#1
July 3rd, 2014, 09:05 AM
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Food Corporation of India Assistant grade 3 past year question papers
Will you please give me the Food Corporation of India ACIO grade 3 past year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
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#2
July 4th, 2014, 10:35 AM
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Re: Food Corporation of India Assistant grade 3 past year question papers
As you want to get the Food Corporation of India Assistant grade 3 past year question papers so here is the information of the same for you: 1. The echological niche of an organism denotes a) the habit of an organism b) its status within a particular community c) its structure and feeding habits d) the climatic factors of an organism 2. Rubber is obtained from the latex of _________ . a) stem of Euphorbia spp b) stem of Carica papaya c) stem of Hevea brasiliensis d) fruit of Achras sapota 3. Which of the following does not require external water for fertilization? a) Mosses b) Ferns c) Cycads d) Liverworts 4. The sporangia of a conifer are located on the a) scales of the cones b) tips of the needles c) base of the needles d) axils of the branches 5. The transfusion tissue is present in the _________ leaves. a) Dryopteris b) Cycas c) Pinus d) Cycas and Pinus 6. The number of Cotyledons in Pinus seeds is a) single b) two c) three d) many 7. The conical habit of Pinus is because of a) efficiency of water movement in plants b) mutual compition between branches c) compitition between neighbouring pine trees for sunlight d) effect of auxin on the growth of stem tip and axillatry branches 8. The largest ovules are found among a) Monocots b) Dicots c) Gymnosperms d) Angiosperms 9. _________ is an example of a plant which bears seeds but not fruit. a) Cyas b) Pea c) Pinus d) Selaginella 10. Which one is not true regarding energy flow through ecosystem? a) Energy inflows balance outflows b) Even energy transfer is accompanied by dispersion of energy into non available heat c) The organism near the begining of the food chain gets smaller amount of energy d) A shorter food chain can support a larger amount of organisms 11. Spot the organisms that are not symbionts. a) Rhizobium and root of legume plant b) Nostoc and coalliod root of Cycas c) Algae and Fungi d) Vanda and an angiosprem plant 12. The natural cycling of carbon between the organisms and the environment is accomplished through the process of a) Photosynthesis and respiration b) Radiation and immigration c) Fermentation and oxidation d) Isolation and dispersal 13. Motile sperm cells are found in all the following except: a) Cycas b) Funaria c) Pteris d) Rhizopus 14. __________ is an example of symbiotic association of an organism. a) Alage b) Fungi c) Bacteria d) Root nodule of legume plant 15. Gymnosperms are characterised by a) Naked seeds b) Seed enclosed in fruits c) Winged seed d) Multiple sperms 16. __________ is the edible part of Pinus seed. a) Pericap b) Female gametophyte c) Diploid perisperm d) Endosprem 17. The tissue in the roots of Vanda that absorbs water from the atmosphere is called a) Aernchyma b) Xylem c) Phloem d) Velamen 18. Quiescent centre is present in a) Root apex b) Shoot apex c) Vegetative apex d) Flower apex 19. Tunica and Corpus organization occurs in a) Root apex b) Shoot apex c) Cambium d) Inter-calary meristems 20. Which of the following tissues form the bulk of storage organ? a) Parenchyma b) Collenchyma c) Sclerenchyma d) Aerenchyma 21. In a forest ecosystem green plants are a) the primary producers b) the secondary consumers c) the decomposers d) both secondary consumers and decomposers 22. Various modifications in the form and structure in the leaves of xerophytes are meant a) to protect from air b) to protect from excess transpiration c) to check excess liberation of CO2 d) to help in absorption of O2 23. Etiolation in plants is due to a) Total darkness b) Full sunlight c) Vitamin deficiency d) Virus disease 24. Sunken stomata are found in a) Epiphytes b) Hydrophytes c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes 25. Opuntia is a cactus which is a a) Ephemeral animal b) Succulent c) Non-succulent d) Cladode 26. The ecological factors of soil and its environment and their interactions with the growth of plants come under the following