I want to give the exam of Company Secretary executive level and for that I need to get the Company Secretary solved question papers of executive level so can you provide me that?

As you want to get the Company Secretary solved question papers of executive level so here is the information of the same for you:

1. (a) State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are correct or incorrect:
(i) Accounting policies vary from enterprise to enterprise.
(ii) In the absence of declaration of dividend, there is no need to provide for
depreciation in the accounts of companies.
(iii) Securities premium money can be distributed as dividend.
(iv) For calculating minority interest, there is a need to distinguish between capital
and revenue profits of the subsidiary.
(v) While preparing the consolidated balance sheet, a contingent liability in respect
of a transaction between the holding and the subsidiary companies is disappeared
from the foot note.
(2 marks each)
(b) Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the
following :
(i) Indian accounting standards are formulated under the authority of the —
(a) Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards
(c) International Accounting Standard Board
(d) Accounting Standard Board.
(ii) As per section 79 of the Companies Act, 1956 from the date of receiving the
sanction of the Central Government, a company must issue shares at discount
within a period of —
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months.
Company Accounts, Cost & Management Accounting

(iii) As per section 387 of the Companies Act, 1956, total remuneration to manager
should not exceed the rate of net profit of the company except with approval
of the Central Government —
(a) 5%
(b) 2%
(c) 11%
(d) 10%.
(iv) Profit on cancellation of own debentures should be transferred to —
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) Profit and loss appropriation account
(c) Capital reserve account
(d) Reserve capital account.
(v) Profit prior to incorporation is transferred to —
(a) General reserve
(b) Capital reserve
(c) Goodwill account
(d) Profit and loss account.
(1 mark each)
(c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate
word(s)/figure(s) :
(i) Goodwill is ____________ asset.
(ii) Preliminary expenses being of capital nature may be written-off against
___________.
(iii) Collateral security implies ___________ security given for a loan.
(iv) Interim dividend is a dividend declared at any time between the ________
where the final dividend is declared.
(v) Stock reserve for unrealised profit in respect of inter-company transactions
should be created by debiting __________ and crediting __________ while preparing
consolidated profit and loss account.
(1 mark each)
2. (a) Write short notes on any two of the following :
(i) Non-acceptability of International Accounting Standards
(ii) Capitalisation of profits and reserves
(iii) Phases of generation of intangible assets.

(b) Following are balance sheets of H Ltd. and S Ltd. as at 31st March, 2009 :
Liabilities H Ltd. S Ltd
(Rs.). (Rs.)
Share capital (Shares of Rs.100 each) 5,00,000 2,00,000
General reserve as on 1st April, 2008 1,00,000 60,000
Profit and loss account 1,40,000 90,000
Bills payable –– 40,000
Creditors 80,000 50,000
8,20,000 4,40,000
Assets
Goodwill 40,000 30,000
Other fixed assets 3,60,000 2,20,000
1,500 Shares in S Ltd. at cost 2,40,000 ––
Stock 1,00,000 90,000
Debtors 20,000 75,000
Cash at bank 60,000 25,000
8,20,000 4,40,000
The profit and loss account of S Ltd. showed a balance of Rs.50,000 on 1st April,
2008. A dividend of 15% was paid on 15th October, 2008 for the year 2007-08. The
dividend was credited by H Ltd. to its profit and loss account. H Ltd. acquired
shares on 1st October, 2008. The bills payable of S Ltd. were all issued in favour
of H Ltd. and the same were got discounted by H Ltd. Included in the creditors
of S Ltd. are Rs.20,000 for goods supplied by H Ltd. The stock of S Ltd. includes
goods to the value of Rs.8,000 which were supplied by H Ltd. at a profit of 33.33%
on cost. Prepare consolidated balance sheet of H Ltd. and S Ltd. as on 31st March,
2009.
(9 marks)
3. The following balances have been extracted from the books of Pioneer Traders Ltd. as
on 30th September, 2009 :
(Rs. ’000)
Dr. Cr.
Share capital (Authorised and issued) :
Equity (15,00,000 Shares of Rs.100 each) –– 1,50,000
8% Redeemable preference (40,000 shares) –– 4,000
Securities premium –– 2,500
Preference share redemption 4,800 ––

