As you want to get the past year question papers of SSC Junior Engineering Civil exam so here is the information of the same for you:

1. A well-seasoned timber has a moisture b. 40 minutes
content of about c. 15 minutes
a. 15% to 20% d. 5 minutes
b. 10% to 12% 8. Match List I (Cement Mortar for Different
c. 5% to 85 Work) with List II(Proportion of Cement
d. 2% to 3% and sand in Mortar ) and select the correct
2. Dry rot in timber is caused by answer :
a. Lack of ventilation List I
b. Lack of light A. Cement mortar for normal brick work
c. Immersion in water B. Cement mortar for plastering works
d. Alternate wet and dry atmosphere C. Cement mortar for grouting the
3. Wood is impregnated with creosote oil in cavernous rocks
order to D. Cement mortar for guniting
a. Change its colour List II
b. Protect against fungi 1. 1 : 4
c. Protect the annular layers 2. 1 : 3
d. Fill up the pores 3. 1 : 6
4. Consider the following statements : 4. 1 : 1.5
Bricks are soaked in water before use in A B C D
masonry work a. 3 4 2 1
1. to remove dust b. 1 2 3 4
2. to remove air voids c. 3 1 4 2
3. so that they do not absorb water from d. 1 4 2 3
cement mortar 9. Match List I(Admixture) with list II
Which of these statements is/are correct ? (Action in Concrete) and select the correct
a. 1, 2 and 3 answer :
b. 1 only List I
c. 2 and 3 A. Calcium lignosulphonate
d. 3 only B. Aluminum powders
5. The proper size of mould for testing C. Tartaric acid
compressive strength of cement is D. Aluminum sulphate
a. 7.05 cm tube List II
b. 10.05 cm cube 1. Anti bleeder
c. 15 cm cube 2. Retarder
d. 12.05 cm cube 3. Air entrainer
6. The specific gravity of commonly 4. Water reducer
available ordinary portland cement is A B C D
a. 4.92 a. 3 2 1 4
b. 3.15 b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2.05 c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1.83 d. 4 2 3 1
7. A quick-setting cement has an initial 10. A mortar in which both cement and lime
setting time of about are used in definite proportions as binding
a. 50 minutes materials is reffered to as

a. Light weight mortar
b. Fire resistant mortar
c. Gauged mortar
d. Water resistant mortar
11. In order to improve the workability of
harsh cement mortar which of the following items is/are added ?
1. water
2. Plaster of Paris
3. Lime
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3
12. Bleeding of concrete leads of which of the
following ?
1. Drying up of concrete surface
2. Formation of pores inside.
3. Segregation of aggregate
4. Decrease in strength
Select the correct answer using the coded given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
13. Match List I (material Characteristics)
with List II (Property of Concrete) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Water cement ratio
B. Water content
C. Minimum cement content
D. Segregation
List II
1. Durability
2. Compressive strength
3. Stability of mix
4. Workability
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 4 1 3
14. Stress-strain curve of concrete is
a. A perfect straight line up to failure
b. Straight lien up to 0.002% string value and then parabolic up to failure
c. Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value
and then a straight line up to failure
d. Hyperbolic up to 0.002% staring value
and then a straight line up to failure
15. Consider the following statements :
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test is
1. used to measure the straight of wet concrete.
2. used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. a destructive test
4. a non-destructive test.
Which of these statemtns are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 3
16. The material in which large deformation is
possible before the absolute failure or rupture is termed as
a. Brittle
b. Elastic
c. Ductile
d. Plastic
17.
A rigid bar AC is supported by three rods of same material and of equal diameter. The bar AC is initially horizontal. A force P is applied such that the bar AC continues to remain horizontal. Forces in each of the shorter bars and in the longer bar are, respectively.
a. 0.4 P, 0.2 P
b. 0.3 P, 0.4 P
c. 0.2 P, 0.6 P
d. 0.5 P , zero
18. A member having length L, cross-sectional
areas A and modulus of elasticity E is subjected to an axial load W. The strain energy stored in this member is
a. WL2 / AE
b. WL2 / 2AE
c. W2L2 / 2AE
d. W2L / AE
19. Elastic limit is the point

