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July 7th, 2014, 10:50 AM
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Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry

Will you please give me the Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry as it is very urgent for me?
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  #2  
July 8th, 2014, 10:26 AM
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Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry

As you want to get the Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry so here is the information of the same for you:

1. Acetyl CoA directly gives rise to all except:
(1) Glucose
(3) Cholesterol
2. Ovarian reserve is best indicated by :
(1) LH
(3) LH/FSH ratio
3. Hyperaldosteronism causes all except:
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hypertension
4. The chief mineral of bone is :
(1) Calcium oxalate
(3) Hydroxyapetite
5. Splicing is done by :

(1) mRNA (2) tRNA
(2) Ketone bodies
(4) Fatty acids
(2) FSH
(4) Estrogen
(2) Hypematremia
(4) Metabolic acidosis
(2) Calcium carbonate
(4) Calcite
(3) rRNA (4) SnRNA
6. Which of the following serves as a coenzyme for transketolase ?
(1) Thiamine (2) Biotin
(3) Pyridoxine (4) Cobalamine
7. Malabsorption is caused by all except:
(1) Ascaris lumbricodes
(3) Strongyloides
(2) Capillaria phillipinensis
(4) Giardia lamblia
8. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) AUG (4) UGA
9. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is
known as:
(1) Intron
(3) Plasmid
(2) Exon
(4) TATA box
10. Eukaryotic cell membrane is formed by all except:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Lecithin
(3) Triglycerides (4) Carbohydrates
11. Insulin is responsible for all except:
(1) Glycolysis
(3) Lipogenesis
(2) Glycogenesis
(4) Ketogenesis
12. Free radicals in lens are held by all except:
(1) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin C
13. Hyaluronic acid is present in:
(1) Vitreous humor
(3) Dermis
14. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
(1) lnhibin
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(2 )
(2) Vitamin E
(4) Glutathione peroxidase
(2) Cornea
(4) Mast cells
(2) Melatonin
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone
6. Which of the following serves as a coenzyme for transketolase ?
(1) Thiamine (2) Biotin
(3) Pyridoxine (4) Cobalamine
7. Malabsorption is caused by all except:
(1) Ascaris lumbricodes
(3) Strongyloides
(2) Capillaria phillipinensis
(4) Giardia lamblia
8. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) AUG (4) UGA
9. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is
known as:
(1) Intron
(3) Plasmid
(2) Exon
(4) TATA box
10. Eukaryotic cell membrane is formed by all except:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Lecithin
(3) Triglycerides (4) Carbohydrates
11. Insulin is responsible for all except:
(1) Glycolysis
(3) Lipogenesis
(2) Glycogenesis
(4) Ketogenesis
12. Free radicals in lens are held by all except:
(1) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin C
13. Hyaluronic acid is present in:
(1) Vitreous humor
(3) Dermis
14. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
(1) lnhibin
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(2 )
(2) Vitamin E
(4) Glutathione peroxidase
(2) Cornea
(4) Mast cells
(2) Melatonin
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone
15. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in eNS is :
(1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate
(3) Glycine (4) Acetylcholine
16. Which of the following element is known to influence body's ability to handle
oxidative stress?
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium (3) Selenium (4) Iron
17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the
growing ovarian follicle is :
(1) Desmolase
(3) Isomerase
(2) Hydroxylase
(4) Aromatase
18. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA from a single stranded RNA
template is known as :
(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) DNA topoisomerase (4) Reverse transcriptase
19. Proteins targeted for destruction ir. eukaryotes are covalently linked to :
(1) Pepsin (2) Clathrin
(3) Ubiquitin (4) Laminin
20. Which of the following assist in protein folding?
(1) Proteases (2) Templates
(3) Proteosomes (4) Chaperones
214 Restriction endonuclease cut the D~'IA into fragments by:
(1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase III
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase
22. The chief organelle involved in afFlptosis is :
(1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria
23. Functions of CD4 are all except:
(1) Antibody production
(3) Opsonization
(3)
(2) Immunogenic memory
(4) Activate cytotoxic cells
15. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in eNS is :
(1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate
(3) Glycine (4) Acetylcholine
16. Which of the following element is known to influence body's ability to handle
oxidative stress?
