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June 14th, 2014, 05:02 PM
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MAHE Exam Previous Years Question Papers

Will you please share the previous year Question paper of Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE) – UGET Exam???

The Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE) conducts the UGET every year. It is an all India written entrance test for admission to courses in Medicine and dentistry i.e. M.B.B.S and B.D.S.

Here I am sharing the previous year Question paper of Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE) – UGET Exam

ANATOMY:
1. External ear is developed from: a) 1st branchial arch b) 2nd branchial cleft c) 1st branchial cleft d) 2nd branchial arch. [Ans (a)]
2. Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by: a) Ligament of treitz b) Superior mesenteric artery c) falceiform ligament d) Tail of pancreas [Ans (a)]
3. Lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by: a)Femoral artery b)Femoral vien c) Sartorius d) Lacunar ligament [Ans (c)]
4. Posterior boundary of foramen of winslow is formed by: a) Aorta b)Inferior vena cava c) Portal vein d) Liver (ans :b)
5. Main supply of small gut is by: a) Superior mesenteric Artery b) Inferior mesenteric artery c) Middle colic artery d) Celiac Axis [Ans (a)]
6. The transfer of body weight in vertebral column is through:- a) Laminae b) pedicle c)Vertebral body d) Neural arch (ans : c )
7. Spinal nerves are mixed because they contain: a) Sensory and motor b) Dorsal & ventral roots c) Come through inter vertebral foramen d) constitute both craniosacral and the thoracolumbar out flow. ( ans :a )
8. Depression of mandible is brought about by: a) Medial pterygoid b)Lateral pterygoid c) Masseter d) Buccinator [Ans (b)]
9. Ossification centre of which bone appears with premolar tooth: a) Pisiform b) Olecranon process c) Lateral condyle of humerus d) Radial tuberosity [Ans (b)]
10. Fecal fistula at umbilicus is due to persistence of: a) Vitellointestinal duct b) Patent urachus c) Remnant of urachus d) Ligamentum arteriosum [Ans (a)]
11. Joint at Knee is: a) Synarthrosis b) Symphysis c) Amphiarthrosis d) Diarthrosis [Ans (c)]


PHYSIOLOGY

1. Parasympathetic stimulation of tissues in walls of bronchioles causes: a) Bronchoconstriction b) Bronchodilation c) Increased blood flow d) Dilatation of alveoli. [Ans (a)]
2. Posterior pituitary hormones are: a) ADH and Oxytocin b) TRH and FSH c) Vasopressin and CRH d) Oxyticin and ACTH [Ans (a)]
3. Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by all except: a) Resting tremor b) Dysdiadochokinesis c) Ataxia d) Hypotonia [Ans (a)]
4. Anabolic hormones are all except: a) Cortisol b) Testosterone c) Growth Hormone d) Insulin [Ans (a)]
5. Inability to understand, speak or read is: a) Dyslexia b) Aphasia c) Disconnection syndrome d) Ataxia [Ans (a)]
6. Avoiding response is due to: a) Ispilateral frontal lobe lesions b) Contra lateral frontal lobe lesions c) Ipsilateral parietal lobe lesions d) Contralateral parietal lobe lesions [Ans (b)]
7. Frequency of Alpha waves is: a) 4-6 b) > 13 c) 8-13 d) 2-4 [Ans (c)]
8. Absorption of H2O in PCT is characteristic by all except: a) Vasopressin dependent b) 60% of water is absorbed c) Depends on solutes d) Vasopressin independent [Ans (a)]
9. PR interaval is: a) 0.12- 0.16 seconds b) 0.3 – 0.4 sec. c) 0.6 – 0.8 sec. d) 0.12 – 4 sec. [Ans (a)]
10. Normal testicular development requires: a) Xy b) XX c) Y chromosome d) X chromosome [Ans (a)]
11. Function of cochlea is: a)Auditory function b) Nerve deafness c) Basilar membrane is tuned d) Equilibruin is disturbed (ans :a)
12. Action potential is: a) Decremental phenomenon b) Doesn’t obey all or none phenomenon c) K+ goes from ECF to ICF d) Threshold stimulus is required [Ans (d)]
13. Salivary secretion does all except: a) Lubrication b) Taste sensation c)Digestion of carbohydrates d) Digestion of proteins [Ans (d)]
14. Absorption of vitamin D in intestine is helped by: a) Calcium b) Pottassium c) Magnesin d) Iron [Ans (a)]