factors: a) Biotic factors b) Abiotic factors c) Edaphic factors d) Climatic factors 27. _________ is an example of a free floating hydrophyte. a) Eichhornia b) Vallisneria c) Nymphaea d) Typha 28. An ecosystem cannot continue functioning without a constant input of energy because a) it is lost at each trophic level b) it flows in an ecosystem that lacks organisms that store energy c) an ecosystem includes decomposers in its community d) of climate change and fast urbanization 29. The largest amount of water that is available for the plants from soil is a) Gravtiational water b) Capilary water c) Hygroscopic water d) Soil water vapour 30. Polytene chromosome are found in a) salivary glands of men b) salivary glands of animals c) salivary glands of women d) salivary glands of Drosophila 31. What are the chromosomes with more than two chromatids called? a) Lampbrush chromosomes b) Polytene chromosomes c) Acrocentric chromosomes d) Allosomes 32. Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in a) Chromosome DNA b) Plasmid c) RNA d) Polymerase 33. A codon refers to a) a unit of recombination b) a unit that undergo mutation c) a set of bases in DNA which code one amino acid d) any functional unit of DNA 34. __________ enzyme that helps in DNA replication. a) Nucleotidase b) Arginase c) DNA polymerase d) Protease 35. __________ helps in DNA replication. a) Amylase b) Ligase c) Luciferase d) Hexokinase 36. A colour blind man marries the daughter of a colour blind person. Then in their progeny a) none of their daughters are colour blind b) all their daughters are colour blind c) all their sons are colour blind d) half their sons are colour blind 37. There is no masking of expression of genes in Neurospora because a) it has a short generation span b) it is haploid c) it requires minimum number of nutrients d) it is diploid 38. Tyloses are balloon-like ingrowths seen in vessels of a) primary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma b) secondary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma c) primary xylem developing from adjoining fibres d) secondary xylem developing from adjoining fibres 39. Which of the following statements is wrong? a) Primary growth causes increase in height whereas secondary growth accounts for increase in diameter b) The bark is a tissue outside cortex c) The cambium is composed of two kinds of initials d) In woody plants cambium functions for few years 40. ______________ is the characteristic of a vascular bundle of monocot stem. a) Open and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath b) Closed and not surrounded by a bundle sheath c) Closed and surrounded by a bundle sheath d) Open and not surrounded by a bundle sheath 41. Parenchymatous tissue is characterized by a) uniform thickening b) thickening of the corners c) lignified walls d) intercellular spaces 42. Cambium is considered a lateral meristem because a) it increases the height and diameter of a stem b) it gives rise to lateral branches c) it increases the girth of a plant d) it increases the length of a plant 43. Primary growth is caused by (or) the length of a plant axis increases by a) Apical meristem b) Lateral meristem c) Dermatogen d. Plerome 44. A meristem may be defined as the group of cells which a) do not divide b) conserve food and fight against bio-stresses c) divide continuously to give rise to new cells d) elongate and add to the group of cells 45. Knowing that albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man, presence of albinism in the children born to a normal couple proves that a) both the mother and father are heterozygous for albinism b) the father is homozygous normal but the mother is heterozygous c) the father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterozygous d) father and mother are homozygous normal 46. In an E.coli according to the operon theory an operator gene combines with a) inducer gene to ‘switch on’ b) regulator gene to ‘switch off’ c) regulator protien to ‘switch off’ structural gene transcription d) regulator protien to ‘switch on’ structural gene transcription 47. Which of the following is haploid in gymnosprems? a) Pollen grains, megaspore, root b) Pollen grains, megaspore, nucellus c) Megaspore mother cell, root, leaf d) Endosprem, pollen grains, megaspore 48. Cycas has two cotyledons but is not included in angiosperms because of