(Rs. ’000)
Dr. Cr.
General reserve –– 10,000
Land (cost) 30,000 ––
Buildings (cost less depreciation) 70,000 ––
Furniture (cost less depreciation) 2,000 ––
Motor vehicle (cost less depreciation) 3,500 ––
Trading account – gross profit –– 90,000
Establishment charges 25,000 ––
Rate, taxes and insurance 1,200 ––
Commission 600 ––
Discount received –– 500
Interest on investments –– 800
Depreciation 6,000 ––
Sundry office expenses 6,000 ––
Payment to auditors 400 ––
Sundry debtors and creditors 10,660 2,560
Profit and loss account (as on 30.9.2008) –– 1,000
Unpaid dividend –– 200
Cash in hand 1,200 ––
Cash at bank in current account 19,500 ––
Security deposit 1,000 ––
Outstanding expenses –– 600
Investments in G.P. Notes 20,000 ––
Stock in trade (at or below cost) 35,300 ––
Provision for taxation (year ended 30.9.2008) –– 7,000
Income-tax paid under dispute (year ended 30.9.2008) 10,000 ––
Advance payment of income-tax 22,000 ––
2,69,160 2,69,160
The following further details are available :
(i) The preference shares were redeemed on 1st October, 2008 at a premium of 20%
but no entries were passed for giving effect thereto, except payment standing to
the debit of preference share redemption account.

(ii) Depreciation as provided upto 30th September, 2009 is as follows :
(a) Building – Rs.2,10,00,000.
(b) Furniture – Rs.20,00,000.
(c) Motor vehicles – Rs.60,00,000.
(iii) Establishment charges include Rs.18,00,000 paid to managing director as
remuneration in terms of agreement which provides for a remuneration of 5% of
annual net profits.
(iv) Payment to auditors includes Rs.1,00,000 for taxation work in addition to audit
fees.
(v) Market value of investments on 30th September, 2009 is Rs.1,80,00,000.
(vi) Sundry debtors include Rs.40,00,000 due for a period exceeding six months.
(vii) All receivables and deposits are considered good for realisation.
(viii) Income-tax demand for the year ended 30th September, 2008 Rs.1,00,00,000 has
not been provided for against which appeal is pending.
(ix) Income-tax is to be provided @ 34%. Also provide for tax on divisible profit @ 16%.
(x) Directors recommended payment of dividend on equity shares at the rate of 12%.
(xi) Ignore previous year’s figures.
You are required to prepare the profit and loss account for the year ended 30th September,
2009 and a balance sheet as at that date.
(15 marks)
4. (a) Balance sheet of Diamond Ltd. as at 30th June, 2009 is given below :
Liabilities Rs.
Share capital : 40,000 Shares of Rs.10 each 4,00,000
General reserve 80,000
Profit and loss account 64,000
Sundry creditors 2,56,000
Income-tax reserve 1,20,000
9,20,000
Assets
Land and buildings 2,20,000
Plant and machinery 2,60,000
Patents and trade marks 40,000
Preliminary expenses 24,000
Stock 96,000
Debtors 1,76,000
Bank balance 1,04,000
9,20,000

The expert valuer valued the land and buildings at Rs.4,80,000, goodwill at Rs.3,20,000
and plant and machinery at Rs.2,40,000. Out of the total debtors, it is found that
debtors of Rs.16,000 are bad. The profits of the company have been as follows :
31st March, 2007 : Rs.1,84,000
31st March, 2008 : Rs.1,76,000
31st March, 2009 : Rs.1,92,000
The company follows the practice of transferring 25% of profits to general reserve.
Similar type of companies earn at 10% of the value of their shares. Plant and machinery,
and land and buildings have been depreciated at 15% and 10% respectively. Ascertain
the value of shares of the company by using ––
(i) Intrinsic value method;
(ii) Yield value method; and
(iii) Fair value method.
(6 marks)
(b) Rax Ltd. invited applications from public for 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs.10 each
at a premium of Rs.5 per share. The entire issue is underwritten by the underwriters
A, B, C, and D to the extent of 30%, 30%, 20%, and 20% respectively with the
provision of firm underwriting of 3,000, 2,000, 1,000 and 1,000 shares respectively.
Underwriters are entitled to maximum commission as per law. The company has
received applications for 70,000 shares from public out of which applications for
19,000, 10,000, 21,000 and 8,000 shares were marked in favour of A, B, C and D
respectively. Calculate the liability of each underwriter treating firm underwriting
on par with marked applications. Also ascertain the underwriting commission
@ 2.5% payable to each underwriter.
(6 marks)
(c) “Buy-back may be misused by the corporate entities at the cost of innocent investors.”
Give your comments.
(3 marks)