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium (3) Selenium (4) Iron
17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the
growing ovarian follicle is :
(1) Desmolase
(3) Isomerase
(2) Hydroxylase
(4) Aromatase
18. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA from a single stranded RNA
template is known as :
(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) DNA topoisomerase (4) Reverse transcriptase
19. Proteins targeted for destruction ir. eukaryotes are covalently linked to :
(1) Pepsin (2) Clathrin
(3) Ubiquitin (4) Laminin
20. Which of the following assist in protein folding?
(1) Proteases (2) Templates
(3) Proteosomes (4) Chaperones
214 Restriction endonuclease cut the D~'IA into fragments by:
(1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase III
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase
22. The chief organelle involved in afFlptosis is :
(1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria
23. Functions of CD4 are all except:
(1) Antibody production
(3) Opsonization
(3)
(2) Immunogenic memory
(4) Activate cytotoxic cells
24. Antigen-antibody precipitation is maximum in :
(1) Antigen excess
(2) Antibody excess
(3) Equivalence of antigen antibody
(4) Interaction of antibody with haptens
25. Which of the following is seen in a patient with severe hyperglycemia receiving
insulin?
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hyponatremia
(2) Hyperkalemia
(4) Hypematremia
26. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is :
(1) Serum iron levels
(2) Serum ferritin levels
(3) Transferrin saturation
(4) Serum transfecing receptor population
27. Glutathione present in the membrane of RBCs is:
(1) A lipid (2) A dipeptide
(3) A tripeptide (4) An oligosaccharide
28. Urine on exposure to air and light turns black in :
(1) Alcaptonuria (2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Homocystinuria (4) Maple syrup urine disease
29. Heme synthesis requires all except:
(1) Iron
(3) Vitamin B6
(2) Glycine
(4) Selenium
30. All of the following are branched chain amino acids except:
(1) Leucine (2) Isoleucine
(3) Lysine
31. Respiratory acidosis may be due to :
(1) Pneumonia
(3) Hyperventilation
( 4 )
(4) Valine
(2) VOmiting
(4) Starvation
24. Antigen-antibody precipitation is maximum in :
(1) Antigen excess
(2) Antibody excess
(3) Equivalence of antigen antibody
(4) Interaction of antibody with haptens
25. Which of the following is seen in a patient with severe hyperglycemia receiving
insulin?
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hyponatremia
(2) Hyperkalemia
(4) Hypematremia
26. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is :
(1) Serum iron levels
(2) Serum ferritin levels
(3) Transferrin saturation
(4) Serum transfecing receptor population
27. Glutathione present in the membrane of RBCs is:
(1) A lipid (2) A dipeptide
(3) A tripeptide (4) An oligosaccharide
28. Urine on exposure to air and light turns black in :
(1) Alcaptonuria (2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Homocystinuria (4) Maple syrup urine disease
29. Heme synthesis requires all except:
(1) Iron
(3) Vitamin B6
(2) Glycine
(4) Selenium
30. All of the following are branched chain amino acids except:
(1) Leucine (2) Isoleucine
(3) Lysine
31. Respiratory acidosis may be due to :
(1) Pneumonia
(3) Hyperventilation
( 4 )
(4) Valine
(2) VOmiting
(4) Starvation
12P1210J30
32. Which of the following amino add does not have a codon?
(1) Alanine (2) Valine (3) Taurine (4) Methionine
33. All of the following biochemical pathways occUr in mitochondria except:
(1) Krebs Cycle (2) Ketogenesis
(3) Fatty add oxidation (4) Fatty add synthesis
34. Malonate competitively inhibits:
(1) Fumarate dehydrogenase
(3) Sued nate dehydrogenase
35. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is :
(1) An oxidoreductase
(3) A ligase
(2) Sucdnate thiokinase
(4) Aconitase
(2) A transferase
(4) A hydrolase
36. Beta-oxidation of odd chain fatty adds produces:
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Propionyl CoA
(3) Malonyl CoA (4) Sucdnyl CoA
37. Decreased glycolytic activity impaires oxygen transport by Hemoglobin due to
(1) Decreased production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate
(2) Low levels of oxygen
(3) Reduced energy production
(4) Reduced production of hemoglobin
38. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is :