a) stems like monocot b) large ovule c) naked ovule d) compound leaves 49. Chromosome theory of heredity was formulated for the first time on the basis of the following observations: a) Chromosomes exhibit segregation and independent assortment during meiosis b) There are a fixed number of chromosomes in each cell of an organism c) Chromosomes are the main structures in nucleus d) Determination os sex is through sex chromosomes 50. Self-replicating cytoplasmic particles are capable of transmitting traits in inheritance to a) Mutagenes b) Regulator genes c) Plasma genes d) Operator genes 51. Nyctalopia is caused due to the defficiency of vitamin a) A b) C c) D d) E 52. Gout is characterised by the accumulation of a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Uric acid d) Ornithine 53. Number of pollar bodies produced after first meiotic division during oogensis is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 54. Centrolecithal eggs are found in a) Fishes b) Mammals c) Insects d) Reptiles 55. The Indian scientist who received the Nobel Prize for having synthesised ‘Polyribonuleotides’ is a) Marshall Warren Nirenberg b) Venktaraman Ramakrishanan c) Amrtya Sen d) Har Gobind Khorana 56. Baldness in man is an example for _____________ genes. a) Sex-influenced b) Sex – limited c) X – Linked d) Z – Linked 57. Polymorphism may be developed by ___________ selection. a) Natural b) Directional c) Stablizing d) Disruptive 58. Assertion (A) : Sodium ions move slower than glucose molecule across the plasma membrane. Reason (R) : Plasma membrane contains protein. a) Both A nd R are true but R is not the correct reason for A b) Both A and R true, and R is the correct reason for A c) A is true, but R is false d) A is false, but R is true 59. The niche of a population is the a) place where it lives b) geographical area it covers c) set of conditions and resources it uses d) set of interactions it has with other populations 60. The science of improving the hereditary qualities of human species of future generation is called a) Genetics b) Euthenics c) Epigenesis d) Eugenics 61. The defficiency of _______________ vitamin causes beri-beri. a) Riboflavin b) Niacin c) Pantothenic acid d) Thiamine 62. The synthesis of prothrombin by the liver cells is stimulated by a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D 63. Which one of the following minerals is essential for blood coagulation? a) Calcium b) Phosphorus c) Magnesium d) Sodium 64. Limulus is an example of a living fossil that belongs to a) Onychophora b) Arachnida c) Mollusca d) Ratitae 65. First recombinant vaccine is availalble for a) HIV b) Small pox c) Hepatitis B d) Polio 66. Polio is spread through a) Mosquito b) Water contamination c) Air contamination d) Direct contact 67. Which of the following is not correct about the size of the organisms? a) Viruses - 0.07 - 0.10 m b) Amoeba - 8.00 - 15.0 m c) Bacteria - 0.5 - 2.50 m d) Euglena - 100 m - 200 m 68. Acetylcholine is secreted by a) Endothelial cells b) Nerve cells c) Brunner’s gland d) Pancreatic exocerine cells 69. The term chromosome was coined by a) W. Flemming b) W. Waldeyer c) Richard Altman d) Seymour Bezer 70. In which stage does the reduction in chromosome number take place during meiosis? a) Prophase – I b) Anaphase – I c) Metaphase – I d) Metaphase – II 71. A cross between an F1 hybrid and any one of the parents from which it is derived is a) Monohybrid cross b) Dihybrid cross c) Back cross d) Test cross 72. a - Thalassaemia major is a) inability to synthesize adult haemoglobin b) premature red blood cell destruction c) haemoglobin and shortening of red blood cell life span d) no functional and separate delta and b - globin chain genes 73. Crossing over brings a) cytoplasmic reorganization b) recombination of genes c) complete linkage d) no significant change 74. Somatic hybrids are produced by a) protoplasmic fusion b) tissue culture c) pollen culture d) hybridoma process 75. ____________ enzyme catalyses the removal of hydrogen from one substrate and passes it on to a second substrate. a) Oxidase b) Dehydrogenase c) Oxygenase d) Hydrolases 76. Wilson’s disease is due to the deficiency of a) Cobalt b) Iodine c) Copper d) Fluorine 77. Daily requirement of vitamin B1 is ________ mg. a) 1-5 to 2.0 b) 0.5 to 1.0 c) 3 to 5 d) 1 to 2 8. These enzymes exist in two or more forms which have the same function, but they differ physically and chemically a) Apoenzymes b) Multienzymes c) Exoenzymes d) Isoenzymes 79. Choose the wrong pair. a) Flame cells - Platyhelminthes b) Nephridium - Amphioxus c) Malpighian tubules - Insects d) Green glands - Crustacea 80. Egg with mineral yolk evenly distributed is called as a) Isolecithal b) Telolecithal c) Alecithal d) Centrolecithal 81. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is secreted by a) Argentaffin cells b) Peptic cells c) Mucous neck cells d) Oxyntic cells 82. Enzyme sucrose converts sucrose into a) Glucose + Fructose b) Glucose + Glucose c) Glucose + Galactose d) Glucose + Maltose 83. If the centromere divides the chromosome into two qnequal arms, it is termed as a) Telocentric b) Acrocentric c) Submetacentric d) Metacentric 84. __________ is an autoimmune disease. a) Glomerulonephritis b) Meningitis c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Hepatitis 85. Development of gut is called as a) Neurogenesis b) Notogenesis FCI Assistant G c) Mesogenesis d) Enterogenesis 86. The process by which cells gradually specialize to undergo changes in the shape and function is known as _____________ differentiation. a) Norhologicl b) Physiological c) Chemical d) Cytological 87. Which of the following statements is not correct about test tube baby? a) This method provides baby to infertile couple b) People who produce fertile egg but their health may not permit to bear children c) It provides opportunity to get babies of desired sex d) The rate of success is high 88. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of cancer? a) A tumour arises from an existing tissue or cells of the body b) They have greater potentiality for growth and multiplication c) They carry out the functions of normal adult cells d) They have large and irregular nuclei 89. Carcinoma means a) a tumour arising from any connective tissues b) a tumour arising from any fibrous tissues c) a tumour arising from epithelial cells d) tumours of bone 90. First land vertebrates – amphibians developed during _______________ period. a) Devonian b) Cambrian c) Ordovician d) Silurian 91. Which of the following is not an arthropod character exhibited by Peripatus? a) Clawed and pseudo segmented walking legs b) Presence of thick cuticle c) Presence of trachea as respiratory organ d) Presence of antennae 92. Select the correct sequence of evolution with reference to elephant. a) Meritherium – Stegodon – Mammoth – Palaemastodon – Elephas – Loxodonta b) Meritherium – Mammoth – Palaemastodon – Stegodon – Elephas – Loxodonta c) Meritherium – Palaemastodon – Stegodon – Mammoth – Elephas – Loxodonta d) Meritherium – Palaemastodon – Elephas – Stegodon – Mammoth – Loxodonta 93. Assertion (A): Dark-skinned people and blacks are more prone to UV exposures. Reason (R) : Efficiency of UV rays is as carcinogen depends on melanin pigmentation. a) A is correct, but R is wrong b) A is wrong, but R is correct c) Both A and R are correct, and R is the explanation of A d. Both A and R are correct, and R is not the explanation of A 94. Which of these is a non-essential amino acid? a) Valine b) Gylcine c) Lycine d) Tryptophan 95. Suppression of gene of one locus by a gene in other locus is called a) Epistasis b) Pleiotrophy c) Co-dominance d) Incomplete dominance 96. Mobile segments of DNA that can disrupt the function of the gene that they are insert into and cause are known as a) Meiosis b) Transposons c) Mutagens d) Missence 97. The type of interaction between two species where protozen Trichonympha lives in the gut of termites for cellulose digestion is referred to as a) Commensalism b) Mutualism c) Neutralism d) Parasitism 98. Centres for regulation of heart beat are situated in the brain at a) Cerebral hrmispheres b) Medulla oblongata c) Cerebellum d) Pons Varolii 99. A: Insulin increases conversion of glucose into glycogen B: Insulin increases the oxidation of glucose C: Insulin reduces blood sugar level a) A and B only are correct b) A and C only are correct c) A, B and C all are correct and Aand B are not the reason for C d) A, B and C all are correct and Aand B are the correct reason for C 100. Which of these is secreted by corpus luteum in a pregnant woman? a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) Androgen d) Relaxin 101. Amino acids are used as food additives for which of