#1
July 18th, 2014, 04:17 PM
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Entrance exam previous year question papers of M.Sc Microbiology of Banaras Hindu University
Will you please share with me the entrance exam previous year question papers of M.Sc Microbiology of Banaras Hindu University?
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#2
July 20th, 2014, 04:36 PM
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Re: Entrance exam previous year question papers of M.Sc Microbiology of Banaras Hindu University
As you want to get the entrance exam previous year question papers of M.Sc Microbiology of Banaras Hindu University so here it is for you: Some content of the file has been given here: Entrance exam previous year question papers of M.Sc Microbiology of Banaras Hindu University Fermentation process to manufacture ethyl alcohol is : (1) An aerobic process (2) An anaerobic process (3) A polymerization process (4) A catalytic aerobic process The term 'anaerobic' means : (1) Without bacteria (2) Without CO, (3) Without ATP (4) Without 0, Yeast contains : (1) Invertase only (2) Zymase only (3) Both invertase and zymase (4) Neither invertase nor zymase 4. Which gas is produced during fermentation? (1) CO (2) CO, (3) Ch (4) 0, 5. What is vinegar? (1) Methanol (2) Ethanol (3) Formic acid (4) Acetic acid 6. The source of sucrose in growth media required for industrial fermentation is_: (1) Corn sugar (2) Milk whey (3) Sugarbeet molasses (4) Soyabean meal 7. Acetic acid is produced by : (1) Genus Gluconobacter (2) Members of genus i\cetobacter (3) Both Gluconobacter and Acctobacter (4) Aspergillus species 8. Which of the following acid is produced by incomplete oxidation rather than a true fermentation? (1) Gluconic acid (2) Acetic acid (3) Citric acid (4) Lactic acid 9. Growth in a closed system affected by nutrient limitation and waste product accumulation is called: (1) Batch culture (2) Ascus culture (3) flocculation (4) Turbulation , O. Growth phase docs not include following phases of bacteria: (1) Decline phase (3) Lag phase (2) Stationary phase (4) Log phase 11. In fcrmentar the top portion left without broth is called: (1) Shaft (2) Head space (3) Impeller (4) Sparger 12. For industrial production of ethanol, the yeast used is : (1) K. pneumontae (2) K. fragi/is (3) S. cerevisiae (4) Both (2) and (3) 13. Over heating of fermentor during fermentation is controlled by : (1) Cooling jacket (2) Steam (3) Cool air (4) None of these ________________________________________ 14. Doubling time is: (1) The rate of growth per unit time (2) The time for the population to double in number / mass (3) The number of times the inoculums has replicated (4) All afthe above 15. "It is the enzyme zymase, not yeast itself responsible for fermenting the sugars" was shown by : (1) Buchner (2) Mendel (3) Linnaeus (4) Muller , 6. Permentation can occur outside the living cell, was proposed by : (1) Nollet (2) Lamark (3) Buchner (4) Darwin 17. In Heteroladic fermentation how many molecules of pyruvate arc converted to lactate? (1) Two molecules (3) Three molecules (2) One molecule (4) None of the above 18. The word 'Fermentation' is derived from the latin verb "fervere" which means: (1) To boil (3) To cook (2) To respire (4) None of the above 19. Which of the following is a beneficial function performed by bacteria? (1) Control insect populations (2) Directly provide food for human (3) Decompose organic material and recycle elements (4) Cause disease 20. Disinfection is defined as : (1) Use of chemical to treat living cells (2) Use of chemical to treat inert surface (3) Removal or destruction of all form of microbes (4) Partial removal of microbes ( 3 ) 21. Which of the fo110\ving is true for sanitization? (1) Done by st~am under pressure (2) Treatment by chemical antimicrobials (3) May be done with high tempt washing or by clipping unto a chemical disinfectant (4) Done with the help of Clntibiotics 22. Branded product 'Dettal' used in personal hygi~ne, is a/ an : (1) Antiseptic agent (3) Senitizer (2) Disinfectant (4) Fermented product 23. 