BIOCHEMISTRY

1. Competitive inhibition is characterized by: a) Increased Km and V Max is same b) increased Vmax and Km remains constant c) increased Km and increased Vmax d) Decreased Km and increased Vmax (Ans (a)]
2. Collagen synthesis, hydroxyproline is converted to: a) Prolene b) Lysine c) Hydroxylysine d) None of the above [Ans (a)]
3. Ammonium ion is released by: a) Arginase b) Glutamate dehydrogenase c) Glutaminase d) All of the above [Ans (b)]
4. Macrophages in the walls of arteries have receptors for: a) Oxidised IDL b) Oxidased LDL c) LDL d) IDL [Ans (b)](Ref : p 508 robbins)

PHARMACOLOGY

1. Prolactin inhibition is caused by: a) Dopamine b) Bromocriptine antagonist c) CRH d) Acetylcholine [Ans (a)]
2. Mechanism of action of biphosphonates is: a) Increased urinary excretion of calcium b) Osteoclastmediated resorption inhibition c) Decreased absorption of calcium from gut. D) Increased absorption of calcium from gut [Ans (b)]
3. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is treated by: a) Thiazides b) Carbamazepine c) Vasopressin d) Cyclophosphamide [Ans (a)]
4. Friedrich type V hyperlipidemia is due to excess of: a) HDL b) LDL c) IDL d) Chylomicrons [Ans (d)]
5. Atropine is used for all except: a) Corneal ulcer b) children myopia c) iridocyclitis d) narrow angle glaucoma [Ans (d)]
6. Photosensitivity is caused by: a) Digoxin b) Amiadarone c) Phenytoin d) carbamacepine [Ans (b)]
7. About succinyl choline all are true except: a) Neostigmine reversal b) persistant depolarization c) Short acting d) metabolised by pseudocholinesterase [Ans (b)]
8. Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers have common indications in all except: a) variant angina d) Migraine c) Hypertension [Ans (a)]
9. Clavulanic acid acts by: a) B-lactamase inhibitor b) Non progressive inhibitor c) Extended spectrum penicillin d) None of the above [Ans (a)]
10. Mechanism of action of INH include all except: a) Kills intracellular bacilli b) Kills dormant bacilli c) Most dangerous complication is peripheral neuritis d) It penetrates all body tissues (ans:b)
11. Most common side effect of zidovudine is: a) Hemolytic Anemia b)Myopathy c) Bone marrow depression d)Hepatotoxicity (ans:c)
12. Which is not true about meperidine: a) Drug dependence b) Houring short half life than morphine c) More spasmogenic than morphine d) Action is antogonise by Naloxone [Ans (c)]
13. Mechanism of action of Amiodarone is: a)Prolongs APD b) Blocks inactivated Na+ channel c) Inhibits myocardial Ca++ channel d) All of the above [Ans (d)]
14. Epinephrine is not used is: a)chronic bronchial asthma b) Local hemostasis c) Anaphylaxis d) All of the above [Ans (a)]
15. Famotidine and cimetidine are different in their action in: a) Oral absorption b) Duration of action c) Mechanism of action d) Antiandrogenic action [Ans (b)]
16. Aspirin should not be used in: a) Dysmenorrhea b) Viral infection c) Ischemic heart disease d) Inflammation [Ans (b)]
17. B1 action of epinephrine is seen in all except: a) Angina pectoris b) Ventricular arrythmias c) Slow arrythmias d) Intestinal relaxation [Ans (d)]
18. Plasma half life of drugs:a) Maximum effective dose of drug b) max. lethal effect c) potency of drug d) Dose frequency interval [Ans (d)]
19. Chlamydial infection in treated by: a) tetracycline b) chloramphenicol c) Amoxycillin d) Penicillin [Ans (a)]
20. Mebendazole is not given in: a) Intestinal amebiasis b) Ascariasis c) Ancylostoma duodenale d) Trichurea trichuris [Ans (a)]
21. Benzathine penicillin is given in: a) primary syphilis b) Acute gonorrhea c) Bacterial endocarditis d) meningococcal infection [Ans (a)]