(1) Glutathione- S- transferase
(3) Cytochrome P450 reductase
(2) Cytochrome P450
(4) Glucuronyl transferase
39. Which of the following statement is correct about Vitamin B 12 ?
(1) The coenzyme form is Vitamin B 12 itself
(2) It requires an intrinsic factor for its absorption
(3) It is involved in the transfer of amino groups
(4) It is present in plant sources
32. Which of the following amino add does not have a codon?
(1) Alanine (2) Valine (3) Taurine (4) Methionine
33. All of the following biochemical pathways occUr in mitochondria except:
(1) Krebs Cycle (2) Ketogenesis
(3) Fatty add oxidation (4) Fatty add synthesis
34. Malonate competitively inhibits:
(1) Fumarate dehydrogenase
(3) Sued nate dehydrogenase
35. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is :
(1) An oxidoreductase
(3) A ligase
(2) Sucdnate thiokinase
(4) Aconitase
(2) A transferase
(4) A hydrolase
36. Beta-oxidation of odd chain fatty adds produces:
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Propionyl CoA
(3) Malonyl CoA (4) Sucdnyl CoA
37. Decreased glycolytic activity impaires oxygen transport by Hemoglobin due to
(1) Decreased production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate
(2) Low levels of oxygen
(3) Reduced energy production
(4) Reduced production of hemoglobin
38. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is :
(1) Glutathione- S- transferase
(3) Cytochrome P450 reductase
(2) Cytochrome P450
(4) Glucuronyl transferase
39. Which of the following statement is correct about Vitamin B 12 ?
(1) The coenzyme form is Vitamin B 12 itself
(2) It requires an intrinsic factor for its absorption
(3) It is involved in the transfer of amino groups
(4) It is present in plant sources
40. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of :
(1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (2) Phenylpyruvate hydroxylase
(3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase
41. In a solution, the concentration of H+ ion is 1 x ] 0 moles/I. The pH of the
solution is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) . 12
42. Bacteria capable of growing in 3M NaCI are called:
(1) Haplophiles (2) Osmotolerant
(3) Aerotolerant (4) Thermophiles
43. Glycogen storage disease includes all of the following except:
(1) Forbe's disease (2) Fabry's disease
(3) Hers'Disease (4) Anderson's disease
44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to complete deficiency of :
(1) HGPR Tase (2) Xanthine oxidase
(3) Purine phosphorylase (4) Adenosine deaminase
45. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in maple syrup urine disease?
(1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine
46. The minimum number of polypeptide chain in immunoglobulin is :
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
47. The osmotic pressure of a solution relating to solute molecules depend on the:
(1) Size (2) Shape (3) Volume (4) Number
48. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of :
(1) Amylase (2) lipase
(3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin
49. The epimer of glucose is :
(1) Fructose (2) Ribose (3) Galactose (4) Deoxyribose
40. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of :
(1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (2) Phenylpyruvate hydroxylase
(3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase
41. In a solution, the concentration of H+ ion is 1 x ] 0 moles/I. The pH of the
solution is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) . 12
42. Bacteria capable of growing in 3M NaCI are called:
(1) Haplophiles (2) Osmotolerant
(3) Aerotolerant (4) Thermophiles
43. Glycogen storage disease includes all of the following except:
(1) Forbe's disease (2) Fabry's disease
(3) Hers'Disease (4) Anderson's disease
44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to complete deficiency of :
(1) HGPR Tase (2) Xanthine oxidase
(3) Purine phosphorylase (4) Adenosine deaminase
45. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in maple syrup urine disease?
(1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine
46. The minimum number of polypeptide chain in immunoglobulin is :
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
47. The osmotic pressure of a solution relating to solute molecules depend on the:
(1) Size (2) Shape (3) Volume (4) Number
48. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of :
(1) Amylase (2) lipase
(3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin
49. The epimer of glucose is :
(1) Fructose (2) Ribose (3) Galactose (4) Deoxyribose
50. Human heart muscle contains:
(1) D-ribose (2) D-arabinose (3) D-xylose (4) D-lyxose
51. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of :
(1) Lactose (2) Maltose (3) Starch (4) Insulin
52. Osmosis is opposite to :
(1) Affusion (2) Effusion (3) Diffusion (4) Confusion
53. The surface tension of a solution is increased by :
(1) Bile salts (2) Bile acids
(3) Conc. Sulphuric acid (4) Acetic acid
54. Large amount of teicoic acid polymer is found in :
(1) Gram +ve bacteria
.. (3) Green algae
(2) Gram -ve bacteria
(4) Blue green algae
55. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through:
