I want to give the exam of Andhra Pradesh Drug Inspector and for that I want to get the details of Drug Inspector educational qualifications so can you provide me that as it is very urgent for me?

As you want to get the details of Drug Inspector educational qualifications so here it is for you:

Educational Qualifications:
Candidates must have passed graduation in Pharmacy or Pharmaceutical Science or Medicine with Specialization in Clinical Pharmacology or Microbiology from a University established in India by Law.

Age Limit:
Candidates who aged between 18 and 36 years of age are eligible to apply.

Age Relaxation:
For SC/ST and BCs - 5 Years

APPSC Drug Inspector Exam Paper Pattern:-
•GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY - 150 Marks - 150 Questions - 150 Minutes
•SUBJECT (ONE PAPER) - 300 Marks - 150 Questions - 150 Minutes -

Here for your reference I am giving you the sample paper of Andhra Pradesh Drug Inspector exam:

1. Senna is
1. Irritant laxative 2. Osmotic laxative
3. Bulk laxative 4. Emollient laxative

2. Long term use of cemetidine may cause
1. Sexual disfunction 2. Renal failure
3. Rebound acidity 4. Parietal cell blockade

3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of
1. Amoebiasis 2. Helminthiasis
3. Giardiasis 4. Malaria

4. The drug of choice for the treatment of filariasis is
1. CocaDiethyl carbamazine
2. Niclosamide
3. Biloscanate 4. None of the above

5. The prescription starts with the symbol Rx, means
1. Send 2. Prescribe
3. Take thou 4. Prepare

6. Which type of prescription should contain the age of the patient ?
1. Prescription for a child
2. Prescription containing special formula
3. Prescription containing patient medicament
4. Prescription for elderly patient

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo polymer of glucose, which is produced by
1. Polymerization of glucose
2. Chemical modification of starch
3. Chemical modification of cellulose
4. By growing the organism leuconostoc mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium

8. Mot acceptable absorbable hemostat is
1. Human fibrin foam 2. Gelatin sponge
3. Oxidized cellulose 4. Calcium alginate

9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional requirements and energy from simple inorganic
source are called

1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic
3. Parasite 4. Saprophyte

10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify
1. Acid fast bacteria 2. Gram positive bacteria
3. Spores 4. Flagella

11. P wave of ECG is the result of

1. Atrial depolarization 2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in

1. Hypovolemic shock 2 Anaphylactic shock
3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Obstructive shock

13. Sucralftate is used in the treatment of
1. Vomit 2. Constipation
3. Duodenal ulcer 4. Diarrhoea

14. Which property of chlorpromazine is responsible for its antipsychotic effect ?
1. Antidopaminergic 2. Antimuscarinic
3. A adrenoreceptor blocking
4. Anti 5-HT property

15. Which of the following is broad spectrum anthelmintic ?
1. Mebendazole 2. Piperazine
3. Diethylcarbamazine 4. Chloroquine

16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
1. Carcinoma 2. Sarcoma
3. Lukemia 4. Hodgkin’s disease

17. The Latin term for ointment is
1. Ungentum 2. Pasta
3. Oculentum 4. Linimentem

18. The Latin term for “When required” is
1. si opus sit 2. Dolor urgente
3. tussi urgente 4. statim

19. Material used to assist adhesion of skin graft is
1. Human thrombin 2. Human
immunoglobulin
3. Plasma protein fraction 4. Gum saline

20. The incompatibility encountered when aspirin is powdered together with phenazone is

1. Insolubility 2. Liquefaction
3. Immiscibility 4. Precipitation

21. Existence of antibiotic was first proposed by
1. Pasteur 2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Fleming 4. Dubos

22. The Antibiotics are manufactured in large scale by
1. Surface culture in liquid medium
2. Surface culture in solid medium
3. Submerged culture in liquid medium
4. Submerged culture in solid medium

23. Increased hepatic angiotensinogen production is responsible for following
1. Renal hypertension 2. Pills hypertension
3. Vascular hypertension 4. Endocrine hypertension

24. The following type of pulse is seen in myocardial infraction
1. Pulsus deficit 2. Pulsus alternens
3. Anacrotic pulse 4. Water hammer pulse

25. Drugs of choice for grandmal epilepsy are
1. Phenytoin and sodium valproate
2. Sodium valproate and carbamazepin
3. Carbamazepin and phenobarbital
4. Phenobarbital and phenytoin

26. Morphine is contraindicated for patients with head injury because it produces
1. Sedation
2. Hyperactive spinal refluxes
3. Respiratory depression
4. Analgesia

27. Which of the following is anti metabolite ?
1. Cyclophosphamide 2. Thiotepa
3. Methotrexate 4. Chlorambucil

28. Which of the following anticancer drug is obtained from plant ?
1. Cisplatin 2. Uracil
3. Vincristine 4. Tamoxifen

29. In prescription the Latin term “fiat” means
1. Let it be mixed 2. Let it be made
3. Let it be warmed 4. Let it be sent

30. Most dangerous organism infecting the eye is
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Proteus vulgaris
4. Bacillus subtilis

31. In the extemporaneous preparation of eye drops the final clarification done by passing
through

1. Sintered glass filters
2. Gooch crucible
3. Whatman filter paper
4. Micro-porous plastic membrane

32. One of the advantages of IR heat sterilization of syringes is
1. Determination of internal temperature to assess the efficiency of sterilization is simple
2. More efficient than autoclaving
3. Unaffected by thermal resistance by static surface air films
4. Fast sterilization

33. International Pharmacopoeia is published by
1. WHO
2. International Pharmaceutical Federation
3. United Nations
4. US food and drug administration

34. In the case of sterilization by dry heat the microbes are killed by
1. Oxidation 2. Dehydration
3. Decomposition 4. Precipitation

35. Communicable disease caused by Rickettsiae is
1. Scrub typhus 2. Chancroid
3. Mumps 4. Influenza

36. One of the first aid in poisoning is by administering
1. Universal antidote
2. Table spoonful of mustered
3. Egg white
4. All the above

37. In hemolytic jaundice the following are true EXCEPT
1. Unconjugated bilirubin level increases
2. Anemia is common
3. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases
4. Liver function test normal

38. The mechanism of action of penicillin is
1. By inhibition of protein synthesis
2. By interference with ribosome function
3. By antimetabolite action
4. By interference with cell wall synthesis

39. Cotrimoxazole is more effective than individual administration of sulphame-thoxazole or
trimethoprim since
1. Both set sequentially in nucleotide synthesis
2. Sulphamethoxazole is antimetabolite and trimethoprin interfere with cell wall synthesis
3. Both binds to enzyme required for DNA replication
4. Sulphamethoxazole interfere with folic acid synthesis and trimethoprin interfere with cell
wall synthesis

40. Which of the following is fluoroquinolone derivative ?
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. Lomifloxacin
3. Prontocil 4. Penicillin G