PATHOLOGY
1) About neutrophills all are incorrect except:- a) 10-20% of all leucocytes. b) Phagocytosis c) Antibody formation d) Increase in chronic infections [Ans (b)]
2) Lipooxygenase mediated chemotoxis is by: a) B4 b) C4 c) D4 d) E4 [Ans (a)]
3) Thromboxane A2 causes: a) Vasodilation b) Platelet inhibition c) None of the above d) Both of above [Ans (c)]
4) Stricture of gut is caused by: a) Typhoid b) tuberculosis c) Crohn’s disease d) Ulcerative colitis [Ans (b)]
5) In AML Chromosomal anomaly is: a) 9 & 22 b) 21 & 9 c) 20 & 10 d) 8 & 14 [Ans (d)]
6) M4 stage of AML is called as: a) Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia b)Acute monoblastic leukemia c) Myelomonocytic leukemia d) Monocytic leukemia [Ans (a)]
7) Cells in M4 AML are: a) Monoblasts & myeloblasts b) Myeloblasts only c) Monocytes & myelocytes d) erythroid cells [Ans (a)]
8) Turner’s syndrome is: a) XO b) XXY c) XXX d) XXO [Ans (a)]
9) In leprosy nerve involved is: a) Ulnar Nerve b) Median c) Radial d) Axillary [Ans (a)]
10) Giant cell tumour source of cells is : a) Osteoclasts b) Osteoblasts c) Osteoid d) Unknown [Ans (d)]
11) Exchange of genetic material takes place in: a)Prophase –I b) Prophase II c) Metaphase d) Telophase [Ans (c)]
12) Edward syndrome is due to: a) Chromosome 18 anomaly b) Chromosome 13 anomaly c) chromosome 11 anomaly d) chromosome & anomaly [Ans (a)]
13) Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to: a) oat cell carcinoma b) squmous cell carinoma c) Adenocarcinoma d) adenosqumous [Ans (c)]
14) Most common tumour of appendix is: a) Carcinoid b) Squmous cell c) Adenocarcinoma d) Argentaffin type [Ans (a)]
15) Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except: a) Crypt abcess b) submucosal inflammation c) Pseudopolyps seen d) Fistula formation [Ans (d)]
16) DIC is caused by all except: a) IUD b) septic abortion c) extramniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate d) Ammiotic fluid embolism [Ans (c)]
17) Highly selective proteinuria contains: a) fibrinogen and albumin b) transferin c) transferrin and fibrinogen d) fibrinogen [Ans (a)]

FORENSIC MEDICINE

1. Vibices are: a) Arborescent markings b)Lichenberg flowers c) Marbling d) Hypostasis in subcutaneous area
2. Basophillic stippling is seen in: a) RBC b) WBC c) Neutrophilis d) Basophil [Ans (a)]
3. Sentence of death is passed in which judicial court: a) High court b) Supreme court c) session court d) Assistant session court [Ans (a)]

MICROBIOLOGY

1. In immunocompromised person, fungal viral, protozoal infection are due to deficiency of: a) T lymphocytes b) B lymphocytes c) Macrophages d) Neutrophills [Ans (a)]
2. Visceral larva megians is caused by: a) Toxocara canis b) Toxoplasma c) Toxocora cutis d) Ascariasis [Ans (a)]
3. Hep B infection, window period is characterized by: a) Anti HBS antibody b) HBS antigen c) Anti HBE d) HBE [Ans (a)]
4. Antigenic drift in influenza virus infections is due to: a) Small mutation in neuraminidase and hemagglutinin. B) Large mutations in hemaglutimin only c) Step mutations in viral genome d) None of the above [Ans (a)]
5. Long lasting immunity in hepatitis infection is due to: a) IgA b) IgG c) IgM d) IgE [Ans (a)]
6. Fungi affecting retroculoendothelial cells are: a) Cryptcoccus b) Histoplasmosis c) Sporothrix d) Cryptosporidium [Ans (b)]
7. Appendicitis like syndrome is caused by: a) Brucella abortis b) Yersinia tuberculosis c) Pasturella multocida d) Yersenia pestis [Ans (c)]