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport
(3) Facilitated transfer (4) Nonfacilitated transfer
56. Iodine solution produces no colour with:
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Dextrin
57. Barfode's solution is not reduced by ;
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Mannose
58. N~acetylneuraminic acid is known as : .
(1) Sialic acid
(3) Mucic acid
59. Blood group substances consist of :
(1) Lactose (2) Fucose
(2) Hippuric acid
(4) Glucuronic acid
(3) Maltose (4) Mucose
60. The component of cartilage and cornea is :
(1) Keratan sulphate (2) Chondroitin sulphate
(3) Antimony sulphate (4) Cadmium sulphate
50. Human heart muscle contains:
(1) D-ribose (2) D-arabinose (3) D-xylose (4) D-lyxose
51. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of :
(1) Lactose (2) Maltose (3) Starch (4) Insulin
52. Osmosis is opposite to :
(1) Affusion (2) Effusion (3) Diffusion (4) Confusion
53. The surface tension of a solution is increased by :
(1) Bile salts (2) Bile acids
(3) Conc. Sulphuric acid (4) Acetic acid
54. Large amount of teicoic acid polymer is found in :
(1) Gram +ve bacteria
.. (3) Green algae
(2) Gram -ve bacteria
(4) Blue green algae
55. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through:
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport
(3) Facilitated transfer (4) Nonfacilitated transfer
56. Iodine solution produces no colour with:
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Dextrin
57. Barfode's solution is not reduced by ;
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Mannose
58. N~acetylneuraminic acid is known as : .
(1) Sialic acid
(3) Mucic acid
59. Blood group substances consist of :
(1) Lactose (2) Fucose
(2) Hippuric acid
(4) Glucuronic acid
(3) Maltose (4) Mucose
60. The component of cartilage and cornea is :
(1) Keratan sulphate (2) Chondroitin sulphate
(3) Antimony sulphate (4) Cadmium sulphate
61. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are :
(1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Oxidases (4) Ligases
62. Magnesium is required for:
(1) Aldolase
(3) Dismutase
63. Thiamine level is best monitored by :
(1) Transketolase level in blood
(2) Thiamine level in blood
(2) ATPase
(4) Phosphatase
(3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase activity
(4) Reticulocytosis
64. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all except:
(1) Tyrosine (2) ThyroxinE (3) Epinephrine (4) Melatonin
65. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by :
(1) Tubulin (2) Ubiquitin (3) Laminin
66. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of :
(1) Succinyl CoA to succinate
(2) Acetoacetate to alpha ketoglutarate
(3) Succinate to fumarate
(4) Fumarate to malate
67. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is:
(1) Succinate (2) Fumarate
68. "Fructokinase is present in :
(3) Malate
(1) Intestine (2) Adipose tissue (3) Brain
69. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base as :
(1) Ethanolamine (2) Choline
(3) Inositol (4) Lipositol
70. Phosphatidyl inositol is found in :
(1) Cabbage (2). Cauliflower (3) Soyabean
( 8 )
(4) Keratin
(4) Oxaloacetate
(4) Heart
(4) Apple
61. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are :
(1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Oxidases (4) Ligases
62. Magnesium is required for:
(1) Aldolase
(3) Dismutase
63. Thiamine level is best monitored by :
(1) Transketolase level in blood
(2) Thiamine level in blood
(2) ATPase
(4) Phosphatase
(3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase activity
(4) Reticulocytosis
64. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all except:
(1) Tyrosine (2) ThyroxinE (3) Epinephrine (4) Melatonin
65. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by :
(1) Tubulin (2) Ubiquitin (3) Laminin
66. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of :
(1) Succinyl CoA to succinate
(2) Acetoacetate to alpha ketoglutarate
(3) Succinate to fumarate
(4) Fumarate to malate
67. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is:
(1) Succinate (2) Fumarate
68. "Fructokinase is present in :
(3) Malate
(1) Intestine (2) Adipose tissue (3) Brain
69. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base as :
(1) Ethanolamine (2) Choline
(3) Inositol (4) Lipositol
70. Phosphatidyl inositol is found in :
(1) Cabbage (2). Cauliflower (3) Soyabean
( 8 )
(4) Keratin
(4) Oxaloacetate
(4) Heart
(4) Apple
  #3  
July 8th, 2014, 10:26 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: Banaras Hindu University Postgraduate Entrance Test last year papers of M.Sc Biochemistry

71. The concentration of sphingomyelins increases in :
(1) Gaucher's disease (2) Niemann-Pick disease
(3) Fabry's disease (4) Tarui's disease
72. RuBP carboxylase can utilize following as the substrate:
(1) Water (2) 02 and CO2 (3) CO2
73. Gangliosides are the glycolipids in :
(1) Brain
(3) ](jdney
(2) Liver
(4) Muscle
74. The protein mOiety of lipoprotein is known us:
