Hello friend as you want the Group C Question Papers of ICFAI so here I am providing you the same…

1. Which of the following is/are the feature(s) that distinguish fifth generation computers from all previous generations of computers?
I. Time sharing and batch processing.
II. Artificial intelligence and voice recognition.
III. Ability to form networks.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

2. Which of the following scanning systems is predominantly used in the banking industry for processing checks and demand drafts?
(a) Optical character recognition
(b) Magnetic ink character recognition
(c) Optical mark reader
(d) Bar code reader
(e) Touch screen.

3. Which of the following are special memory units in a processor that are used for temporary storage and for speeding up the
movement of information between various sections of a computer system?
(a) Disks
(b) Registers
(c) Indexes
(d) Drivers
(e) Segments.

4. Touchpad, touch screen, light pen, and joystick are examples of
(a) Icons
(b) Pointers
(c) Output devices
(d) Pointing devices
(e) Menus.

5. Which of the following is the fastest memory in terms of accessibility?
(a) Read only memory
(b) Cache memory
(c) Random access memory
(d) Dynamic random access memory
(e) Hard disk.

6. Which of the following is an automatic program loaded into the memory of the computer as soon as it is switched on?
(a) Browser
(b) Word processor
(c) Bootstrap loader
(d) Spreadsheet software
(e) Compiler.

7. Which of the following will convert the binary code produced by the computer into a human-readable form?
(a) Central processing unit
(b) Input unit
(c) Control unit
(d) Output interfaces
(e) Hard disk.

8. In RISC architecture, RISC stands for
(a) Reduced Instruction Set Computer
(b) Reduced Information System Computer
(c) Reduced Instruction System Computer
(d) Reduced Information Set Computer
(e) Reduced Iteration Set Computer.
9. Match the following:
i. Flat bed scanners p. Use a roller mechanism
ii. Sheet fed scanners q. Used for copying smaller originals, such as photographs
iii. Handheld scanners r. Used for working on a single sheet of paper at a time
(a) i/r, ii/p, iii/q
(b) i/r, ii/q, iii/p
(c) i/p, ii/r, iii/q
(d) i/q, ii/r, iii/p
(e) i/p, ii/q, iii/r.

10. Which of the following is not a/an application software?
(a) Internet explorer
(b) Word Processor
(c) MS Excel
(d) Java
(e) McAfee.

11. Which of the following statements is/are true about the Daisy wheel printers?
I. Daisy wheel printers are very noisy and they print very slowly.
II. Daisy wheel printers can print graphics and have multi-font capabilities.
III. Daisy wheel printers come under the category of impact printers.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

12. Which of the following statements is/are true about Drum plotters?
I. Drum plotters print graphical images by moving both drum and the pen.
II. Drum plotters are smaller than the flatbed plotters.
III. The pictures are as accurate as those printed by flatbed plotters.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

13. Which of the following is the circuitry that allows all the hardware devices in the computer to talk to each other?
(a) Processor
(b) Hard disk
(c) System bus
(d) Operating system
(e) Control unit.

14. Processor is a part of a computer which executes a set of instructions. The capabilities vary from one processor to another. Which of
the following capabilities is defined as the rate at which a processor can complete processing cycles?
(a) Hits per second
(b) Baud rate
(c) Response time
(d) Clock speed
(e) Processor band.

15. Which of the following is/are not example(s) of second generation computers?
I. LARC.
II. IBM 360.

III. IBM 401.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
16. Which of the following statements is/are true about subjective estimation?
I. Subjective estimation method is employed in situations where other data sources are available.
II. Subjective estimation is a method of data collection in which the required data is collected from the entire population or at least
from a sample representative of the larger population.
III. Subjective estimation is used for conducting an analysis regarding issues that are difficult to be described in actual, objective or
numeric terms.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

17. When a sender sends a message to a receiver, some distortion or noise occurs in the process, reducing the efficiency of the
communication medium. Which of the following methods increases the sending and receiving efficiency of the system?
I. Summarization.
II. Message routing.
III. Observation.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

18. In the communication process, modulator is used for
(a) Sending information from a sender to a receiver through a medium
(b) Converting the original message into a signal
(c) Converting the signal into the original message
(d) Linking communicating parties – sender and receiver
(e) Reducing the noise in the communication medium.