P A R T — B
(Answer Question No.5 which is compulsory
and any two of the rest from this part.)
5. (a) State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are correct or incorrect:
(i) Under Flux Method, labour turnover is calculated by number of workers left
divided by average number of workers.
(ii) In cost plus contracts, the contractor runs a risk of incurring a loss.
(iii) There is no need to record attendance of piece rate workers since attendance
is not relevant for ascertaining the amount of wages to be paid.

(iv) A profit centre whose performance is measured by its return on investment
(ROI) is known as investment centre.
(v) Contribution is not only the criterion for deciding profitability.
(2 marks each)
(b) Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the
following :
(i) The rate of change of labour force in an organisation during a specified period
is called —
(a) Labour efficiency
(b) Labour turnover
(c) Labour productivity
(d) None of the above.
(ii) When a contract is not complete at the end of the year, profit on incomplete
contract —
(a) Is not considered
(b) Is considered for inclusion in the profit for the year
(c) Is considered for the inclusion of a part of the year
(d) None of the above.
(iii) When prices fluctuate widely, the method that will avoid the effect of fluctuations
is —
(a) FIFO
(b) LIFO
(c) Simple average
(d) Weighted average.
(iv) Fixed costs remain fixed —
(a) Over a short period
(b) Over a long period and within relevant range
(c) Over a short period and within a relevant range
(d) Over a long period.
(v) When the under or over absorbed overheads amount is significant, it should
be disposed off by —
(a) Transferring to costing profit and loss account
(b) Using a supplementary rate
(c) Carry over to next year
(d) None of the above.
(1 mark each)

(c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate
word(s)/figure(s) :
(i) ______________ expenses are excluded from cost.
(ii) An account giving details of cost of production, cost of sales and profit made
during a particular period is called _____________.
(iii) The process of apportionment of factory overheads among production and
service department is called ____________ of factory overheads.
(iv) The time for which the employer pays remuneration to workers but obtains
no direct benefit is called ___________.
(v) A system that keeps a running and continuous record that tracks inventories
and cost of goods sold on day-to-day basis is called ________.
(1 mark each)
6. Summarised income statement and balance sheet of Progressive Ltd. are given
below :
Income Statement for the Year ended 31st December, 2009
(Rs. ’000)
Sales 1,600
Less: Cost of goods sold 1,310
Gross margin 290
Less: Selling and administration expenses 40
Net operating income (EBIT) 250
Less: Interest 45
Earnings before tax 205
Less : Tax paid 82
Net income after tax 123
Earnings per share (EPS) is Rs. 3.075.
Balance Sheet as at 31st December, 2009
Liabilities (Rs. ’000)
Paid-up capital (40,000 shares of Rs. 10 each fully paid) 400
Retained earnings 120
Debentures 700
Creditors 180
Bills payable 20
Other current liabilities 80
1,500
1/2010/CACMA P. T. O.

Assets (Rs. ’000)
Net fixed assets 800
Inventory 400
Debtors 175
Marketable securities 75
Cash 50
1,500
Price per share is Rs.15.
Industry’s average ratios are :
Current ratio .......... 2.4
Quick ratio .......... 1.5
Sales to inventory .......... 8.0
Average collection period .......... 36 days
Price per share/book value of share .......... 1.6
Debts to assets .......... 40%
Times interest earned .......... 6
Profit margin .......... 7%
Price to earnings ratio .......... 15
Return to total assets .......... 11%
(i) Progresssive Ltd. would like to borrow Rs.5,00,000 from a bank for less than a
year. Evaluate the firm’s current financial position by calculating ratios that you
feel would be useful for the bank’s evaluation.
(ii) What problem areas are suggested by your ratio analysis ? What are the possible
reasons for them ?
(iii) Do you think that the bank should give the loan ?
(iv) If Progressive Ltd.’s inventory utilisation ratio (sales to inventory) and average
collection period were reduced to industry average, what amount of funds would
be generated ?
(15 marks)
7. (a) Write short notes on any two of the following :
(i) Superiority of zero base budgeting (ZBB) to traditional budgeting
(ii) Activity based costing
(iii) Cash, cash equivalents and cash flows.
(3 marks each)
: 10 :