(4) 02
(1) Apoprotein (2) Pre-protein (3) Pseudoprotein (4) Post-protein
75. The prostaglandins are synthesized from:
(1) Linoleic acid (2) Linolenic acid
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
76. Chaulimoogric acid was earlier used in the treatment of :
(1) Bronchitis (2) Nephritis
(3) Leprosy (4) Oedema
77. Before the action of lipase, the fat is emulsified by:
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Phospholipids
(3) Digitonin (4) Ergosterol
78. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl eoA in :
(1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondria (3) Lysosomes (4) Microsomes
79. The great majority of absorbed fat appears in the form of :
(1) HDL (2) Chylomicrons (3) DL (4) VLDL
80. Carboxylation of acetylCoA to malonyl eoA requires;
(1) Biotin (2) FAD (3) NAD+ (4) NADP+
81. The prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited by :
(1) Arsenite (2) Aspirin (3) Fluoride (4) Cyanide
71. The concentration of sphingomyelins increases in :
(1) Gaucher's disease (2) Niemann-Pick disease
(3) Fabry's disease (4) Tarui's disease
72. RuBP carboxylase can utilize following as the substrate:
(1) Water (2) 02 and CO2 (3) CO2
73. Gangliosides are the glycolipids in :
(1) Brain
(3) ](jdney
(2) Liver
(4) Muscle
74. The protein mOiety of lipoprotein is known us:
(4) 02
(1) Apoprotein (2) Pre-protein (3) Pseudoprotein (4) Post-protein
75. The prostaglandins are synthesized from:
(1) Linoleic acid (2) Linolenic acid
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
76. Chaulimoogric acid was earlier used in the treatment of :
(1) Bronchitis (2) Nephritis
(3) Leprosy (4) Oedema
77. Before the action of lipase, the fat is emulsified by:
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Phospholipids
(3) Digitonin (4) Ergosterol
78. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl eoA in :
(1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondria (3) Lysosomes (4) Microsomes
79. The great majority of absorbed fat appears in the form of :
(1) HDL (2) Chylomicrons (3) DL (4) VLDL
80. Carboxylation of acetylCoA to malonyl eoA requires;
(1) Biotin (2) FAD (3) NAD+ (4) NADP+
81. The prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited by :
(1) Arsenite (2) Aspirin (3) Fluoride (4) Cyanide
82. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis
of:
(1) Citrate
(3) Oxalosuccinate
83. Most nonpolar amino acid is :
(1) Arginine (2) Glycine
(2) Acetoacetate
(4) Palmitoyl CoA
(3) Leucine
84. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except:
(4) Lysine
(1) Methionine (2) Hydroxyproline
(3) Cystine (4) Cysteine
85. The principal site for acidification of urine is :
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle
86. Prost,aglandin decreases cAMP levels in :
(1) Thyroid (2) Lung (3) Adipose tissue (4) Platelets
87. HDL is synthesized and secreted from:
(1) Liver (2) Kidney
(3) Pancreas (4) Muscle
88. The lowered glucokinase leading to diminished fatty acid synthesis in the liver
is caused by :
(1) Feeding (2) Overfeeding (3) Starvation (4) Diarrhea
89. The edible part of litchi is :
(1) Mesocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Ari! (4) Seed coat
90. Fatty liver results in the deficiency of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Stearic acid (3) Caproic acid (4) Pantothenic acid
91. Ketone bodies are utilized in :
(1) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
( 10 )
(2) Extrahepatic tissues
(4) Chromosomes
82. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis
of:
(1) Citrate
(3) Oxalosuccinate
83. Most nonpolar amino acid is :
(1) Arginine (2) Glycine
(2) Acetoacetate
(4) Palmitoyl CoA
(3) Leucine
84. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except:
(4) Lysine
(1) Methionine (2) Hydroxyproline
(3) Cystine (4) Cysteine
85. The principal site for acidification of urine is :
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle
86. Prost,aglandin decreases cAMP levels in :
(1) Thyroid (2) Lung (3) Adipose tissue (4) Platelets
87. HDL is synthesized and secreted from:
(1) Liver (2) Kidney
(3) Pancreas (4) Muscle
88. The lowered glucokinase leading to diminished fatty acid synthesis in the liver
is caused by :
(1) Feeding (2) Overfeeding (3) Starvation (4) Diarrhea
89. The edible part of litchi is :
(1) Mesocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Ari! (4) Seed coat
90. Fatty liver results in the deficiency of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Stearic acid (3) Caproic acid (4) Pantothenic acid
91. Ketone bodies are utilized in :
(1) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
( 10 )
(2) Extrahepatic tissues
(4) Chromosomes
92. Eicosanoids are synthesized from:
(1) Palmitic acid
(3) Butyric add
93. Cyclo-oxygenase is known as :
(1) Suicidal enzyme
(3) Oxidizing enzyme
94. Leukotrienes are important in :
(1) Oxidation reaction
(3) Allergic reaction
95. The basic amino acid is :
(1) Glycine (2) Proline
(2) Stearic acid
