamycin 127. Zinc is a constituent of : (\) Carbonic anhydrase (3) Amylase (2) Malate dehydrogenase (4) Aldolase 128. The absorption of calcium is increased by : (\) Fat (2) Protein (3) Cereal (4) Vitamin A 129. Biological value of proteins depend on the presence of : (\) Essential amino acids (2) Semi-essential amino acids (3) Non•essential amino acids (4) Incomplete proteins 130. Carotenes are transported through : (\) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Minerals (4) Lipoproteins ( 14 ) 12P1210130 131. The poor source of Vitamin D is : (1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Egg (4) ,Liver 132. Sterilized milk is devoid of : (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin 0 133. Blotting technique used for identification of protein is : (1) Northern blot (2) Southern blot (3) Eastern blot (4) Western blot 134. The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is : (1) ALP (2) Amylase (3) AST (4) LDH 135. The key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is : (1) HMG CoA synthase (2) HMG CoA reductase (3) Thiolase (4) Mevalonate kinase, 136. All of the following Vitamins playa key role in TCA cycle except: (1) Niacin (2) Riboflavin (3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid 137. Dry ice is: (1) Solid ice without any water (3) Solid C6H6 138. Aminosugar is the component of : (1) Glycogen (3) DNA 139. Purely ketogenic amino add is : (1) Arginine (2) Leucine (2) Solid CO2 (4) Solid 502 (2) Cellulose (4) Blood group substances (3) Tryptophan (4) , Valine • 140. Number of disulphide bonds in the structure of insulin is : (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 141. Deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the activity of : (1) Galactosyl transferase (2) ALA synthetase (3) Lysyl hydroxylase (4) Lysyloxidase ( 15 ) P.T.O. 12P1210130 131. The poor source of Vitamin D is : (1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Egg (4) ,Liver 132. Sterilized milk is devoid of : (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin 0 133. Blotting technique used for identification of protein is : (1) Northern blot (2) Southern blot (3) Eastern blot (4) Western blot 134. The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is : (1) ALP (2) Amylase (3) AST (4) LDH 135. The key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is : (1) HMG CoA synthase (2) HMG CoA reductase (3) Thiolase (4) Mevalonate kinase, 136. All of the following Vitamins playa key role in TCA cycle except: (1) Niacin (2) Riboflavin (3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid 137. Dry ice is: (1) Solid ice without any water (3) Solid C6H6 138. Aminosugar is the component of : (1) Glycogen (3) DNA 139. Purely ketogenic amino add is : (1) Arginine (2) Leucine (2) Solid CO2 (4) Solid 502 (2) Cellulose (4) Blood group substances (3) Tryptophan (4) , Valine • 140. Number of disulphide bonds in the structure of insulin is : (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 141. Deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the activity of : (1) Galactosyl transferase (2) ALA synthetase (3) Lysyl hydroxylase (4) Lysyloxidase ( 15 ) P.T.O. 12P/21 0130 142. The sugar residues in amylose are linked by: (1) Alpha-I, 4 linkage (2) Beta-l,4 linkage (3) Beta-I, 6 linkage (4) Alpha-I,2Iinkage 143. Which of the following lipid accumulates in Tay-sach's disease? (1) Sphingomyelin (2) Ganglioside GM2 (3) Glucocerebroside (4) Galactocerebroside 144. The antibody class that can cross the placental barrier to protect the fetus is : (1) IgA (2) IgE (3) IgG (4) IgM 145. All of the following enzymes are catalyzing the irreversible reactions of glycolysis except : (1) Hexokinase (2) Phosphofructokinase (3) Phosphoglycerate kinase 146. Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle is: (1) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (2) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (3) Omathine transcarbamoylase (4) Argininosucdnate synthase (4) Pyruvate kinase 147. Carcinogenicity with radiant energy is to cause damage to: (1) RNA (2) DNA (3) mRNA 148. The renal glutaminase activity is enhanced by : (1) Acidosis (2) Alkalosis (3) Oxidases 149. Respiration is directly linked with lhe buffer systems of : (1) Bicarbonate (2) Phosphate (3) Protein 150. The pathogenic bacteria are killed by : (1) Chlorine (2) Fluorine (3) Bromine ( 16 ) (4) tRNA (4) Phosphatases (4) Hemoglobin (4) Iodine |
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