the following reasons? a) As natural antibiotics b) As natural growth inhibitors c) For nutritive purposes d) As antioxidants 102. Lycopene is an important antioxidant normally present in high level in a) Artichokes b) Bananas c) Tomatoes d) Soyabeans 103. The most common hydrocarbon in natural gas is a) Methane b) Butane c) Propane d) Ethane 104. The main effect of DDT on birds is a) fewer feathers b) reduced growth c) blindness d) thinner egg-shell 105. Which of the following is most hazardous? a) Crop waste b) Yard waste c) Paper waste d) Battery 106. The fertile part of soil is a) mineral water b) soil air c) humous d) soil water 107. The main source of air pollution is a) Factory exhaust b) Automobile exhaust c) Firewood d) Bad breath 108. Majority of all living species on the Earth are found in a) Tundra region b) Antarctica c) Tropical rainforest d) Temperate region 109. Cell organelle found only in plants a) Mitochondria b) Plastids c) Golgi complex d) Ribosomes 110. Enzymes are polymers of a) Amino acids b) Fatty acids c) Sugar d) Ribosomes 111. Which trait can effectively be conferred into a plant by a transgene? a) Resistance to insects b) Resistance to humans c) Tolerance to light d) Tolerance to snowfall 112. What is the general term used to describe the degradation of pollutants using a biological approach? a) Biostimulation b) Bioremediation c) Biodegradation d) Bioprocessing 113. Which genera of micro-organisms have the most diverse pathways for bioremediation? a) Pseudomonas b) Salmonella c) Legionella d) Colletotrichum 114. What is nanotechnology a) The individual manipulation of molecules and atoms to create materials with novel or improved properties b) The creation of new terms to describe very small, almost unimagniable particle in physics c) The terms used to describe the size of cellular components d) The transition of molecular biology into the physical sciences 115. The colourless, odourless, tasteless radioactive gas present within homes and buildings is a) Argon b) Radon c) Xenon d) Krypton 116. Pedology is the study of a) Rock b) Coal c) Ecosystem d) Soil 117. The absorption of zinc in the human digestive tract may be inhibited by the presence of a) Plant fibre b) Animal fibre c) Water d) Oil 118. A species that is unique to a defined place or region and not found anywhere else is called a) Endangered b) Endemic c) Indigenous d) Extinct 119. The main cause of global rising sea levels is a) Thermal expansion b) Melting of glaciers c) Melting of polar ice d) Melting of Antarctica 120. Anemometer is used to measure a) wind density b) wind velocity c) wind speed d) wind gravity 121. Ketone bodies are produced by a) brain b) liver c) kidney d) muscles 122. Normal urine has the following components a) Chlorides b) Glucose c) Urea d) Creatinine 123. The most penetrating rays are a) alpha rays b) beta rays c) gamma rays d) delta rays 124. At what stage of cell division does the centromere divide? a) Prophase b) Telophase c) Metaphase d) Anaphase 125. Genetic mapping is based on the linkage between it on to a second substrate. a) loci b) muton c) recon d) cistron 126. Most of the plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in the form of a) nitrate b) nitrite c) nitric acid d) nitrogen gas 127. The shape of metacentric chromosome is a) T-shaped b) Rod shaped c) S-shaped d) V-shaped 128. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder? a) Diabetes mellitus b) Haemolytic anemia c) Rheumatic fever d) Cholera 129. The natural anticoagulant of blood in the vessel is a) EDTA b) Oxalate c) Citrate d) Heparin 130. Western blotting technique is used to detect the a) Proteins b) DNA c) mRNA d) rRNA 131. Which of the following is not a renewable energy resource? a) Wood b) Wave c) Biogas d) Natural gas 132. Streptomycin is used to cure the diseases caused by a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Yeast d) Fingi 133. Antihaemorrhagic vitamin is also called as a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin B12 134. The study of the action is known as a) Pharmacognosy b) Pharmacology c) Pathology d) Parasitology 135. Cholesterol level in blood is increased in all except a) Nephrotic syndrome b) Obstructive jaundice c) Hypoparathyroidism d) Hyperthyroidism 136. COLA refers a) Crystine ornithine leucine arginine b) Crystine ornithine lysine alanine c) Crystine