(4) Arachidonic acid
(2) Inhibiting enzyme
(4) Reducing enzyme
(2) Reduction reaction
(4) Inhibitory reaction
(3) Serine (4) Histidine
96. i"roteins react with Biuret reagent suggesting 2 or more:
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond
(3) Disulfide bond (4) Hydrophobic bond
97. The milk protein in infants is digested by :
(1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin (3) Chymotrypsin (4) Chymosin
98. Trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages in the small intestine containing:
(1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Serine (4) Aspartate
99. The half life of an antibody is about:
(1) One week (2) Two weeks (3) Three weeks (4) Four weeks
00. The metabolism of protein is integrated with carbohydrate and fat through:
(1) Oxaloacetate (2) Malate (3) Citrate (4) lsocitrate
01. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of :
(1) Phospholipids (2) Uric add
(3) Glycolipids (4) Chondroitin sulfates
02. Keratin, the protein of hair, is synthesized from:
(1) Glycine (2) Proline (3) Methionine (4) Serine
92. Eicosanoids are synthesized from:
(1) Palmitic acid
(3) Butyric add
93. Cyclo-oxygenase is known as :
(1) Suicidal enzyme
(3) Oxidizing enzyme
94. Leukotrienes are important in :
(1) Oxidation reaction
(3) Allergic reaction
95. The basic amino acid is :
(1) Glycine (2) Proline
(2) Stearic acid
(4) Arachidonic acid
(2) Inhibiting enzyme
(4) Reducing enzyme
(2) Reduction reaction
(4) Inhibitory reaction
(3) Serine (4) Histidine
96. i"roteins react with Biuret reagent suggesting 2 or more:
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond
(3) Disulfide bond (4) Hydrophobic bond
97. The milk protein in infants is digested by :
(1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin (3) Chymotrypsin (4) Chymosin
98. Trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages in the small intestine containing:
(1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Serine (4) Aspartate
99. The half life of an antibody is about:
(1) One week (2) Two weeks (3) Three weeks (4) Four weeks
00. The metabolism of protein is integrated with carbohydrate and fat through:
(1) Oxaloacetate (2) Malate (3) Citrate (4) lsocitrate
01. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of :
(1) Phospholipids (2) Uric add
(3) Glycolipids (4) Chondroitin sulfates
02. Keratin, the protein of hair, is synthesized from:
(1) Glycine (2) Proline (3) Methionine (4) Serine
103. the cnd product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic animals is:
(1) Urea
(3) Bilirubin
(2) Uric add
(4) Biliverdin
104. Most amino acids arc substrate (or transamination except:
(1) Alanine (2) Serine (3) Threonine (4) Valine
105. Oxidative conversion of amino acids to their corresponding keto acids OCell
m:
(I) Livcr & Kidney (2) Adipose tissue (3) Pancreas (4) Intostine
106. "Jh£' symptoms of ammonia intoxication includes:
(1) Ulurring of vision
(3) Constipation
(2) Ml'ntal retardatiun
(4) [)iarrhea
107. Amino acid with dissociation constant clo::;est to physiological pH is
(I) 5.!rine (2) Histidine (3) 'Ihrconine (4) Proline
108. Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle arc:
(1) Aspartate and ammonia
(3) Arginine and ammonia
(2) Glutamate and ammonia
(4) Uric add
109. Force n1,.)t acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
(1) Electrostatic
(3) Hydrogcn
110. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by ;
(1) Cy.nide
(3) Chon,l.te
111. Triple bond:-; are formed betwccn
(I) A•T (2) G-C
(2) Covalent
(4) Van der Waals
(2) Carbon dioxide
(4) Carbonated beverages
(3) A•C (4) CoT
, 12. Whi(:h fatty aCid is found exclusively in brca!'t milk?
(I) l.inuleic acid
(3) DocoSt.'lhexanoic acid
( 12 )
(2) Linolenic acid
(4) Palmitic acid
103. the cnd product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic animals is:
(1) Urea
(3) Bilirubin
(2) Uric add
(4) Biliverdin
104. Most amino acids arc substrate (or transamination except:
(1) Alanine (2) Serine (3) Threonine (4) Valine
105. Oxidative conversion of amino acids to their corresponding keto acids OCell
m:
(I) Livcr & Kidney (2) Adipose tissue (3) Pancreas (4) Intostine
106. "Jh£' symptoms of ammonia intoxication includes:
(1) Ulurring of vision
(3) Constipation
(2) Ml'ntal retardatiun
(4) [)iarrhea
107. Amino acid with dissociation constant clo::;est to physiological pH is
(I) 5.!rine (2) Histidine (3) 'Ihrconine (4) Proline
108. Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle arc:
(1) Aspartate and ammonia
(3) Arginine and ammonia
(2) Glutamate and ammonia
(4) Uric add
109. Force n1,.)t acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
(1) Electrostatic
(3) Hydrogcn
110. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by ;
(1) Cy.nide
(3) Chon,l.te
111. Triple bond:-; are formed betwccn
(I) A•T (2) G-C
(2) Covalent
(4) Van der Waals
(2) Carbon dioxide
(4) Carbonated beverages
(3) A•C (4) CoT
, 12. Whi(:h fatty aCid is found exclusively in brca!'t milk?