19. Which of the following parameters of quality refers to the information which is free from errors and bias?
(a) Age
(b) Validity
(c) Impartiality
(d) Consistency
(e) Reliability.

20. Errors are not always deliberate and therefore certain measures can be taken to minimize them. So which of the following measures
are used to ascertain the credibility of the information?
I. Internal controls.
II. Internal audit and external audit.
III. Instructions pertaining to measurement and processing of information.
IV. Additional parameters that state the level of confidence with regard to the accuracy of information.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.

21. Windows 98 offered features like Internet Explorer 5 browser software, Microsoft Windows NetMeeting® version 3.0 conferencing
software, and Microsoft DirectX® API 6.1, which delivered a variety of Windows multimedia improvements, and offered home
networking capabilities through ICS. ICS is an acronym for

(a) Internet Connectivity System
(b) Information Connectivity System
(c) Internet Connection Sharing
(d) Information Connection Sharing
(e) Internet Communication System.
22. Match the following:
i. Virtual memory p. Enables the operating system to regain control if an
application stops running and crashes
ii. Swapping q. Signals to inform the operating system that some activity has
taken place
iii. Interrupts r. Users can work with more memory than what is installed on
the motherboard of the computer
iv. Preemptive multitasking s. Paging operations which slow down the speed of the
computer
(a) i/r, ii/s, iii/q, iv/p
(b) i/r, ii/q, iii/s, iv/p
(c) i/r, ii/q, iii/p, iv/s
(d) i/r, ii/s, iii/p, iv/q
(e) i/p, ii/s, iii/q, iv/r.

23. Match the following:
i. Swap file p. Used to supply additional information that a program needs to
perform a chosen action
ii. Shell q. When the memory is full, the operating system starts storing
copies of pages in this
iii. Dialog box r. Predefined set of rules to be followed while interacting with the
system
iv. Syntax s. User interface that surrounds the core of the operating system
(a) i/q, ii/p, iii/s, iv/r
(b) i/q, ii/s, iii/p, iv/r
(c) i/q, ii/s, iii/r, iv/p
(d) i/q, ii/r, iii/p, iv/s
(e) i/r, ii/s, iii/p, iv/q.

24. Which of the following statements is/are true about menu-driven user interface?
I. The user does not need to memorize keywords and syntax with menu-driven user interface.
II. Menu-driven interface provides the user with a list that contains a range of options from which they have to select the
commands.
III. Menu-driven user interface is commonly used for system administration task.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

25. Which of the following statements is/are true about UNIX operating system?
I. UNIX is one of the most popular multi-user, multi-tasking operating system that uses client/server technology.
II. UNIX was developed only for mainframe computers.
III. The main motive behind developing UNIX was to enable programmers to access the system and share resources
simultaneously.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

26. Which of the following statements is/are true about Windows 3.0 operating system?
I. Windows 3.0 was the first version of Windows that enabled users to take full advantage of Intel new 16-bit microprocessor, the
80286.

II. The various versions of Microsoft Windows 3.0 (including Windows 3.1, 3.11 etc), released subsequently were collectively
known as Microsoft Windows 3.x.
III. The new features of Windows 3.0 were the program manager, file manager and the print manager.
(a) Only (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
27. Which of the following statements is/are true about Windows NT operating system?
I. Windows NT operating system was specifically designed for client/server systems.
II. Windows NT was superior to all other existing operating systems in terms of security, operating system power, performance,
desktop scalability and reliability.
III. Windows NT operating system has advanced features like support of drivers for and gaming features compared to Win 95 and
Win 98.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