PSM

1. Level of proteins in human milk is: a) 0.8ng/dl b) 0.9ng/dl c) 1ng/dl d) 2ng/dl
2. Sensitivity is: a) True positives + false positives
True positives
b) True positives / T.P + F.P c) True positive / T.P + false negatives d) True negatives / true positive + false negatives (ans:b)
3. PQLI index includes all except: a) life expectancy at 1 yr of age b) Per capita income c) Literacy d) IMR [Ans (b)]
4. Incubation period of mumps is: a) 18 days b) 10 days c) 7 days d) 17 days [Ans (a)]
5. Limiting Amino acids in wheat are: a)Methionine and Lysine b) Lysine and threonine c) Threonine and methionine d) Arginine and lysine [Ans (b)]
6. API is : a) Annual parasitic index b) Average parasitic index c) animal parasite interval d)None of the above [Ans (a)]
7. Odds ratio is: a) Incidence among non exposed x incidence among exposed b) Risk factors & outcome c) Prevalence of disease d) None [Ans (b)]
8. Fluoride content in drinking H2O normally safe is: a) 0.5-0.8 mg/dl b) 0.8-0.1 ng/dl c) 0.2-0.8ng/dl d) 0.2-0.5mg/dl [Ans (a)]
9. Iodine in salt is: a) 15 & 30ppm b)15 & 40 ppm c) 20 & 40 ppm d) 10 & 20 ppm. (ans : a)
10. Path of longest duration is: a) Limiting path b) critical path c) cumulative path d) None of the above [Ans (b)]
11. World health day is on: a) 7th April b) 10th October c) 21st May d) 23rd June [Ans (a)]
12. Global eradication of small pox was done on: a) 26th Oct 1977 b) 8th May 1980 c) 17th March 1980 d) 17th April 1977 [Ans (b)]
13. WHO defines blindness if visual acuity is: a) Less than 3/60 vision b) Less than 5/60 c) Less than 6/6 d) Less than 2/60 [Ans (a)]
14. Savlon contains: a) chlorhexidine and chlorxylenol b) Cetavlon and chlorhexidine c) Cetavlon and habitané d) Hibitane and chlorxylenol [Ans (b)]
15. Point of control in tuberculosis: a) Prevalence is < 1 in 0-14 group of children b) > 1% is all children’s c)<1% in 0-5yrs of age group d)<2% in 0-14 group. (ans:a)
16. Lathyrism is caused by: a) Sanguinarine b) BOAA c) Pyruvic Acid d) Mustard oil [Ans (b)]
17. Positive size of respirable dust is: a) 1-5microgm b) 5-10microgm c) 15microgm d) 20microgm [Ans (a)]
18. Sullivan index indications: a) Life free of disability b) Hook worm eggs/gm of stool c) standard of living d) Pregnancy rate per HWY [Ans (a)]

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1. Complicated cataract is not seen in: a) Diabetes mellitus b) Retinitis pigmentosa c)Malignant myopia d) Iridocyclitis
2. Hardeolum internum is due to: a) Chronic granulomatous inflammation of meibomian glands b) Acute suppuration of Meibomian glands c) Acute granulomatous inflammation of meiboiman glands d) Chronic suppuration of sebaceous glands [Ans (a)]
3. Cobble stone appearance is seen in: a) Vernal conjunctivitis b) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis c) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d) Angular conjunctivitis [Ans (a)]
4. Visual evoked potential in retrobulbar neuritis is: a) P100 b) P300 c) Wave I d) P450 [Ans (d)]
5. All are features of Horner’s syndrome except: a) Anhydrosis b) Ptosis c) Proptosis d) Miosis [Ans (c)]
6. Angle of anterior chamber is visualized by: a) Gonioscope b) Retinoscope c) Ophthalmoscope d) Optic wave chamber
7. True about Acute congestive glaucoma are all except: a) Deep anterior chamber b) oval dilated pupil c)Edematous cornea d) edematous optic disc [Ans (a)]
8. Enucleation is done in all except: a) Total anterior staphyloma b) Absolute glaucoma c) Panopthalmitis d) Pthisis bulb [Ans (a)]
9. Right homomymous hemianopia is due to defect at: a) optic chiasma b)Left optic tract c) Right optic radiation d) Right optic nerve [Ans (c)]
10. In myopia glasses used are: (a) convex b) Concave c) Cylindrical d) Elliptical [Ans (b)]
11. Cherry red spot is seen in: a) Tay sachs disease b) Gaucher’s disease c) Gangliosidosis d) CRVO [Ans (a)]
12. Cherry Red spot is seen in: a) CRAO b) CRVO c) Diabetes d) Hypertension [Ans (a)]