(I) l.inuleic acid
(3) DocoSt.'lhexanoic acid
( 12 )
(2) Linolenic acid
(4) Palmitic acid
113. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is :
(1) Myeloperoxidase (2) Superoxide dismutase
(3) Monoamine oxidase (4) Hydroxylase
114. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from;
(1) Ethylene (2) Propylene (3) Isoprene (4) Butadiene
115. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
myosin?
(1) Troponin (2) Calmodulin (3) Thymosin (4) Tropomyosin
, 16. Uremia occurs in :
(1) Cirrhosis of liver
(3) Diabetes mellitus
117. The sparing action of methionine is :
(2) Nephritis
(4) Coronary thrombosis
(1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Cystine
118. Which of the following inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is used
chemotherapeutic agent?
(1). Methotrexate (2) Fluorouridine
(3) Aminopterin (4) Trimethoprirn
119. Which of the following best describes the role of sigma factor in
synthesis?
(1) It is essential for elongation
as a
RNA
(2) It is responsible for the recognition of the specific initiation sites on a DNA
template
(3) It is responsible for releasing the completed chain
(4) It is responsible for separation of DNA strands
120. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are
linked by:
(1) Chemical methods (2) Physical methods
(3) Chemiosmotic methods (4) Conformational changes
113. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is :
(1) Myeloperoxidase (2) Superoxide dismutase
(3) Monoamine oxidase (4) Hydroxylase
114. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from;
(1) Ethylene (2) Propylene (3) Isoprene (4) Butadiene
115. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
myosin?
(1) Troponin (2) Calmodulin (3) Thymosin (4) Tropomyosin
, 16. Uremia occurs in :
(1) Cirrhosis of liver
(3) Diabetes mellitus
117. The sparing action of methionine is :
(2) Nephritis
(4) Coronary thrombosis
(1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Cystine
118. Which of the following inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is used
chemotherapeutic agent?
(1). Methotrexate (2) Fluorouridine
(3) Aminopterin (4) Trimethoprirn
119. Which of the following best describes the role of sigma factor in
synthesis?
(1) It is essential for elongation
as a
RNA
(2) It is responsible for the recognition of the specific initiation sites on a DNA
template
(3) It is responsible for releasing the completed chain
(4) It is responsible for separation of DNA strands
120. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are
linked by:
(1) Chemical methods (2) Physical methods
(3) Chemiosmotic methods (4) Conformational changes
121. TRH stimulation testing is useful in the diagnosis of disorders of which of the
following hormones?
(1) Insulin
(3) Growth hormone
(2) AClH
(4) PIH
122. Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of :
(1) Histidine (2) Keratin (3) Lysine (4) Cysteine
123. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because :
(\) It is an open system
(3) It is governed by vitalism
124. HIV virus contains :
(\) Single stranded DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA
(2) It is a closed system
(4) It is related to thermodynamics
(2) Single stranded RNA
(4) Double stranded RNA
125. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:
(\) Phenytoin (2) Diazepam
(3) Morphin (4) Heparin
126. The oxidation and phosphorylation is completely blocked by :
(\) Oligomycin (2) Streptomycin (3) Puromycin (4) Gentamycin
127. Zinc is a constituent of :
(\) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Amylase
(2) Malate dehydrogenase
(4) Aldolase
128. The absorption of calcium is increased by :
(\) Fat (2) Protein (3) Cereal (4) Vitamin A
129. Biological value of proteins depend on the presence of :
(\) Essential amino acids (2) Semi-essential amino acids
(3) Non•essential amino acids (4) Incomplete proteins
130. Carotenes are transported through :
(\) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Minerals (4) Lipoproteins
121. TRH stimulation testing is useful in the diagnosis of disorders of which of the
following hormones?