1Vhich of the following about [. coli is not true? (1) E. coli is a parl of the gastric flora of humans (2) E. coli is beneficial in human intestine (3) A disease causing strain of [. coli causes bloody diarrhea (4) None of the above 24. Which comes under 'prevention' category? (1) Vaccine (2) Antibiotics (3) Analgesics (4) None of the ab(AC 25. Which of the following i~ <1 beneficial activity of microorganisllls ? (1) Some microorganisms use carbon dioxide (2) Some microorganisms provide nitrogen for plant gro\\•th (3) Some microorganisms are used in sewage treatment (4) All of the above 26. Which of the following is El valid scientific name? (1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (3) BaciJills tuberculosis ( 4 ) (2) Tubercle bacillus (4) fusarium trichosis ________________________________________ 27. Which of the following enzymes is used for glucose detection in blood? (1) Glucose isomerase (3) Amyloglucosidase (2) Glucose oxidase (4) Lucifcrasc 28. Which of the following is true for an antibiotic? (1) It kills or inhibits the growth of bacteria (2) Produced by micro organisms (3) Most of the antibiotics arc now chemically modified (semisynthetic) (4) All of the above 29. Drug sensitivity is necessary: (1) For relapse or fe-treatment cases (3) For Drug resistance studies (2) 'tVhen drug resistance is suspected (4) All afthe above 30. "Medical mycology" is the study of: (1) Mycobacterium (2) Medicine (3) Fungi 31. Candida species causes opportunistic infections in : (1) Immunocompromised person (3) Cancer patients (2) AIDS patients (4) All of the above 32. Characteristics of Gram positive bacteria are: (1) Stained dark blue or violet in Gram staining (2) Thick peptidoglycan layer (3) Cytoplasmic lipid membrane (4) All olthe above (4) Virus 33. Gram negative bacteria not stained dark blue or violet in Cram staining is: (1) Due to presence of outer polysaccharide layer on peptidoglycan in cell wall (2) Due to negative charge (3) Due to cytoplasmic lipid membrane (4) None of the above ( 5 ) 34. Opportunistic infections are due to : (1) Malnutrition (3) Immuno-suppression 35. Herpes virus is a : (1) Family of viruses (3) Causes disease in animals only 36. Bacterial flora present in water is : (1) Entamoeba (3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (2) Recurrent infections (4) All olthe above (2) Cause latent infections (4) Both (1) and (2) (2) E.coli (4) All of the above 37. Bacteria responsible for formation of curd from milk is : (1) Lactobacilli (3) Cocci (2) Coliform bacteria (4) None of the above 38. Genetically modified cultivars of which of the following plants are available? (1) Herbicide resistant cotton (3) Salt resistant tomatoes (2) Insecticide producing cotton (4) All olthese 39. The Ti plasmid from which plant pathogen is used to transfer plant genes between species? (1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (3) Haemophilus influenzae (2) Escherechia coli (4) Salmonella typhimurium 40. Some micro-organisms produce poisonous substances known as : (1) Enzymes (2) Toxins (3) Coagulator (4) Hyluronidase 41. Root nodules of leguminous plants are produced by the following wherein they fix nitrogen: (1) Pseudomonas (2) Rhizobium (3) Azotobacter (4) Anabena ( 6 ) ________________________________________ 42. Heterocyst performs: (1) Photosynthesis (2) Photosynthc'Sis and nitrogen fixation (3) Nitrogen fixation (4) Respiration 43. The best and easy way to control crop pest is by : (1) Crop rotation (2) Chemicals (3) Quarantine (4) Biological control 44. The .................. is where organisms arc found on and in the aerial surface plants roots. (1) Rhizosphere (2) Microfilm (3) Phyllospherc (4) Rhizoplane 45. The function of growth promoting rhizobacteria is to : (1) Decompose the organic matter secreted by plant making the nutrients available to the plants again (2) Stimulate the mineral uptake by inhibiting activities of other bacteria in the vicinity (3) Enhance mycorrhizal activity (4) Promote plant growth by producing chemical signals 46. The