ENT

1) Dysphagia Lusoria is due to: a) Arch of aorta pressing over larynx b) abnormal Origin of right subclavian artery pressing on larynx c) abnormal right mammary artery d) esophagus [Ans (b)]
2) Noise level which can be tolerated by ears is: a) 85 dB b) 70 dB c) 120 dB d) 100 dB [Ans (a)]
3) Rhinitis sicca is due to drying of: a) Anterior wall b) Post. Wall c) Septum d) Roof of Nose [ Ans (c)]
4) Tullio phenomenon is: a) Better hearing in Noisy surroundings b) Increased sensitivity c) Impedance d) vertigo in noisy surroundings (ans:a)
5) Fibrous layer is absent inst: a) Pars tensa b) Pars flaccida c) umbo d) Annulus [Ans (b)]
6) Thornwaldt disease in inflammation of: a) Pharyngeal bursa b) Subhyoid bursa c) Crypta Magna d) Perform fossa [Ans (a)]
7) Chronic pharyngeal abcess is due to: a) Caries in spine b) tuberculosis of lungs c) Cancer of larynx d) chronic streptococcal infection (ans:a)
8) Post cricoid malignancy is due to: a) Plummer vision syndrome b) Alcohol c) smoking d) None of the above (ans:a)
9) Dangerous area of Nose is: a) Little’s area b) Woodruff’s area c) Orfactory area d) Posterior wall [Ans (a)]

SURGERY
1. Injury to any abdominal organ due to injury is seen in cases of: a) Rupture spleen b) Fat embolism c) Acute dilatation of stomach d) Liver injury [Ans (a)]
2. Ligation of which small artery of abdomen leads to immediate death of the patient: a) Superior mesenteric artery b) Inferior mesenteric artery c) Inferior vena cava d) Coronary artery (ans:a)
3. Treatment of duodenal ulcer which has least recurrence is: a) Vagotomy with antrectomy b) Highly selective vagotomy c) Vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy d) Gastrojejnostomy [Ans (a)]
4. Most physiological treatment of duodenal ulcer is: a) Highly selective vagotomy b) antrectomy c)Vagotomy & gastrojejunostomy d) Gastrojejunostomy [Ans (a)]
5. Reverse intussusceptions is seen in : a) Ileocaecal b) Ileocolic c) Colocolic d) caecocolic (ans :b)
6. D/D for rectal prolapse in children is: a) Rectal polyp b) Intessuception c)Both of above d) None of above [Ans (b)]
7. Rupture of urethra is commonest in which part: a) Membranous b) Bulbar c) Prostatic d) Penval [Ans (b)]
8. Littre’s hernia includes: a) Meckel’s diverticulum b) Intestinal margins c)Umblicus d) Omentum (ans:a)
9. Most common surgical complication of typhoid is: a) Perforation of ulcer b) Cholecystitis c) Hernia d) Peritonitis [Ans (a)]
10. Incontinence in urinary tract infection is: a) False b) True c) stress d) Urge [Ans (d)]
11. After appendectomy, fecal fistula is due to: a) Crohn’s disease b) ulcerative colitis c) TB d) Amebic colitis [Ans (b)]
12. Most common cause of acute pancreatitis is: a) Gall stone b) Alcohol c) Trauma d) Cyst (ans:a)