(1) Insulin
(3) Growth hormone
(2) AClH
(4) PIH
122. Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of :
(1) Histidine (2) Keratin (3) Lysine (4) Cysteine
123. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because :
(\) It is an open system
(3) It is governed by vitalism
124. HIV virus contains :
(\) Single stranded DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA
(2) It is a closed system
(4) It is related to thermodynamics
(2) Single stranded RNA
(4) Double stranded RNA
125. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:
(\) Phenytoin (2) Diazepam
(3) Morphin (4) Heparin
126. The oxidation and phosphorylation is completely blocked by :
(\) Oligomycin (2) Streptomycin (3) Puromycin (4) Gentamycin
127. Zinc is a constituent of :
(\) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Amylase
(2) Malate dehydrogenase
(4) Aldolase
128. The absorption of calcium is increased by :
(\) Fat (2) Protein (3) Cereal (4) Vitamin A
129. Biological value of proteins depend on the presence of :
(\) Essential amino acids (2) Semi-essential amino acids
(3) Non•essential amino acids (4) Incomplete proteins
130. Carotenes are transported through :
(\) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Minerals (4) Lipoproteins
( 14 )
12P1210130
131. The poor source of Vitamin D is :
(1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Egg (4) ,Liver
132. Sterilized milk is devoid of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin 0
133. Blotting technique used for identification of protein is :
(1) Northern blot (2) Southern blot (3) Eastern blot (4) Western blot
134. The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is :
(1) ALP (2) Amylase (3) AST (4) LDH
135. The key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is :
(1) HMG CoA synthase (2) HMG CoA reductase
(3) Thiolase (4) Mevalonate kinase,
136. All of the following Vitamins playa key role in TCA cycle except:
(1) Niacin (2) Riboflavin (3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid
137. Dry ice is:
(1) Solid ice without any water
(3) Solid C6H6
138. Aminosugar is the component of :
(1) Glycogen
(3) DNA
139. Purely ketogenic amino add is :
(1) Arginine (2) Leucine
(2) Solid CO2
(4) Solid 502
(2) Cellulose
(4) Blood group substances
(3) Tryptophan (4) , Valine

140. Number of disulphide bonds in the structure of insulin is :
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
141. Deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the
activity of :
(1) Galactosyl transferase (2) ALA synthetase
(3) Lysyl hydroxylase (4) Lysyloxidase
( 15 ) P.T.O.
12P1210130
131. The poor source of Vitamin D is :
(1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Egg (4) ,Liver
132. Sterilized milk is devoid of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin 0
133. Blotting technique used for identification of protein is :
(1) Northern blot (2) Southern blot (3) Eastern blot (4) Western blot
134. The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is :
(1) ALP (2) Amylase (3) AST (4) LDH
135. The key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is :
(1) HMG CoA synthase (2) HMG CoA reductase
(3) Thiolase (4) Mevalonate kinase,
136. All of the following Vitamins playa key role in TCA cycle except:
(1) Niacin (2) Riboflavin (3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid
137. Dry ice is:
(1) Solid ice without any water
(3) Solid C6H6
138. Aminosugar is the component of :
(1) Glycogen
(3) DNA
139. Purely ketogenic amino add is :
(1) Arginine (2) Leucine
(2) Solid CO2
(4) Solid 502
(2) Cellulose
(4) Blood group substances
(3) Tryptophan (4) , Valine

140. Number of disulphide bonds in the structure of insulin is :
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
141. Deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the
activity of :
(1) Galactosyl transferase (2) ALA synthetase
(3) Lysyl hydroxylase (4) Lysyloxidase
( 15 ) P.T.O.
12P/21 0130
142. The sugar residues in amylose are linked by:
(1) Alpha-I, 4 linkage (2) Beta-l,4 linkage
(3) Beta-I, 6 linkage (4) Alpha-I,2Iinkage
143. Which of the following lipid accumulates in Tay-sach's disease?
(1) Sphingomyelin (2) Ganglioside GM2
(3) Glucocerebroside (4) Galactocerebroside
144. The antibody class that can cross the placental barrier to protect the fetus is :
(1) IgA (2) IgE (3) IgG (4) IgM
145. All of the following enzymes are catalyzing the irreversible reactions of
glycolysis except :
(1) Hexokinase (2) Phosphofructokinase
(3) Phosphoglycerate kinase
146. Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle is:
(1) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
(2) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
(3) Omathine transcarbamoylase
(4) Argininosucdnate synthase
(4) Pyruvate kinase
147. Carcinogenicity with radiant energy is to cause damage to:
(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) mRNA
148. The renal glutaminase activity is enhanced by :
(1) Acidosis (2) Alkalosis (3) Oxidases
149. Respiration is directly linked with lhe buffer systems of :
(1) Bicarbonate (2) Phosphate (3) Protein
150. The pathogenic bacteria are killed by :
(1) Chlorine (2) Fluorine (3) Bromine
( 16 )
(4) tRNA
(4) Phosphatases
(4) Hemoglobin
(4) Iodine


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