28. Which of the following statements is/are true about Linux operating system?
I. Linux is considered virus-free as compared to Windows.
II. There are numerous application software’s available for Linux compared to Windows.
III. Linux can be shutdown without first logging out.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

29. Which of the following statements is/are true about Windows operating system?
I. Majority of hardware devices support Windows.
II. File names in Windows are case sensitive.
III. Windows can support large clusters.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

30. Which of the following versions of NetWare operating system is/are not WAN operating system(s)?
I. NetWare 3.11.
II. NetWare 3.12.
III. NetWare 4.11.
IV. NetWare 5.1.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above
(d) Both (III) and (IV) above
(e) (I), (II) and (III) above.

31. Network resources in an organization include its communication media and network support. Network support includes support
from
I. Data resources.
II. People resources.
III. Hardware and software resources.

(a) Only (III) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
32. The information circulated in a company grapevine can be called
(a) Knowledge information
(b) Control information
(c) Informal information
(d) Sampled information
(e) Planning information.

33. The information used as part of a feedback mechanism to compare actual with predetermined standards and take corrective action
for deviations is called
(a) Summarized information
(b) Control information
(c) Detailed information
(d) Aggregate information
(e) Planning information.

34. Information obtained in the form of payroll and accounting ledgers are outcomes of
(a) Subjective estimation
(b) Transaction processing
(c) Data collection from secondary sources
(d) Survey
(e) Observation.

35. Based on nature, application, structure, form and usage, information can be classified into many types. Based on nature, information
is classified into
I. Qualitative information.
II. Planning information.
III. Knowledge information.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

36. Which of the following statements is/are true about vertical applications?
I. Vertical applications are those that cater to the needs of a particular business function.
II. Special programmers or operators are not required to carry out these applications.
III. Examples of vertical applications are accounting software and bill generation software.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

37. Match the following:
i. Function p. A symbol, name or key that represents a list of commands
ii. Macro q. Used when it is necessary to apply a formula to values in more
than one cell or a range of cells
iii. Replication r. A special keyword which can be entered into a cell to process some
data which is appended within brackets
(a) i/q, ii/p, iii/r
(b) i/r, ii/p, iii/q
(c) i/q, ii/r, iii/p
(d) i/r, ii/q, iii/p
(e) i/p, ii/q, iii/r.

38. Which of the following signs should be used before a number for it to be considered as text in MS-Excel?
(a) Dollar
(b) Hash
(c) Parentheses
(d) Apostrophe
(e) Ampersand.

39. Which of the following parts of worksheet is used to switch from one sheet to another in a MS-Excel file?
(a) Scroll bar
(b) Window controls
(c) Sheet tab
(d) Scroll arrows
(e) Tool bar.

40. Which of the following will ensure that row headings in a worksheet appear all the time even when the worksheet is scrolled down?
(a) Macros
(b) Freeze panes
(c) Tabs
(d) Cell references
(e) Functions.

41. Which of the following terms in MS-Word indicates the position of the text in the document?
(a) Justification
(b) Indentation
(c) Emphasis
(d) Hyphenation
(e) Word wrapping.

42. In MS-Excel, Which of the following is not a Mathematical and Trigonometrical functions?
(a) ABS
(b) AVERAGE
(c) FACT
(d) SQRT
(e) TAN.

43. Which of the following statements is/are true about Lookup & Reference functions?
I. Lookup & Reference functions in MS-Excel enable the user to look up for a particular row or column or find a specific
reference in the worksheet.
II. ADRESS, HYPERLINK and TRANSPOSE are some examples of Lookup & Reference functions.
III. Lookup & Reference functions in MS-Excel help in summarizing, comparing and grouping data and finding out the
relationships between two sets of data.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