ornithine leucine alanine d) Crystine ornithine lysine arginine 137. Erythropoietin, the hormone involved in synthesis of RBCs, is released to blood circulation by a) red blood cells b) bone marrow erythroid progenitor cells c) renal cell d) hepatic cells 138. Which among the following does not bind calcium? a) Calcitonin b) Calbindin c) Calcineurin d) Calmodulin 139. Plasma bicarbonate is transported across red blood cells by a) Pectrin b) Ankyrin c) Carbonic anhydrase d) Band 3 proteins 140. Assertion (A): Animals store energy in the form of triglycerides. Reason (R) : Triglycerides can be converted to glucose whenever needed. a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true and R is false. d) A is false and R is true. 141. The device used to introduce air into the liquid in a fermentor is termed as a) impeller b) baffles c) sprager d) thermostate 142. The Indian Collection of Industrial Microorganisms is located at a) Chandigarh b) Pune c) Punjab d) Delhi 143. The first virus crystallised by Stanely in 1935 was a) Cauliflower mosaic virus b) Tobacco mosaic virus c) Gemini virus d) Wound tumour virus 144. During World War II, the microorganism used as an agent of bio-terrorism was a) Bacillus anthracis b) Brucella abortus c) Resinia pestis d) Clostridium botulinum 145. The complete viral particle is known as a) Virion b) Viroid c) Prion d) Virusoid 146. The discovery of human blood group was made by a) Emil Von Behring b) Ehrlich c) Landsteiner d) Milstein 147. “Penicillin” the wonder drug was discovered first by Alexander Fleming from the culture of a) Penicillium notatum b) Penicillium chrysogenum c) Penicillium funiculosum d) Penicillium stoloniferum |
#3
July 4th, 2014, 10:35 AM
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Re: Food Corporation of India Assistant grade 3 past year question papers
148. The term Cistron means a a) unit of function b) unit of mutation c unit of recombination d) unit of linkage 149. Who developed the Rabies vaccine? a) Robert Koch b) Robert Gallo c) Walther Hesse d) Louis Pasture 150. Sugar in the nucleotide is a) Hexose b) Pentose c) Priose d) Heptose 151. More dominant group of microorganisms in the soil is a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Actinomycetes d) Protozoa 152. TDT is a) Thermal dealy time b) Thermal divide time c) Thermal death temperature d) Thermal death time 153. The first viral pathogen discovered was a) HIV b) TMV c) HPV d) YMV 154. Plague is caused by a) Bacterium b) Fungus c) Alga d) Virus 155. Selman A. Waksman was awarded Nobel Prize for the discovery of a) Penicilin b) Streptomyces c) Streptomycin d) Penicillium 156. Robert Koch has been awarded Nobel Prize in 1905 for the discovery of a) Anthrax b) Cholera c) Tuberculosis A) a and b B) a and c C) a alone D) c alone 157. Organisms, which utilize simple inorganic compounds, are termed as a) Phototrophs b) Autotrophs c) Heterotrophs d) Necrotrophs 158. Cross wall formation during cell division is accelerated by a) Ribosomes b) Lysosomes c) Endosomes d) Mesosomes 159. The group of bacteria which includes obligate intracellular parasites is a) Rickettsias b) Mollicutes c) Archaeobacteria d) Actinomycetes 160. Which of the following methods is employed for disposal of sludge that is contaminated with heavy metals heavily? a) Incineration b) Drying c) Landfilling d) Composting 161. The addition of sugar to an egg ____________ the heat stability of proteins. a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) increases and then decreases 162. Deterioration of fat in the presence of oxygen is due to the enzyme a) Lipase b) Protease c) Lipoxygenase d) Peptidase 163. In cheese manufacture, curd is formed by the addition of a) Renin b) Protease c) Peptidase d) Amylase 164. Excessive intake of polished rice causes deficiency of a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K 165. The fat content of toned milk should be a) less than 1.5% b) less than 3% c) more than 3% d) more than 5% 166. Bitter pit is a) Chemical injury b) Physiological injury c) Mechanical injury d) Microbial disease 167. What is the TSS of fruit syrup? a) 20% b) 45% c) 65% d) 80% 168. Diethyl pyrocarbonate is used as a preservative for a) Spices b) Fruit juices c) Nuts d) Vegetables 169. A toxic element which may contaminate food is a) Zinc b) Copper c) Lead d) Calcium 170. Tofu is a processed