The previous year question paper with answer key of NTRUHS MDSET which is Andhra Pradesh Medical PG Entrance Exam is as follows:

1. The purpose of relieving mid-palatine area in complete dentures is to prevent
1. Pressure on palate
2. Midline fractures in dentures
3. Incorrect centric relation
4. Resorption of bone
Ans: 1. Pressure on palate as the relieving is done to remove all the pressure on the mid-palate area.
2. While selecting a post and core system preferably the post should be
1. tapered
2. parallel
3. threaded
4. non threaded
Ans: The best one preferred is parallel and threaded one, but not sure which one is most preferable in both.
3. When preparing a 3/4th crown on maxillary incisor tooth the proximal grooves should generally be parallel to the
1. Long axis of the tooth
2. Gingival 2/3 of the labial surface
3. Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface
4. Short axis of the tooth
Ans: Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface
4. The type of pontic most commonly used in the posterior maxillary area is the
1. saddle
2. sanitary
3. modified ridge lap
4. spheroidal
Ans: –
5. A reline for a complete denture is contraindicated when
1. there is resorption of the ridge
2. the denture contains a broken tooth
3. centric occlusion and centric relation do not coincide
4. there is excessive overclosure of the vertical dimension
Ans: 4
6. Microfracture occurring in the cervical area of a tooth under flexural load is
1. abrasion
2. attrition
3. abfraction
4. erosion
Ans: 3
7. The access cavity for mandibular first molar typically is
1. Trapezoid
2. Triangular
3. Oval
4. Round
Ans: 1
8. Pain, temperature, touch from pulp are carried by which one of the following type nerve fibers?
1. A alpha
2. A beta
3. A delta
4. C fibres
Ans: 3
9. Setting time of Mineral Trioxide Aggregate (MTA) is
1. 2-5 minutes
2. 5-8 minutes
3. 1 hour, 45 minutes
4. > 2 to 3 hour
Ans: 4
10. Which one of the following is the first translucent filling material produced by Fletcher ?
1. Silicate cement
2. Glass ionomer cement
3. Hybrid filled resin
4. composite resin
Ans: 1
11. The most recent direct filling gold which produces the hardest surface on condensation is
1. Mat gold
2. Encapsulated powered gold
3. Mat gold alloyed with calcium and wrapped in gold foil
4. Platinized gold
Ans: 3
12. For photo initiated resin system, the optimum depth of cure is obtained with emitting orifice held
1. with in 4 mm of resin surface
2. slightly touching resin surface
3. within 1 mm of resin surface
4. within 3 mm of resin surface
Ans: 3
13. All of the following statements are true for composite resin, EXCEPT
1. Improved dimensional stability
2. Decreased thermal coefficient of expansion
3. High resistant to abrasion
4. There is less marginal leakage
Ans: 2
14. Whenever tooth structure is cut with burr residual organic and inorganic components form the
1. beilby layer
2. hybrid layer
3. smear layer
4. rubbish layer
Ans: 3
15. Recommended working speed for “Light Speed Instrument” is
1. 5000 – 10000 rpm
2. 1000 – 2000 rpm
3. 550 – 650 rpm
4. 150 – 250 rpm
Ans: 2
16. Ideally a malocclusion should be treated between the age of
1. 5 and 8 years
2. 8 and 10 years
3. 10 to 12 years
4. the age at which a malocclusion is treated depends on the problem involved
Ans: Could be 2 or 4
17. All are advantages of removable space maintainers EXCEPT
1. Easy to clean
2. Permit maintenance of proper oral hygiene
3. They maintain vertical dimension
4. Band construction is necessary
Ans: 4
18. Circumferential supra-crestal fibrotomy is other name for
1. Pericision
2. Rotation
3. Tipping movement
4. Resorption
Ans: 1
19. Gonion, menton and pogonion are cephalometric landmarks located on the
1. midline
2. mandible
3. body chin
4. skeletal profile
Ans: 2
20. The growth curve for mandibular growth closely follows the growth curve of
1. Lymphoid tissues
2. Neural tissues
3. General body tissues
4. Genital tissues
Ans: 3
21. Ideally, functional appliance to treat the mandibular deficiency of skeletal Class II in case of girls should be given during
1. deciduous dentition
2. early mixed dentition
3. late mixed dentition
4. permanent dentition
Ans: Could be 3
22. Preventive and interceptive orthodontics is no longer viable after eruption of
1. Permanent second molars
2. primary second molars
3. permanent first molar
4. permanent lateral incisors
Ans: 1
23. A boy of chronological age 9 years is 125 cm in height, Mean height for this age is 133.71 cm with a standard deviation of 5.49 cm. The skeletal age is assessed as 8 years. The boy may be regarded as
1. Somewhat physically retarded with the potential to catch up
2. Severely physically retarded with little potential to catch up
3. At the right level
4. Destined to be a short-statured individual
Ans 1
24. An ankylosis primary molar may result in all of the following EXCEPT
1. Loss of arch length
2. Serious problem of extraction
3. Delayed eruption of succadenous tooth