44. Which of the following is not an Information function?
(a) CELL
(b) INFO
(c) ISLOGICAL
(d) CLEAN
(e) ISTEXT.

45. In Excel sheet, the cells A1,A2,A3,A4,A5,A6,A7,A8,A9 contain 1,2,3,9,5,6,7,7,7 respectively; cells B1,B2,B3,B4,B5,B6,B7,B8,B9 contain
1,2,5,9,5,4,5,6,6 respectively; and cells C1,C2,C3,C4,C5,C6,C7, C8,C9 contain 2,3,4,5,6,7,4,3,2 respectively. When we apply the formula
‘=SUM(A1:B9 & B1:C9)’ in the C10, the result will be

(a) 47
(b) 126
(c) 169
(d) 43
(e) #VALUE!.
46. In Excel sheet, the cells A1,A2,A3,A4,A5,A6,A7,A8,A9 contain 1,2,3,9,5,6,7,7,7 respectively; cells B1,B2,B3,B4,B5,B6,B7,B8,B9
contain 1,2,5,9,5,4,5,6,6 respectively; and cells C1,C2,C3,C4,C5,C6, C7,C8,C9 contain 2,3,4,5,6,7,4,3,2 respectively. When we apply
the formula ‘=SUM(A1:B9:B1:C9)’ in the C10, the result will be
(a) 47
(b) 126
(c) 169
(d) 164
(e) #VALUE!.

47. In MS Excel, the expression ‘=6^3*4&8^2*4/3^2*4^3*3’ would give the result as
(a) 8640.1481
(b) 8645461.333
(c) 8645376
(d) 8645321.333
(e) 8645657.333.

48. In Excel sheet, the cells A1,A2,A3,A4,A5 contain 1,3,2,4,5 respectively; cells B1,B2,B3,B4,B5 contain 2,5,3,4,6 respectively and
cells C1,C2,C3,C4,C5 contain 3,2,3,6,1 respectively. If we write the formula ‘=$A$2+B5+$C$2’ in cell D1 and drag to subsequent
cells, what will be the contents of D1, D2, D3, D4 and D5 respectively?
(a) 11, 5, 5, 5, 5
(b) 11, 10, 8, 14,12
(c) 11, 10 , 8, 4, 5
(d) 11, 5, 8, 14, 12
(e) 11, 10, 5, 14, 12.

49. In presentation graphics software, which of the following view options displays thumbnails of each slide and enables the user to
change their (i.e., slides) order?
(a) Slide view
(b) Outline view
(c) Slide sorter view
(d) Notes view
(e) Master view.

50. Which of the following shortcut keys the user can use in order to use Cells option in Format menu?
(a) CTRL+ALT+1
(b) CTRL+1
(c) CTRL+SHIFT+1
(d) CTRL+9
(e) CTRL+ALT+5.

51. Which among the following is not an example of a Desktop conferencing system?
(a) Livelink
(b) Share Vision
(c) VideumConf pro
(d) CU-SeeMe
(e) Proshare Video.

52. Which of the following statements is/are true about Post Office Protocol (POP)?
I. POP is used for retrieving emails from a mail server.
II. POP2 and POP3 are the two versions of POP.
III. POP2 does not require SMTP for sending messages while POP3 strictly requires SMTP.

(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

53. Which of the following statements is/are true about Intranet?
I. The intranet is a private computer network which is designed for internal use within the organization.
II. Intranets are similar to Internet in terms of hardware and software used.
III. Compared to Intranets, Internet has high security features.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

54. Groupware is a type of
(a) Hardware
(b) Network
(c) Software
(d) Protocol
(e) Language.

55. Which of the following are advantages of Extranets?
I. Using Extranets, the company can develop strategic relationships with its customers and vendors.
II. The information shared on the Extranet can be updated regularly and instantaneously.
III. Extranets provide face-to-face contact with external business entities.
IV. Extranets can be used for sharing news that might be of common interest among the business partners.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (IV) above
(c) (I), (II) and (IV) above
(d) (I), (III) and (IV) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

56. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding middle level management?
I. The decisions taken at this level are called as tactical decisions.
II. Decisions at this level are likely to have a medium to long-term impact on the organization.
III. The examples of decisions taken at this level are decisions pertaining to materials, facilities, personnel etc.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