a. Up to which stress is proportional to strain
b. At which elongation takes place
without application of additional load
c. Up to which if the load is remoed,
original volume and shaped are regained
d. At which the toughness is maximum
20. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer :
List I(Material)
A. Isotropic
B. Homogeneous
C. Viscoelastic
D. Brittle
List II
1. Time dependent stress-strain relation
2. No plastic zone
3. Identical properties in all directions
4. Similar properties throughout the
volume
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 1 2
21. As per the elastic theory of design, the
factor of safety is the ratio of
a. Working stress to stress at the limit of proportionality
b. Yield stress to working stress
c. Ultimate stress to working stress
d. Ultimate load to load at yield
22. The shear stress distribution for a
rectangular section under the action of shear force S is shown below. The rectangular section is bd. Select the correct shear stress distribution form the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
23. Two co-axial springs are subjected to a
force of 1 kN. Spring constant of larger diameter spring is 80 N/mm and that of smaller diameter spring is 120 N/mm. The deformation in the spring combination will be equal to
a. 5 mm
b. 15 mm
c. 125/6 mm
d. 135/7 mm
24. Match List I (Method of Analysis) with
List II(Unknown Being Evaluated) and select the correct answer
List I
A. Flexibility method
B. Stiffness Method
C. Kanis method
D. Moment distribution method
List II
1. Degrees of freedom
2. Redundant forces
3. Rotations by incremental iteration and unknown sways of plane frames
4. Displacement rotations and sways of plane frames
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 1 4 2
25. The principal strains at a point are + 800 
10-6 cm/cm, +400  10-6 cm/cm and - 1200  10-6 cm/cm. The volumetric strain is equal to
a. + 1200  10-6 cm/cm
b. + 800  10-6 cm/cm
c. - 1200  10-6 cm/cm
d. zero
26. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to
which one of the following ?
a. Shear failure of rivet
b. Bearing failure of rivet
c. Tearing failure of plate

d. Minimum load value of shearing ,
bearing or tearing failure
27. The radius of Mohr’s circle is zero when
the state of stress is such that
a. Shear stress is zero
b. There is pure shear
c. There is not shear stress but identical direct stresses in two mutually
perpendicular directions
d. There is no shear stress but equal direct stresses, opposite in nature, in two
mutually perpendicular directions
28.
The above figure shows the stress condition of an element. The principal stresses are
a.  2 
b.  /2
c.  
d.  2/3
29. If the principal stresses at a point in a
stressed body are 150 kN/m2 tensile and 50 kN/m2 compressive, then maximum shear stress at this point will be
a. 100 kN/m2
b. 150 kN/m2
c. 200 kN/m2
d. 250 kN/m2
30. In the Mohr’s circle for strains, radius of
Mohr’s circle givens the
a. Minimum value of normal strain
b. Maximum value of normal strain
32. If the shear force diagram of a simply
supported beam is parabolic, then he load on the beam is
a. Uniformly distributed load
b. Concentrated load at mid span
c. External moment acting at mid span
d. Linearly varying distributed load
e.
33. For determining the deflection y of a
loaded beam at a distance x by Macaulay’ method, which one or more of the following is/are used ?
1. The basic difference equation for deflection El (d2y / dx2) = -M.
Where El is the flexural rigidity of the beam, M is the bending moment
2. Successive integration of the
differential equation given in 1.
3. Known positions of zero slope and zero deflection in the beam.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
34.
The above figure shows the cross-section of a fitched beam consisting of a steel plate sandwiched between two wooden blocks. The second moment of area of the composite beam about the neutral axis XX is
3 3
c. Maximum value of shear stain bh mth
d. Half of maximum value of shear strain a. +
12 12
31. A thin cylindrical tube with closed ends is 3 3
subjected to
1. Longitudinal stress 1 = 14 N/mm2
2. Hoop stress 2 = 2 N/mm2
3. Shearing stress  = 8 N/mm2 Then the maximum shearing stress is
a. 14 N/mm2
b.
c.
d.
bh t(mh)
+
12 12
3
h
(b+t) 12
3
bh 12
b. 12 N/mm2 (where m is modular ratio of steel and
c. 10 N/mm2 wood )
d. 8 N/mm2