(b) Two manufacturing companies which have the following operating details decided
to merge :
Company–I Company–II
Capacity utilisation (%) 90 60
Sales (Rs. in lakhs) 540 300
Variable costs (Rs. in lakhs) 396 225
Fixed costs (Rs. in lakhs) 80 50
Assuming that the proposal is implemented, calculate ––
(i) Break-even sales of the merged plant and the capacity utilisation at that
stage.
(ii) Profitability of the merged plant at 80% capacity utilisation.
(iii) Sales turnover of the merged plant to earn a profit of Rs.75 lakh.
(iv) When the merged plant is working at a capacity to earn a profit of Rs.75 lakh,
what percentage increase in selling price is required to sustain an increase
of 5% in fixed overheads ?
(9 marks)
8. (a) A company manufactures 5,000 units of a product per month. The cost of placing
an order is Rs.100. The purchase price of the raw material is Rs.10 per kg. The
re-order period is 4 to 8 weeks. The consumption of raw materials varies from
100 kgs. to 450 kgs. per week, the average consumption being 275 kgs. The
carrying cost of inventory is 20% per annum. You are required to calculate ––
(i) Re-order quantity
(ii) Re-order level
(iii) Maximum level
(iv) Minimum level
(v) Average stock level.
Assume 52 weeks in a year.
(6 marks)
(b) Following information is available for a factory for the year 2008 :
Rs.
Direct material .......... 3,00,000
Direct wages .......... 2,50,000
Factory overheads .......... 1,50,000
Administrative overheads .......... 1,68,000
Selling overheads .......... 1,12,000
Distribution overheads .......... 70,000
Profit .......... 2,10,000

A work order has been executed in the year 2008 and the expenses incurred
were — materials Rs.4,000; and wages Rs.2,500.
Assuming that in the year 2009 the rate of factory overheads has increased by
20%, distribution overheads have gone down by 10% and selling and administration
overheads have each gone up by 12.5%, at what price should the product be sold
so as to earn the same rate of profit on the selling price as in the year 2008 ?
Factory overheads are based on direct wages while other overheads are based on
factory cost.
(9 marks)
—
1. (a) “Constitution of India is basically federal with strong unitary features.” Discuss.
(8 marks)
(b) Explain the writ jurisdictions of the Supreme Court and High Courts as provided
in the Constitution of India.
(6 marks)
(c) Explain the mischief rule in the interpretation of statutes.
(6 marks)

2. Attempt any four of the following :
(i) State the circumstances in which a property may be transferred in favour of an
unborn person.
(ii) Explain the rule of lis pendens as provided in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(iii) What are ‘cyber offences’ under the Information Technology Act, 2000 ?
(iv) State the documents which are required to be compulsorily registered under the
Registration Act, 1908.
(v) Explain the consequences of the instruments which are not duly stamped under
the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.
(4 marks each)
3. Distinguish between any four of the following :
(i) ‘Summons cases’ and ‘warrant cases’.
(ii) ‘Bailable offences’ and ‘non-bailable offences’.
(iii) ‘Battery’ and ‘assault’.
(iv) ‘Condition precedent’ and ‘condition subsequent’.
(v) ‘Primary evidence’ and ‘secondary evidence’.
(4 marks each)
General And Commercial Laws

4. Write notes on any four of the following :
(i) E-governance
(ii) Setting aside of an award
(iii) Perpetual injunction
(iv) Rectification of an instrument
(v) Specific performance of a contract.
(4 marks each)
5. (a) A document was executed outside India and it was presented for registration after
a lapse of four months from the date of its arrival in India. Whether the document
may be accepted for registration by the Registrar ? Decide.
(6 marks)
(b) Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the
following :
(i) Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of property may be
made ––
(a) Orally
(b) By written document
(c) By written document with its registration
(d) By delivery of property except where transfer is required to be in writing
under the law.
(ii) The right to foreclosure is available to the mortgagee when it is ––
(a) English mortgage
(b) Simple mortgage
(c) Mortgage by conditional sale
(d) Usufructuary mortgage.
(iii) The income of transferred property may be accumulated for an unlimited
time where the property is transferred with condition ––
(a) For the payment of debts taken by the transferor
(b) For the maintenance of the property itself
(c) For the maintenance of the descendants of the transferor generation
after generation
(d) All of the above.