MEDICINE

1. Myotonic dystrophy is: a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) X-linked recessive d) X- linked dominant (ans:a)
2. X-linked dominant disease is: a) Vit D resistant rickets b) Colour blindness c)Hemophilia d) Gaucher’s disease (ans:a)
3. Von willebrand’s disease is: a)Autosomal dominant b) autosomal recessive c) X-lined recessive d) X-linked dominant [Ans (a)]
4. Systemic necrotizing vaculitis is due to: a) Wagener’s granulomatosis b) Takayasu’s arteritis c)PAN d) Systemic sclerosis [Ans (c)]
5. CSF level of protein in multiple sclerosis is: a) Increased b) Decreased c) Depleted d) Normal [Ans (b)]
6. Mind relaxed and eyes close the wave is: a)  (Alpha) b)  (beta) c)  (Theta) d) (Delta)(ans:a)
7. Osmotic and secretory diarrhoea are differentiated by: a) Osmolarity b) Na+ and K+ quantity c) Electrolyte balance d) Fluid balance [Ans (a)]
8. Aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia is associated in infection with: a) Parvovirus b) Adenovirus c) Influenza virus d) Papilloma virus [Ans (a)]
9. In tetrology of fallot, feature which is not seen is: a) Left ventricular hypertrophy b) boot shaped heart c) VSD d) Overriding of arch of aorta [Ans (a)]
10. Abelson gene is seen in: a) AML b) CML c) ALL d) CLL [Ans (b)]
11. C3 Nephritic factor is seen in: a) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis b)Membranous glonerulonephritis c) Focal GN d) IgA Nephropathy [Ans (a)]
12. Resetting of pressure natriuresis is brought by: a) High excretion of Na with Normal arterial pressure b) Low excretion of Na with high arterial pressure c) Low excretion of Na with low arterial pressure d) High excretion of Na with high arterial pressure [Ans (a)]
13. In tuberous sclerosis, the lesion is: a) Adenoma malignum b) Adenoma sebaceum c) Café au lait spots d) Axillary freckling [Ans (b)]
14. Normal anion gap is seen in: a) Lactic acidosis b) Diarrhea c)Metabolic acidosis d) respiratory acidosis [Ans (b)]
15. I.V bicarbonate is given in: a) Metabolic Acidosis b) Respiratory acidosis c) Metabolic alkalosis d) Respiratory Alkalosis [Ans (a)]
16. Decreased cardiac output is due to: a) Decreased venous return b) Decreased end diastolic volume c) Increased sympathetic stimulation d) Decreased vagal tone (Ans (a)]
17. Handerson Hasselbach equation is for: a) Electrolytes b) Acid base c)Fluid d) Enzymatic reaction [Ans (b)]
18. Decreased O2 carrying capacity & Normal PO2 is seen is: a) Anemic hypoxia b) Histotoxic hypoxia c) stagnant hypoxia d) Hypoxia hypoxia [Ans (a)]
19. Polydipsia, polyuria, increased dilution of urine is due to deficiency of: a) Vasopressin b) Insulin c) Glucagon d) All of the above (Ans (a)]

PEDIATRICS

1. Kernicterus is due to: a) Albumin bound billirubin b)Billirubin diglucuroinde c) Bilirubin monoglucuronide d) Free billirubin [Ans (d)]
2. Congenital stridor is caused by: a) Laryngomalacia b) Laryngeal slenosis c) Ca Larynx d) Foreign body [Ans (a)]
3. Child care virus is: a) Adenovirus b) Para influenzae c) Herpes d) Chicken pox virus [Ans (a)]

PSYCHIATRY

1. Nacrolepsy is: a) Sudden episodes of sleep b) Night sleep c) Narcolepsy due to epilepsy d) Nacrolepsy due to sleep [Ans (a)]

ORTHOPEDICS
1. The muscle pair which rotates radius without flexion and extension at arm is: a) pronator quadratus and pronator teres b) supinator and Anconeus c) Bachioradialis and brachialis d) Triceps and Biceps brachii [Ans (b)]
2. Osteomyelitis is common in: a) Frontal sinus b) ethmoid sinus c) sphenoid sinus d) maxillary sinus [Ans (a)]
3. Diastomatomyelia is due to: a) Gap in the spinal cord b) Spur in the spinal cord c)both of the above d) None of the above [Ans (a)]
4. Cubitus varus is most commonly due to: a) supracondylar fracture of humerus b)Olecranon fracture c) congenital d) None of the above [Ans (a)]
5. Lunate bone osteoarthritis is called as: a) Kohler’s b) Keinbock c) Freeburg d) Perthes [Ans (a)]
6. KANAVEL’S sign is: a) Acute tenosynovitis b) Acute appendicitis c) Rupture of spleen d) Acute pancreatitis [Ans (a)]
7. The amount of fluid in knee joint is: a) 0.4ml – 0.7 ml b) 0.7ml – 2 ml c) 7-11 ml d) 11-12 ml [Ans (b)]