35. Match list I(End conditions of Columns)
with List II(Effective Length, l3) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Both ends fixed
B. Both ends hinged
C. One end fixed, other free
D. One end fixed, other hinged
List II
1. le = 2 l
2. le = l / 2
3. le = l / 2
4. le = l
where l is the length & le is the effective length of the column)
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 3 4 1 2
36. A symmetrical parabolic arch of span l an
dries h is hinged at both the supports. The arch carries a uniformly distributed load of /unit length along the entire span.
Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
a. Horizontal thrust : l2 / 8h
b. Bending moment at crown : l2 / 8
c. Radial shear at springing :
[(l2 / 2) -(l2 / 8h)]
d. Vertical reaction at supports : l
37. A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius
R carries on the arch at the hinge would be
a. W / 2
b. W / 2
c. 2/3 W
d. 4/3 W/
38. From consideration of earthquake loading
and lateral stability of tall building, which of the following measures are taken?
1. Minimize gravity loads
2. Add masses at floor levels.
3. ensure ductility at the location s of maximum moments
4. provide shear walls
5. Provide stilt (ground) storey
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a. 1 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
39.
A pin jointed truss is loaded as shown in the above figure match List I with list II and select the correct answer :
List I (member)
A. Member AB
B. Member AC
C. Member BD
D. Member CD
List II (Force induced) 1. 30 kN
2. 50 kN 3. 0
4. 10 kN
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
40.
Member(s) of the frame shown above which carries/carry zero force is/are
a. EC only
b. EC and AB
c. EC and AC
d. EC, AC and AB
41.
What is the force in the member CE of a cantilever truss shown in the above figure?

a. P(tensile)
b. P(compression)
c. 2 P(tensile)
d. zero
42. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is
subjected to a twisting moment T. The maximum shear stress in the shaft is proportional to
a. d2
b. d
c. 1/d2
d. 1/d3
43. When a cantilever shaft of brittle material
is subjected to a clockwise twisting moment at the free end, the possible crack propagation will be
a. 45o clockwise with respective to the
axis of shaft
b. 45o anticlockwise with respective to
the axis of shaft
c. Perpendicular to the axis
d. Parallel to the axis
44. For a solid circular section of diameter d,
the stress in a column will be compressive only if the eccentricity of the line of action of the compressive force is within
a. d/4
b. d/8
c. d/6
d. d/16
45. The stresses in concrete in a reinforced
concrete element under sustained load due to creep
a. Increase with time
b. Decrease with time
c. Remain unchanged
d. Fluctuate
46. Fro the analysis of thick cylinders, the
theory applicable is
a. Lame’s theory
b. Rankine’s theory
c. Poisson’s theory
d. Courbon’s theory
47. A thin hollow cylinder of diameter d,
length l and thickness t is subjected to an internal pressure p. The hoop stress in the cylinder is
a. pd / 8t
b. pd / 4t
c. pd / 2t
d. pd / t
48.
A portal frame with all member s having the same El, has one end fixed and the other hinged. Due to side-sway, the ratio of fixed end moments MBA / MCD would be
a. 1 : 1
b. 1 : 2
c. 1 : 3
d. 2 : 1
49.
Which one of the following diagrams represents the influence line for force in the member DG ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50. Match List I (Assumption/Theorem) with
list II(Analysis and strength) an select the correct answer :
List I
A. Plane section remains plane before and after bending deformations
B. Elasticity and small deformations
C. Uniqueness theorem
D. Large deformations
List II
1. Elastic analysis and superposition
2. Strain distribution and plastic moment
of resistance
3. Non-linear analysis and buckling load
4. Collapse load
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 3 4