(iv) Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the relief of cancellation of a written
instrument is available —
(a) When an instrument is void or voidable at the option of the plaintiff
(b) Where the plaintiff may apprehend serious injury if the instrument is
left outstanding

(c) Where the instrument requires registration but is not registered
(d) Where conditions mentioned (a) and (b) above are fulfilled.
(v) The definition of the ‘State’ as given under Article 12 of the Constitution of
India includes ––
(a) The Central Government and Parliament of India
(b) The Government and the Legislature of each State
(c) All local or other authorities within India and under the control of the
Government of India
(d) All of the above.
(1 mark each)
(c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate
word(s)/figure(s) :
(i) Perpetual injunction is granted under section ___________ of the Specific Relief
Act, 1963.
(ii) A police officer may arrest an accused without warrant in case of ___________.
(iii) The Court of a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class is authorised to pass a
sentence of ___________.
(iv) The right to maintenance under section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 is available to ___________.
(v) The application of revision under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908 is made to ___________.
(1 mark each)

6. State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are correct or incorrect:
(i) The Constitution of India makes a few exceptions in which the Parliament is
authorised to make the laws even on the subjects included in the State List.
(ii) Article 174 of the Constitution of India empowers the Governor of the State to
dissolve the State Legislature.
(iii) The Right to Information Act, 2005 confers on all citizens of India a right to
information.
(iv) Certain categories of information have been exempted from disclosure under the
Right to Information Act, 2005.
(v) Under certain circumstances, a person is liable for the torts committed by another.

(vi) On the same cause of action, a fresh suit is barred by law.
(vii) Decree is a formal expression of an adjudication, whereas an order is the decision
of the court.
(viii) The procedure provided under any special or local law is not affected by the
procedure given under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(2 marks each)

7. (a) Ashok sells a house to Vinay by a written document and delivers possession to
Vinay, but the document is not registered. After one year, Ashok sues Vinay to
take back the possession of the property on the ground that non-registration of a
document has no validity. Will Ashok succeed ? Which doctrine of law can be
invoked by Vinay in his defence ?
(6 marks)
(b) Kamal transfers his property worth Rs.10,000 to Shyam and by the same instrument
asked Shyam to transfer his property worth Rs.5,000 to Manoj. Kamal dies before
Shyam made his election. Can Manoj get compensation ? If so, from whom and
how much ?
(5 marks)

(c) Alok contracts to sell a piece of land to Vimal consisting of 100 bighas for Rs.10
lakh and it turns out that only 50 bighas of land belongs to Alok. Who can
demand specific performance of contract and who cannot ? If there is a demand
of specific performance from rightful party, what will be the consideration ?
(5 marks)

8. (a) Anil was a trustee of a trust. After Anil’s death, Brij wrongfully takes the possession
of the trust property. Chandan, the son of Anil files a suit for recovery of possession
of the property against Brij as the legal heir of Anil in his individual capacity.
But Chandan did not succeed. Then Chandan files another suit for recovery of
trust property against Brij in the capacity of trustee as he was appointed as
trustee after the death of Anil. Whether the second suit is barred by the doctrine
of constructive res judicata ? Explain.
(6 marks)

(b) Mohan filed a suit against Sohan and Rohan for partition of coparcenery property
‘P-1’. The suit has been decided. Mohan files another suit against Sohan and
Rohan for the partition of coparcenery property ‘P-2’, which was in existence at
the time of filing of the first suit. Decide.
(5 marks)

(c) Kamini informed Ajay in the year 2001 that she had committed theft of the
jewellery of her neighbour. Thereafter, Kamini and Ajay were married in 2002.
In the year 2003, criminal proceeding were instituted against Kamini in respect
of the theft of jewellery. Ajay is called to give evidence in the case. Decide
whether Ajay can disclose the communication made to him by Kamini.
(5 marks)


Contact Details:
The Institute Of Company Secretaries Of India
ICSI House, Plot No.22,
Lodi Road, Institutional Area,
New Delhi,
Delhi 110003
011 4150 4444
India

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