SKIN

1. Skin contains mainly two glands a) Sweat & sebaceous b) Meibomian and Eccrine c) Apocrine and sweat gland d) Eccrine and apocrine
2. In peutz jegher’s syndrome skin lesion seen is: a) Freckles b) Lentigines c) Café au lait spots b) shagreen patch [Ans (b)]
3. Wicham’s striae is seen in: a) Lichen planus b) Psoriasis c0 Pityriasis versicolor d) Pemphigus vulgaris [Ans (a)]
4. Maculopapular rash in seen in: a) Chicken pox b) Typhoid c) Measles d) Dengue (ans:c)
5. Erythema nodosum is seen in: a) Sulphonamides b) Phenylbutazone c) Digoxin d)Ciprofloxacin. (ans: a)
6. Surgical wound infection is due to a) Staphylococcus aureus b) S. epidermidis c) Streptococcus d) Hemophilus influenzae [Ans (b)]

OBS & GYNE

1. Type of pelvis in which deep transverse arrest occurs is: a) Android b) Anthropoid c) Gynecoid d) Platy pelloid [Ans (a)]
2. All occurs in abruptio placentae except: a) Coagulation failure b) Renal failure c) Uterine inversion d) Intrauterine death [Ans (c)]
3. All are benign Neoplasms of ovary except: a) Follicular cyst b) Theca lutein cyst c) Dermoid cyst d) Corpus luteal cyst [Ans (c)]
4. Hyperemesis gravidarum is seen in all except:- a) Vesicular mole b) Primigravida c) Preeclampsia d) Multiple pregnancy [Ans (c)]
5. Failure of anterior rotation in occipito posterior is due to: a) Insufficient uterine contractions b)average fetal size c) Gynecoid pelvis d) Station of Head is +1 (ans:a)
6. Main indication for in vitro fertilization is a) Complete blockage of tubes b) Myoma in uterus c) Azoospermia d) Cervical fibroid (ans:a)
7. Drug used in last stage of endometrial carcinoma is: a) Danazol b) O.C. Pills c) Cisplatin d) Levonorgestrol [Ans (c)]
8. All are interceptive contraception except: a)O.C. pills b)Centchromin c) Levonorgestrol d) Mifepristone [Ans (b)]
9. Normal sperm count is: a) 60-100 lakh/mm3 b) 4-5 million/mm3 c) 60-120 lakh/mm3 c) 60-120 million/ml (ans:d)
10. Latest investigation used for diagnosis of tubal patency are all except: a) Air insufflation test b) Laparoscopic chromotubation c) Hysterosalphingograph d) Sonosalphingography [Ans (a)]
11. Decubitus ulcer is produced due to: a) Congestion b) Inflammation c) Malignancy d) Dilatation [Ans (a)]
12. Gestational diabetes is not associated with: a) Hydramnios b) Neural tube defects c) Dimorphic anemia d) Family history [Ans (c)]
13. Colour of lochia alba is due to: a) Decidual cells b) WBC c) RBC d) Pus cells [Ans (a)]
14. Stress incontinence in corrected by all except: a) Shirodkar’s sling b) Alridge sling c) Kelly’s stitch d) Morshall marchetti krantz [Ans (a)]
15. Ectopic pregnancy is managed conservatively by all except: a) Methotrexate b) Salphingostomy c) Salphingectomy d) Segmental resection [Ans (c)]
16. Ponderal index is: EFW/(FL)3 , b) FL/(AC)3 ,c) WT / (ht)2, d) HC/AC x100 (ans:a)
17. Metropathia hemorehagica is characterized by all except a) Metrorrhagia b) Common at Menopause c) Swiss cheese pattern of endometrium d) Anovulation [Ans (b)]
18. Treatment of Endometriosis is all exception: a) O.C. Pills b) Danazol c) Ganadotropin releasing horamor d) GnRH against [Ans (b)]
19. Partogram is used for: a) Normal delivery which requires assistance later b) Normal delivery with fetal distress c) Normal delivery which does not require any assistance d) Mother and baby surveillance [Ans (a)]
20. HPV associated with carcinoma cervix is: a) 16 b) 11 c) 14 d) 8 [Ans(a)]

Last edited by Neelurk; April 10th, 2020 at 04:05 PM.
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