51. At the location of the plastic hinge of a
deformed structure
a. Curvature is infinite
b. Radius of curvature is infinite
c. moment is infinite
d. Flexural stress is infinite
52. The order of elongation which a specimen
of mild steel under goes before fracture is
a. 0.1%
b. 1%
c. 10%
d. 100%
53. An electric pole 5 m high is fixed into the
foundation. It carries a wire at the top and is free to move sideways. The effective length of the pole is
a. 3.25 m
b. 4.0 m
c. 5.0 m
d. 10.0 m
54. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer :
List I(Failure Mode)
A. Shear failure of plates
B. Bearing failure of plates
C. Tearing failure of plate
D. Splitting failure of plate
List II(Reason)
1. Insufficient edge distance
2. Strength of plate is less than that of the rivets
A B C D
a. 1 1 2 1
b. 2 1 2 1
c. 1 2 1 2
d. 1 1 1 2
55. Design of a sample element is steel used
one of more of the following :
1. Net area of cross-section
2. Full area of cross-section.
3. Buckling criterion.
4. Crushing (or yielding) criterion. Which of the above criteria are valid for the design of a column ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
56. The working stress for structural steel in
tension is of the order of
a. 15 N/mm2
b. 75 N/mm2
c. 150 N/mm2
d. 750 N/mm2
57. The centre to centre maximum distance
between bolts in tension member of thickness 10 mm is
a. 200 mm
b. 160 mm
c. 120 mm
d. 100 mm
58. The type of stress induced in the
foundation bolts fixing a column to its footing is
a. Pure compression
b. Bearing
c. Pure tension
d. Bending
59. Which of the following does not describe a
weld type ?
a. Butt
b. Plug
c. Zig-Zag
d. Lap
60. A plate used for connecting two or more
structural members intersecting each other is termed as
a. Template
b. Base plate
c. Gusset plate
d. Shoe plate
61. In the context of the ultimate load theory
for steel, the stress-strain curve for steel is idealized as
a. A single straight line
b. Bi-linear
c. A quadratic parabola
d. A circular arc
62. Consider the following statements about
shape factor :
1. It indicates the increase of strength of a section due to plastic action over
elastic strength.
2. It is a ratio of plastic moment of resistance to yield point moment of
resistance.
3. Beam sections which have bulk of area near neutral axis will have a low shape
factor.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3

c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
63. Which of the following conditions are to
be satisfied by an ideal plastic material ?
1. It should follow Hooke’s law up to the
limit of proportionality.
2. Strains up to the strain hardening in tension and compression are to be the
same.
3. The material property should be different in tension and compression.
4. The values of yield stress in tension an
compression should be different. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
64.
For a fixed beam shown above, it has been decided to weld coverplates at ends so that moment capacity doubles at the ends. If maximum advantage has to be derived, the length x of the plate should be
a. l / 2
b. l / 3
c. l / 4
d. l / 6
65. A steel column in a multi-storeyed
building carries an axial load of 125 N. It is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels connected by lacing. The lacing carries a load of
a. 125 N
b. 12.5 N
c. 3.125 N
d. zero
66. A structure has two degrees of
indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
67. For a compresion member having the same
effective length about any cross-sectional axial, the most preferred section from the point of view of strength is
a. A box
b. An I-section
c. A circular tube
d. A single angle
68. A trapezoidal combined footing for two
axially loaded columns is provided when
1. Width of the footing near the heavier
column is restricted.
2. Length of the footing is restricted.
3. Projections of the footing beyond the
heavier columns are restricted.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
69. In case of two-way slab, the deflection of
the slab is
a. Primarily a function of the long span
b. Primarily a function of the short span
c. Independent of the span, long or short
d. Mostly long span but sometimes short
span
70.
A rectangular reinforced concrete footing is to be designed to support a column which transfers axial load and uniaxial moment to the footing as shown in the above figure. The footing is to be designed to have uniform upward soil pressure. The dimensions L1 and L2 (L = L1 + L2) of the footing would be
a. L1 = L2
b. L1 > L2
c. L1 < L2
d. L1 = ½ L2
71. A reinforced concrete beam of 10 m
effective span and 1 m effective depth is supported on 500 mm  500 m columns. If