57. Which of the following statements is/are true about Executive Information Systems (EIS)?
I. EIS enable online access to relevant information (related to the external environment) to the top management in a
comprehensible format.
II. The basic purpose of an EIS is to help executives learn about the organization, its work processes, and its interaction with the
external environment.
III. EIS mostly help the top management in taking structured decisions.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

58. Which of the following information systems are also known as adaptive learning systems?

(a) Transaction processing systems
(b) Management information systems
(c) Decision support systems
(d) Executive information systems
(e) Knowledge management systems.
59. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is an example of
(a) Manual data entry
(b) Semi-automated data entry
(c) Fully automated data entry
(d) Integrated data entry
(e) Informal data entry.

60. Generation of information products like reports and other documents forms the report generation phase of transaction processing
cycle. Which of the following provide details of each transaction occurring during a particular period?
(a) Information documents
(b) Action documents
(c) Turnaround documents
(d) Edit reports
(e) Control listings.

61. “The system should be designed in such a way that there is perfect synchronization between hardware, software, data processing,
information presentation and feedback.”
Which of the following characteristics of Management Information System (MIS) relates to the above sentence?
(a) Management oriented
(b) Management directed
(c) Integrated systems
(d) Planning
(e) Flexibility.

62. To arrive at a rational solution, a Decision Support System (DSS) may make use of inquiry, analysis, models or accounting systems.
Which of the following systems are developed using simple data processing tools and business rules and rely on comparative
analysis, application of formula, and use of algorithms?
(a) Data analysis systems
(b) Information analysis systems
(c) Accounting systems
(d) Status inquiry systems
(e) Process control systems.

63. Which of the following statements is false about business improvement and Business Process Re-engineering (BPR)?
(a) Business improvement refers to making improvements in the existing process
(b) Business process re-engineering deals with the complete redesigning of the business processes
(c) The risk of failure and level of disruption is very low in case of business process re-engineering while it is
high in case of business improvement
(d) Business improvement is usually carried out for any process
(e) Business process re-engineering is carried out for strategic business processes only.

64. Which of the following statements is/are false about Artificial Intelligence (AI)?
I. Artificial Intelligence is a software-based technique and is applied on data like symbols, statements, and patterns.
II. Artificial Intelligence systems are exact substitutes for human beings.
III. The methods used by an Artificial Intelligence system are symbolic processing, social reasoning, scientific reasoning, and
conceptual modeling.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (I) and (III) above.

65. Which of the following is/are associated with an agile competitor?
I. Fostering entrepreneurial skills and empowering employees.

II. Maintaining a flexible organizational structure.
III. Pricing should be based on cost of production.
(a) Only (II) above
(b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
66. Mr. Sudhakar, working as an Economist in a MNC, is asked by the sales manager to provide him the details about how a repeated
change in the price of the product affects sales and purchasing power of the customers. Which of the following types of analytical
modeling will be helpful for Sudhakar in this case?
(a) Value analysis
(b) Sensitivity analysis
(c) Goal seeking analysis
(d) Optimization analysis
(e) Time-series analysis.

67. Which of the following is/are true regarding real-time processing?
I. Real-time processing enables transactions to be processed immediately after they are generated.
II. Monthly payroll processing is an example of real-time processing.
III. An airline reservation system uses real-time processing.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

68. Which of the following characteristics of information system is/are not the most desirable for decision making at the strategic level?
I. Adaptability.
II. Flexibility.
III. Compatibility.
IV. Insightfulness.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (IV) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.

69. Match the following management control decisions with their corresponding nature of decision making:
i. Employee performance appraisal p. Structured decision making
ii. Business process re-engineering q. Semi-structured decision making
iii. Budget analysis r. Unstructured decision making
(a) i/p, ii/q, iii/r
(b) i/p, ii/r, iii/q
(c) i/q, ii/p, iii/r
(d) i/q, ii/r, iii/p
(e) i/r, ii/p, iii/q.

70. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) is used to transform relational or non-relational data into highly explorable structures, which
are commonly referred to as
(a) Classes
(b) Keys
(c) Schema
(d) Cubes
(e) Segments.

71. Computer languages can be classified into two broad categories called as low-level languages and high-level languages. Which of

the following high-level languages is built around a proprietary database management system called ADABAS?
(a) OPS5
(b) LISP
(c) Prolog
(d) NATURAL
(e) FOCUS.
72. Languages of higher generations are considered as high-level languages. Which of the following is an earliest high-level
programming language?
(a) BASIC
(b) Ada
(c) C
(d) COBOL
(e) Foxpro.

73. Which of the following refers to the process of hiding the complexity and internal functionality of objects?
(a) Encapsulation
(b) Inheritance
(c) Abstraction
(d) Class resolution
(e) Polymorphism.

74. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding decision tables and flow charts?
I. Decision tables are easier to draw and edit compared to flow charts.
II. Decision tables are better able to express total sequence of events needed to solve a problem than flow charts.
III. Decision tables provide more compact documentation than flow charts.
IV. Programmers, especially beginners, are more familiar with flow charts than with decision tables.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Only (IV) above
(c) Both (III) and (IV) above
(d) (I), (III) and (IV) above
(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.

75. Match the following flow chart features with the corresponding symbols:
i. Processing p. Rhombus (Diamond)
ii. Off page connector q. Square
iii. On page connector r. Pentagon
iv. Decision s. Circle
(a) i/q, ii/r, iii/s, iv/p
(b) i/r, ii/s, iii/q, iv/p
(c) i/q, ii/s, iii/r, iv/p
(d) i/s, ii/q, iii/r, iv/p
(e) i/q, ii/p, iii/r, iv/s.

76. Language translators convert
(a) An object code into a source code
(b) A source code into an object code
(c) An interpreter into a compiler
(d) A compiler into an interpreter
(e) A source code into a compiler.

77. Which of the following statements is/are true about programs developed using machine language or assembly language, when
compared to programs developed using high-level languages?
I. Development of these programs is a monotonous task.
II. These programs are less prone to errors.
III. It is difficult to make alterations to these programs.

(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
78. Which of the following languages will support object-oriented programming principles?
I. Java.
II. .NET.
III. C.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

79. In machine language, ________ is used to tell the computer where to find or store the data that has to be manipulated.
(a) OPERAND
(b) OPCODE
(c) MNEMONICS
(d) ASSEMBLER
(e) COMPILER.

80. Which of the following statements is/are true about looping structures?
I. In the DO … WHILE structure, the looping continues as long as the condition is not true.
II. In the REPEAT … UNTIL structure, the looping continues until the condition becomes true.
III. The condition is tested at the bottom of the loop in the REPEAT UNTIL structure.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

81. Which of the following statements is the primary goal of Database Management System (DBMS)?
(a) To provide convenient and efficient environment for storing and retrieving data
(b) Ensuring system security
(c) Preventing data loss due to system failure and unauthorized access
(d) To enable frequent updation and maintenance of databases so that they reflect new business transactions
(e) To provide inquiry and reporting capabilities to the end users.

82. Which of the following is the most basic element of data?
(a) Database
(b) Record
(c) Character
(d) File
(e) Field.

83. Which of the following file organizations requires exhaustive search to access the records?
(a) Pile
(b) Indexed
(c) Sequential
(d) Indexed-sequential
(e) Hashed.

84. Which of the following models provide flexibility in structuring and allow data constraints to be explicitly specified?
I. Record-based logical models.
II. Object-based logical models.
III. Physical data models.

(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
85. Which of the following models does not fall under Record-based logical models?
I. Relational.
II. Hierarchical.
III. E-R model.
IV. Binary model.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (IV) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.