product of a) Kidney bean b) navy bean c) Broad bean FCI Assistand) Soyabean 171. Appertizing is a process called canning and is named after a)Nicholas Apert b) Michael Apert c) John Apert d) Williams Apert 172. Consider the following statements: A. Butter is an example for oil in water emulsion. B. Milk is an example for water in oil emulsion. a) Statement A is correct and B is wrong b) Statement B is correct and A is wrong c) Statements A and B are wrong d) Statements A and B are correct 173. Consider the following statements: A. Soyabean contains 40% protien and 20% fat B. The quality of protien is poor because of the process of the trypsin inhibitor. a) Statement A is correct and the explanation given in B is wrong b) Statement A is correct and the explanation given in B is correct c) Statements A and B are correct d) Statements A and B are wrong 174. Choose the best answer. The toxin found in groundnut kernel is a) Aflatoxin b) Patulin c) Aminotoxin d) Paratoxin 175. Choose the correct answer. Decomposition of carbohydrates by microorganisms or enzymes is called as a) Putrefaction b) Fermentation c) Canning d) Dextrinisation 176. Consider the following statements: A. Freezing at very low temperature (-60 oC) is cryogenic freezing. B. The refrigerants used are oxygen and neon a) A and B are true b) A is true, but B is false c) B is true, but A is false d) A and B are false 177. Consider the following statements: A. Milk is rich in calcium and vitamin D. B. On heating milk combines with casein and is converted to calcium caseinate. Of these a) Statement A is correct and B is wrong b) Statements A and B are correct c) Statements A and B are wrong d) Statement A is wrong and B is correct 178. Freeze crack is seen when foods are frozen by a) Air freezing b) Contact freezing c) Immersion freezing d) Cryogenic freezing 179. Hedonic rating test is used to measure a) sensitivity b) preference c) difference 0. Puffed products are dried to a moisture content less than a) 12% b) 8% c) 4% d) 16% 181. In which region of India, is shifting cultivation widely followed? a) South b) North c) North-East d) North-West 182. The toxic substance gossypol is formed in a) Rapeseed b) Linseed c) Cotton d) Fababean 183.Pigeonpea sterility mosaic is transmitted by a) Aceria cajani b) Besmia tabaci c) Myzus persicae d) Orosius albicinctus 184. The state which ranks first in sugarcane productivity in India is a) Maharashtra b) Uttar Pradesh c) Tamilnadu d) Karnatka 185. Frequent ploughing of soil destroys a) Soil texture b) Soil structure c) Soil colour d) Soil type 186. Potato late blight is caused by a) Fungus b) Bacterium c) Virus d) Actinomycete 187. Leaf spot with concentric zonations are observed in a) Cercospora b) Pyricularia c) Helminthosporium d) Alternaria 188. Banana bunchy top is caused by a) Fungus b) Bacteria c) Virus d) Phytoplasma 189. Seasane phyllody is transmitted by a) White fly b) Aphid c) Jassid d) Lace wing 190. Fungi belonging to which sub-division is called as sac fungi? a) Basidiomycotina b) Ascomycotina c)Mastigomycotina d) Deuteromycotina 191. In India, which state is popularly named as Soya State? a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Uttar Pradesh d) Tamilnadu 192. The highest protein is found in seeds of a) Begal gram b) Green gram c) Red gram d) Soyabean 193. Most serious disease of sugarcane is a) Red stripe b) Red rot c) Wilt d) Smuti 194. The most common amendment used for reclamation of alkali lands is a) Lime b) Gypsum c) Tank silt d) FYM 195. Biofertilizer suitable for red gram is a) Rhizobium b) Azospirillum c) Azolla d) Azotobacter 196. Cotton is susceotible to drift of a) Lasso b) Stomp c) Machete d) 2,4-D 197. The appearance of an organism in a given environment is called as a) genotype b) genome c) idiotype d) phenotype 198. A windmill suitable for water lifting is a) single blade type b) double blade type c) triple blade type d) multiple blade type 199. The major protein in wheat flour is a) zein b) gluten c) oryzenin d) hordenine 200. Type of moisture that can be removed by common drying techniques is a) equilibrium moisture b) total moisture c) free moisture d) bound moisture Contact Details: Food Corporation Of India Limited Rajendra Bhawan, Rajendra Palace, New Delhi, Delhi 011 2571 0962 India Map Location: |
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