4. Failure of calcification of permanent successor
Ans: 4
25. If a child’s teeth do not form, this would primarily affect the growth of the
1. alveolar bone
2. whole face
3. mandible
4. maxilla
Ans: Could be 1 or 2

26. HUTCHINSONS triad consists of
1. Chancre, Mucous patches & Gumma
2. Chancre, paresis, tabes dorsalis
3. Hypoplasia of incisor and molar teeth, interstitial keratitis, eighth nerve deafness
4. Rhagades,screw shaped incisors, mulberry molars
Ans: 3
27. All the following investigations results are correct in Haemophilia, EXCEPT
1. Normal bleeding time
2. Normal prothrombin time
3. Normal platelet count
4. Normal clotting time
Ans: 4
28. Pathergy Test is positive in
1. Allergic stomatitis
2. Behcet’s syndrome
3. Psoriasis
4. Reiter’s syndrome
Ans: 2
29. Triad of fissured tongue, facial palsy and Cheilitis granulomatosa is known as
1. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
2. Grinspan syndrome
3. Steven johnson syndrome
4. Albright syndrome
Ans: 1
30. Herpetiformis vesicles which rupture and leave areas of superficial intraoral ulcers are caused by
1. Varicella zoster virus
2. Herpes zoster virus
3. Coxsackie virus
4. None of the above
Ans: 2
31. “Floating Tooth Syndrome” is seen in
1. Crouzon disease
2. Mandibulofacial dyosostosis
3. Cherubism
4. Polyostatic fibrous dysplasia
Ans: 3
32. According to Quantum Theory, Electromagnetic radiations are bundles of energy called
1. Photons
2. Electrons
3. Neutrons
4. Leptons
Ans: 1
33. “Ground Glass” appearance on a radiograph is suggestive of which one of the following?
1. Fibrous dysplasia
2. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
3. Ewing’s sarcoma
4. Periapical Cyst
Ans: 1
34. The System International (SI) unit of absorbed dose is
1. Coulumb per kilogram
2. Gray
3. Becquerel
4. Sievert
Ans: 2
35. The imaging technique which used films to obtain images is
1. Digital radiography
2. Arthrography
3. Xeroradiography
4. Thermography
Ans: 2
36. Post operating pressure dressing to limit swelling and haematoma is placed for a time period of
1. 12-15 hours
2. 16-20 hours
3. 24-36 hours
4. 48-72 hours
Ans: 4
37. The clinical signs and symptoms of cyanosis and respiratory distress may become noticeable in most instances of Methemoglobenemia when Methemoglobin levels reach
1. 0.5 – 1 g/dl
2. 0.25 – 0.5 g/dl
3. 1.5 – 3 g/dl
4. more than 10 g/dl
Ans: 3
38. A patient who had a history of hepatitis one month ago should be preferably given which local anesthetic agent
1. Lignocaine
2. Bupivacaine
3. Procaine
4. Procainamide
Ans: 3
39. Haemostasis depends upon all the following, EXCEPT
1. Calcium
2. Prothrombin
3. Vitamin B
4. Vitamin K
Ans: 3
40. If the seventh nerve is damaged on the right side of the face
1. The muscles of mastication would be denervated
2. the muscles of facial expression would be denervated
3. taste from the right anterior two thirds of the tongue would not be affected
4. sympathetic fibre to salivary gland would be interrupted
Ans: 2
41. If a small amount of lignocaine hydrochloride with 1:80000 epinephrine is accidentally injected intravenously while giving a mandibular block, approximately how long will it take for epinephrine to circulate from the oral mucosa to heart?
1. 1 sec
2. 12 sec
3. 25 sec
4. 50 sec
Ans: –
42. Allografts are grafts taken from
1. same species and individuals who are genetically related
2. different species
3. same species but individuals are genetically not related
4. same species and between genetically identical individuals
Ans: 3
43. Dautry procedure is used for
1. correction of prognathism
2. correct of ankylosis
3. correcting recurrent dislocation of mandible
4. none of the above
Ans: 3
44. Sialoliths are most common in the
1. Parotid duct
2. Parotid gland
3. Wharton’s duct
4. Sublingual gland
Ans: 3 (Most common occurrence is in the submandibular salivary gland, but parotid gland occurrence is not uncommon)
45. Differential WBC counts are useful in the diagnosis of
1. Anaemia
2. Eosinophilia
3. Spherocytosis
4. Vitamin deficiency
Ans: 2
46. The window of infectivity during which most children acquire the cariogenic organisms
1. 15 and 16 months
2. 17 and 18 months
3. 19 and 33 months
4. 36 and 40 months
Ans: 3
47. “Chicken-wire” appearance of enlarged bone marrow spaces is seen in
1. Fetal alcohol syndrome
2. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Haemophilia A
4. B Thalassemia major
Ans: 4
48. Wand system of local anesthesia involves the following method of drug delivery
1. Electronic dental anesthesia
2. Jet injection
3. Computer controlled injection system
4. Iontophoresis
Ans: 3
49. Stillman’s method of brushing was originally developed to
1. Provide gingival stimulation
2. Clean interproximal areas
3. Remove plaque from gingival sulcus
4. none of the above
Ans: 1
50. Correlation between two variables are best depicted by
1. Bar diagram
2. Line diagram
3. Histogram
4. Scatter diagram
Ans: Either 2 or 4