86. Which of the following models is the oldest Database Management System (DBMS) model?
(a) Hierarchical model
(b) Network model
(c) Relational model
(d) E-R model
(e) Object-oriented model.

87. Which of the following models provides ad hoc request flexibility?
I. Hierarchical model.
II. Network model.
III. Relational model.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

88. Which of the following statements is/are true about Structured Query Language (SQL)?
I. SQL is a procedural query language.
II. SQL includes both data definition and data manipulation operations.
III. A SQL query consists of a command keyword followed by additional information.
(a) Only (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

89. Which of the following characteristics of a well-designed database system refers to the storage of data in such a way that it is not
affected by any modification in the data structure?
(a) Data integrity
(b) Data independence
(c) Data redundancy
(d) Data sharing
(e) Data security.

90. Which of the following types of databases is also called as multidimensional database?
(a) Operational database
(b) Data warehousing
(c) Hypermedia databases
(d) Distributed databases
(e) Management database.

91. In which of the following phases of database development process, the Database Administrator (DBA) designs an enterprise model?

(a) Database planning
(b) Database modeling
(c) Database design
(d) Database implementation
(e) Database maintenance.
92. Which of the following functions of data resource management involves the process of managing the collection, storage and
dissemination of all data types in such a way that the data becomes a standardized resource that is available to all the end users in the
organization?
I. Data planning.
II. Data administration.
III. Database administration.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

93. An entity consists of basic objects or concepts about which data is collected and stored. Which of the following statements is/are
true regarding different entities?
I. Associative entities are also called as generic entities.
II. Associative entities are used for associating or relating two or more entities.
III. Subtype entities are also called as intersection entities.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

94. Which of the following refers to the actual number of associated instances for each of the two entities?
(a) Cardinality
(b) Connectivity
(c) Interoperability
(d) Aggregation
(e) Generalization.

95. In which of the following designs, all the information is represented in the form of high level models?
(a) Conceptual design
(b) Logical design
(c) Physical design
(d) Data design
(e) Information design.

96. The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a
(a) One-to-one relationship
(b) One-to-many relationship
(c) Many-to-many relationship
(d) Many-to-one relationship
(e) Symmetric relationship.

97. A table has four columns: Student ID, Course ID, Percentage Obtained, and Course Title. Student ID and Course ID together
constitute the full primary key. Percentage Obtained depends on both Student ID and Course ID. Course Title depends only on
Course ID. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The table complies with the first normal form
(b) The table complies with the second normal form
(c) The table complies with the third normal form
(d) The table complies with the fourth normal form
(e) The table complies with the fifth normal form.

98. The sales manager of a company wants to know the details of sales achieved by James, a salesperson. Which of the following SQL
statements can be used to find out the sales achieved by James? ‘Salesdetails’ is a table in which name, city, state, and quantity are
the relevant fields.
(a) SELECT name, city, state, quantity FROM salesdetails WHERE name = ‘James’;
(b) SELECT name, city, state, quantity FROM salesdetails;
(c) SELECT name, city, state FROM salesdetails WHERE Name = ‘James’;
(d) SELECT name, city, state, quantity WHERE Name = ‘James’;
(e) SELECT name, state, quantity WHERE Name = ‘James’.

99. A retail chain analyzed the buying patterns of 20-25 year old women. It discovered that the women belonging to this category
shopped every fortnight for cosmetics and during this time they also tended to buy music and/or movie CDs. This information
enabled the retail chain to move the music and movie CDs display closer to the cosmetics. Which of the following would have
helped the management of the retail chain in gaining such information about the purchasing patterns of the consumers?
(a) Database definition
(b) Data mining
(c) Real-time processing
(d) Data dictionary
(e) Batch processing.

100. A table has three columns: EmployeeID, Department, and HoD. EmployeeID is the primary key. Each Department has a HoD (Head
of the Department). Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The table complies with only first normal form
(b) The table complies with the second normal form
(c) The table complies with the third normal form
(d) The table complies with the fourth normal form
(e) The table complies with the fifth normal form.