Nitrogen fixation form of Rhizobium is caned: (1) Bacteroid (2) Symbiosome (3) Infection thread (4) T-plasmid 47. Which of the following herbicide is an amino acid synthesis inhibitor? (1) Fosamine (2) Hexazinonc (3) 2,4-D (4) Glyphosate 48. Which of the following herbicide is a photosynthetic inhibitor? (1) Hexazinone (2) Fosamine (3) Glyphosate (4) 2,4-D ( 7 ) ________________________________________ 49. Which of the following is implicit in the-colonization process? (1) Ability to survive inoculation onto seed (2) To multiply in the spermosphere (3) To attach to the root surface and colonize there (4) All of the above 50. Diversity of the members of rhizosphere community varies with: (1) Plant species and age (2) Location on the root and soil properties (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None olthe above 51. Nitrobacter converts: (1) Nitrites to nitrates (3) N, to nitrates (2) Nt!, to nitrites (4) None of these 52. Azotobacter and Clostridium are N2 fixing bacteria found in : (1) Nodulated roots (2) Free soil (3) Leaves of plants (4) None 53. Beijernick discovered: (1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Bacillus radicola (3) Nodule formation in legumes (4) Both (2) & (3) 54. Frankia is ........... . ... organism. (1) Symbiotic (2) Parasitic (3) Ammonifying 55. The limiting factor in nitrification of soil is : (1) pH (2) Temperature (3) Air ( 8 ) (4) Putrifying (4) Light ________________________________________ 56. Insecticides are special inhibitors of : (1) Excretory system (3) Nervous system (2) Digestive system (4) Blood circulatory system 57. Which form of nitrogen is most usable by plants ? (1) Nitrate (2) Nitrite (3) Nitrogen gas (4) Ammonia 58. All of the following have an impact on the nitrogen cycle except: (1) The application of inorganic fertilizers applied to the soil (2) The action of aerobic bacteria acting on livestock wastes (3) The overplanting of nitrogen rich crops (4) The discharge of muncipal sewage 59. Plants assimilate sulphur primarily in which form? (1) Sulphates (2) Sulphites (3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Sulphur di-oxide 60. Which of the following enzyme detoxifies herbicide atrizine ? (1) Glutathione-s-transferase (2) Nitrilase (3) Acetyl transferase (4) Both (1) & (2) 61. During phosphorous cycle weathering makes phosphate available to : (1) Tertiary consumers (3) Consumer directly (2) Producers (4) Reservoir 62. The main nitrogen reservoir in the biosphere is : (1) Rocks (2) Oceans (3) Atmosphere (4) Organism 63. Which of the following limits the desert ecosystem? (1) Water (2) Nitrogen (3) Phosphorous (4) Both (1) and (2) (9) 64. Water during its cycle falling on land enters: (1) Surface Water (2) Aquifers (3) Ground water (4) All of the above 65. In nature carbon cycle is contributed by : (1) Photosynthesis (2) Respiration (3) Fossil fuels (4) All of the above 66. Cycling of the phosphorous occurs in the form of : (1) HPOj" (2) PO~- (3) P2 (a gas) (4) None ofthe above 67. The stable water balance on the earth is maintained by: (1) Evaporation (2) Precipitation (3) Surface run off (4) All of the above 68. Oxidation of ammonia into nitrite by chemo-synthetic bacteria is known as : (1) Nitrification (2) Denitrification (3) Nitrogen fixation (4) Transcription 69. The amount of oxygen required for oxidation by microbes in any unit volume of water is called: (1) Dissolve Oxygen (00) (3) Eutrophication (2) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) (4) Surface flow 70. The unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards meant for: (1) Water pollution (3) Noise pollution 71. The largest reservoir of carbon is the: (1) Atmosphere (2) Ocean ( 10 ) (2) Air pollution (4) Radioactive pollution (3) Rocks (4) Lake ________________________________________ 72. In terms of food chain or food pyramid, organisms that trap energy, such as plants are known as : (1) Primary producer (3) Primary consumer (2) Secondary prod ucer (4) Secondary consumer 73. The biggest category of classification in biological taxonomy is : (1) The phylum (2) The kingdom (3) The species (4) The family 74. Organisms that break down and feed on wastes and dead organism arc called: (1) Decomposer (2) Orrmivores (3) Autotrophs (4) Producers 75. Which of the following is/ are example of proto-coopcration ? (1) Desulfavibrio and Chroma/ill"' (2) The Pompeii Worm and sulfur oxidizing bacteria (3) Shrimp Rimicans exomlata and filamentous sulfur-oxidizing bacteria (4) All of the above 76. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter interaction m the nitrogen cycle is an example of : (I) Parasitism (3) Commensalisms (2) Protoco-opcration (4) Syntrophism 77. Which of the following is not one of the major environment problems resulting from human interference in the nitrogen cycle? (1) Stratospheric ozone depletion (2) Increased acid rain (3) Nitrous oxide release increases global warming (4) Eutrophication 78. The primary reservoir of nitrogen is : (1) The atmosphere (2) Rocks ( 11 ) (3) Ammonia (4) Nitrates 79. The term "activated sludge" is used for a common secondary treatment technique because: (1) It is very short lived, and therefore active compared to primary treatment (2) It requires many workers, who are actively on gated in maintaining the system (3) It involves use of a mixture of detritus feeding organisms and is thus activated (4) It is continually stirred and therefore activated 80. Chlorine is often added to wastewater for disinfection before effluent discharge. A Potential problem with the procedure is : (1) The chlorine promotes cultural eutrophication (2) Toxic chlorinated hydrocarbons may be formed (3) Chlorine contributed to depletion of the ozone layer (4) Chlorine gas is poisonous and may threaten near by homes 81. An organism that can thrive at temperature between 60-80°C : (I) Psychrophile (2) Halophile (3) Thermophile (4) Extremophiles 82. A community used water and water carried solids that flow to a treatment plant are called: (I) Effluent (2) Wastewater (3) Sludge (4) Mixed liquor 83. A wastewater treatment plant may disposeof effluent by : (1) Discharging onto land (2) Evaporating into the atmosphere (3) Discharging into receiving waters (4) All of the above 84. What was the first enzyme immobilized from the following? (1) Cyclase (2) Invertase (3) Penicillin G (4) Proteases 85. The functional groups of proteins suitable for covalent binding under mild conditions include: (1) The alpha amino groups of the chain (2) The alpha carboxyl group of the chain end (3) Gamma carboxyl groups of ASP and GLU (4) All ofthe above 86. What is the microbial source used for the production of rennet commercially? (1) BacilIus (2) Pseudomonas (3) Rhizomucor pusi/lus (4) Pencillium notafum 87. GMO rennet was commercially produced by : (1) Aspergillus niger (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (3) Pencillium spp. (4) Spirulina 88. -Serratiopeptidase is an anti-inflammatory enzyme produced by: (1) Serratia (2) BacilIus (3) Streptococcus (4) Pseudomonas 89. A synthetic ribozyme caIled gene shears is developed and directed against which disease? (1) HN (3) Cancer (2) Hypertension (4) Alzheimer disease 90. Who developed RNA enzyme system capable of self replication in about an hour ? (1) Lincoln and Joyce (2) Tang and Breaker (3) Arne Tisetius (4) Howard Martin Tewn 91. Among the following which is a renewable polymer used for packaging industry? (1) Poly styrene (2) Polyethylene (3) PLA (4) PVC 92. The most commonly used surface attachment agent in biosensors is : (1) Hydrogel (2) PEG (3) TEMED (4) Nitrocellulose ( 13) ________________________________________ 93. Which bacteria is used as a biosensor for the analysis of low BOD in river water? (1) E. coli (3) Salmonella enteriditis (2) Pseudomonas putida (4) Lysteria monoeytogenes 94. Identify negative modifiers of enzyme activity among the below: (1) Sulfanilamide (2) Potassium (3) Manganese (4) Zinc 95. Theinamycins is an antibiotic produced by : (1) S. cattleya (2) Nocardia uniformis (3) Agrobacterium radiobaeter (4) Flexibaeter 96. The genes puh and puf are responsible for synthesis of : (1) BacteriochlorophyU synthesis proteins (2) Carotenoids synthesis proteins (3) Pigrnent binding polypeptides (4) Cytochromes 97. What is the oxidation state of ammonia, nitrite and nitrate? (1) -3,+3,+5 (2) +5, + 3, + 2 (3) +1, +3, -3 (4) -3, + 3,-2 98. What is the electron acceptor used in the enrichment culture of denitrifying bacteria? (1) Potassium chloride (3) Potassium nitrate (2) Potassium sulfate (4) Potassium chromate 99. The first evidence for the oxidation of inorganic substance by an organism was given by : (1) t.Schloesing and A.Mutz (2) Winogradsky (3) Robert Koch (4) Alexander Fleming 100. What is the unusual sugar composition of a-polysaccharide? (1) Colitose (2) Mannose (3) Rhamnose (4) Galactose 101. What is the transducer that sense cobalt and nickel ? (1) CheW (2) CheA (3) tar (4) cheY 102. Causal organism of "transmissible spongiform encephalopathies" such as Kuru disease" and Creutzfeldt Jacob Syndrome is : (1) Bacteria (2) Virus (3) Prion (4) Viroid 103. On the basis of structure to which category does Small pox virus belongs? (1) RNA virus with icosahedral symmetry (2) DNA virus with icosahedral symmetry (3) DNA virus with complex symmetry (4) RNA virus with helical symmetry 104. What are Androphages ? (1) Phages attacking conjugating bacteria via conjugation tube (2) Phages attacking bacterium via flagella (3) Phages attacking bacterium by sex pilus (4) Phages incapable of attacking bacterium 105. Which of the following class of antibiotics is most likely to fail against Gram negative bacterium? (1) Cell wall synthesis inhibitors (2) DNA synthesis inhibitors (3) RNA subunit binding inhibitors (4) Peptidyl transferase inhibitors , 06. During Gram Staining, Iodine acts as 'a : (1) Dye (3) Mordant (2) Decolorizing agent (4) Indicator 107. Number of domains according to the latest system of classification is: (1) 8 (2) 5 108. An F" cell is: (1) Bacterial cell containing F factor (2) Bacterial cell lacking F factor (3) 3 (3) Bacterial cell containing F factor as Prophage (4) Bacterial cell containing modified F factor ( 15 ) (4) 2 109. Diglycerol diphatanyl tetraether is found in the cell wall of : (1) Archaebacteria (2) Gram Positive bacteria (3) Algae (4) Gram Negative Bacteria 110. Enrichment culture technique was devised by : (1) Beijerinck (2) Ivanowsky (3) Winogradsky (4) Ehrlich 111. Which of the following phages doesn't kill its bacterial host, but maintains a slow but continuous release of new phage even while host replicates? (1) A phage (2) T2 phage (3) M13 phage 112. Lysogenic conversion is: (1) Conversion of normal bacterial cell into lysogen (2) Conversion of phage into prophage (3) Changes in host bacterium due to prophage (4) Conversion of lysogenic to lytic phage (4) T4 phage 113. The possible site for localization of Penicillin Binding Proteins, associated with peptidoglycan biosynthesis is : (1) Outer membrane (2) Inner membrane (3) Peptidoglycan layer (4) Intermcmbrane space 114. Genetic material of Rotavirus, causing Rotavirus Diarrhea are: (1) Double stranded DNA (2) (+) strand of RNA (3) (-) strand of RNA 115. Teichoic Acid is present in : (1) Gram negative cell wall (3) Bacterial cellular membrane (4) Double stranded RNA (2) Gram positive cell wall (4) Bacterial cytoplasm 116. Which of the following microorganisms resides in host's gut ? (1) Hepatitis A virus (2) Polio virus (3) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (4) Influenza virus 117. Viriods are: (1) Smalt circular RNA molecules, associated with larger RNA molecules (2) Small subunits of viral coat (3) Hollow virus particles without nucleic acids (4) Nucleic acid without viral coat 118. Discovery of Viroid is credited to : (1) Prusiner (2) Diener (3) Ivanowsky 119. Which of the following requires cholesterol for growth ? (1) Actinomycetes (2) Mycoplasma (3) PPLO 120. Specialized Transduction is an example of : (4) Alpher (4) Chlorophyceae (1) Recombination (3) Horizontal Gene Transfer (2) Vertical Gene Transfer (4) Crossing over 121. Type IV pilus and Type II excretion system is associated with: (1) Conjugation (2) Transformation (3) Generalized Transduction (4) Abortive Transduction 122. Domain System is devised on the basis of : (1) Numerical Taxonomy and Percentage Similarity (2) DNA homology experiments involving Hetcroduplcxcs (3) Electron microscopic analyses of Ultramicroscopic structures (4) Molecular level genetic analyses of 16S.r.RNA 123. In which of the following D amino acids are most likely to be found? (1) Homo sapiens (2) Microcystis (3) Escherichia coli (4) Oscillatoria 124. Which of the following belongs to Archaebacteria ? (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Agrobacterium (3) Methanogens (4) Chlorophyceae 125. Saccluzromyces cerevisiae is employed for the production of : (1) Idli (2) Beer (3) Bread ( 17) (4) All of the above 126. Torulopsis utilis is : (1) Food yeast (2) Intestinal commensal (3) Microorganism that yields third generation vaccines (4) Employed for synthesis of citric acid 127. Heating mills and wines to 66°C for brief period and then sudden cooling is : (1) Pasteurization (2) Sterilization (3) Fermentation (4) Preservation 128. Milk is changed into curd by : (1) Acetobacter aceti (3) Kilnthomonas citri (2) Bacillus megaterium (4) None of the above 129. Pasteurization frees the foodstuff from: (1) All living bacteria (2) All living organisms (3) All vegetative forms of bacteria (4) Vegetative forms of all pathogenic bacteria 130. Curd, milk, cheese and butter are produced with the usc of : (1) Yeast (2) Penicillin (3) Streptococcus (4) None of the above 131. Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help of : (1) Lactobacillus (2) Acetobacter (3) Azotobacter (4) None of the above 132. Rennin employed in the cheese industry is : (1) Inhibitor (2) Alkaloid (3) Enzyme (4) Activator 133. Distribution of clean and quality milk throughout the world has been made possible as a result of the work of : (1) Leeuwenkoek (2) Koch (3) Pasteur (4) Blackman 134. Which compound is added to the medium to absorb oxygen for the creation of anaerobic conditions? (2) Nitrous acid (1) Sodiumthioglycollate (3) Citrate (4) None of the above 135. The Watson-Crick structure of DNA is referred to as; (1) A-DNA (2) B-DNA (3) C-DNA (4) Z-DNA 136. Which of the following has clove leaf like structure? (1) mRNA (2) tRNA (3) rRNA (4) DNA 137. Mutation theory of evolution is proposed by: (1) Hugo de Varies (2) Darwin (3) Lamarck (4) Mendel 138_ Transposes are also called as : (1) Walking chromosomes (3) Jumping genes (2) Running chromosomes (4) None olthe above 139. Who among the following is related to transposons ? (1) McClintok (2) Hershey and Chase (3) Jacob and Monod (4) Ramakrishnan 140. The enzymes that helps in RNA primer formation is : (1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase II (3) DNA polymerase III (4) DNA primase 141. Reverse transcriptase is a : (1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) RNA dependent polymerase (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) 142. Which of the following enzymes helps in uncoiling of DNA? (1) DNA primase (2) Ligase (3) Helicase (4) Lyase 143. pBR322 is a: (1) Bacteriophase (2) Bacteria (3) Virus (4) Plasmid 144. Which of the following is called Nature's Genetic Engineer? (1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (2) RNA virus (3) $x174 (4) NV 145. Western blotting is related to : (1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Proteins (4) Fats 146. DNA polymerase is involved in: (1) Replication (2) Transcription (3) DNA repair (4) Translation 147. Mutation is a: (1) Defect in DNA strand (3) Repetitive DNA sequence (2) Alteration in DNA strand (4) Single stranded RNA 148. DNA generally acts as template of: (1) Only protein (3) Only RNA (2) Only DNA (4) Both DNA and RNA 149. Artificial synthesis of DNA in the laboratory was first achieved by : (1) Kornberg & Ochoa (2) Khorana (3) Altman (4) Nirenberg & Mathei 150. The DNA probe, 3'GGCTTA will hybridises with DNA containing: (1) 5'CCGUUA (2) 3'CCGAAT (3) 5'CCGAAT (4) 3'GGCAAU |
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