the total uniformly distributed load on the beam is 10 MN/m, the design shear force for the beam is
a. 50 MN
b. 47.5 MN
c. 37.5 MN
d. 43 MN
72. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Loss of pre-stress
B. End block
C. Transmission length
D. Partially pre-stressed structures
List II
1. Class 3
2. Predetermined members
3. Bursting tension
4. Elastic shortening A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
73. In pre-tensioning process of pre-stressing,
the tendons are
a. Bonded to the concrete
b. Partially bonded to the concrete
c. Not bonded to the concrete
d. Generally bonded but sometimes remain unbounded to the concrete
74. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post-
tensioned is such a way that no tensile stress develops at the time of post- tensioning. The distance of the tendon from the nearest face must be
a. Between d/5 and d/4
b. < d/6
c. Between d/4 and d/3
d. > d/3
(where d is the depth of the beam)
75. A simply supported RC beam carries UDL
and is referred to as beam A. A similar beam is pre-stressed and carries the same UDL as the beam A. This beam is referred to as beam B. The mid-span deflection of beam A will be
a. More than that of beam B
b. Less than that of beam B
c. The same as that of beam B
d. Generally less but sometimes more depending upon the magnitude of UDL
76. The critical section for two-way shear of
footing is at the
a. Face of the column
b. Distance d from the column face
c. Distance d/2 from the column face
d. Distance 2d from the column face
77. In pre-stressed concrete, high grade
concrete is used for
a. Controlling the pre-stress loss
b. Having concrete of low ductility
c. Having concrete of high brittleness
d. Having low creep
78.
A reinforced concrete rectangular slab is built-in (fixed) on three edges and the other edge is free. The possible yield line patterns for the slab subjected to a uniformly distributed load and reinforced isotropically are shown above as 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Which of these correctly exhibits the yield line pattern ?
a. 1 or 3
b. 2 or 3
c. 1 or 2
d. 3 or 4
79.

The bending moment for which the beam shown above is to be designed is
a. 200 kNm
b. 800 kNm
c. 600 kNm
d. 640 kNm
80. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to
the following bending moments : Dead load 20 kNm
Live load 30 kNm Seismic load 10 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is
a. 60 kNm
b. 75 kNm
c. 72 kNm
d. 80 kNm
81. In the Limit state design of pre-stressed
concrete structure, the strain distribution is assumed to be
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Parabolic
d. Parabolic and rectangular
82. Consider the following statements :
Under-reinforced concrete flexural members
1. are deeper
2. are stiffer
3. can undergo larger deflection Which of these statements is/are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3
83. Long term elastic modulus in terms of
creep coefficient () an 28-day characteristic strength (fck) is given by
5000 f ck
eccentricity e below the centroidal axis. If the magnitude of prestressing force is P and flexural rigidity of beam is El, the maximum central deflection of the beam is
PeL 2
a. (downwards)
8 El
PeL 2
b. (upwards)
48 El
2
PeL
c. (downwards)
8 El
2
PeL
d. (upwards)
8 El
85. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Service ability
B. Shear key
C. Shrinkage
D. Concrete spalling
List II
1. Sliding
2. deflection
3. Cracking
4. Corrosion
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 2 1 4 3
86. Cost of required materials for construction
has been estimated by contractor and an extract thereof indicates Rs. 80,000 for month-1, Rs. 1,20,000 for month-2, Rs. 1,00,000 for month-3 and Rs. 1,40,000 for month-4. He has arranged with suppliers to pay 40% immediately on purchase, 40% one month later and balance 20% two months later. His payment towards cost of
a. MPa material in month-3 will exceed that in
1 + θ month 4 by
50000 fck a. Rs. 20,000
b.
c.
MPa 1 + θ
5000 f ck
MPa
1 + θ
5000 fck
b. Rs. 16,000
c. Rs. 12,000
d. Rs. 8,000
87. The vibrators are used for
a. Compacting concrete
d. MPa
1 + θ

84. A simply supported post-tensioned pre-
stressed concrete beam of span L is pre- stressed by a straight tendon at a uniform
b. Proper mixing of concrete
c. Removing excess water from concrete
d. Obtaining smooth surface

88. Match List I(Material Use din Individual
Batching of Concrete) with List II(tolerance When Batch Weight Exceeds 30% of Scale Capacity) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Cement
B. Water
C. Aggregates
D. Admixtures
List II
1.  0.3% of scale capacity 2.  1% of scale capacity 3.  2% of scale capacity 4.  3% of scale capacity
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 1 2
89. Which one of the following statements is
correct ?
a. Grade resistance is positive when the unit travels down grade and negative
when travelling upgrade.
b. Grade resistance depends on the type of equipment or the haul surface and is
in addition to rolling resistance
c. Grad resistance acts against the total weight of both wheel and track type
units
d. Grade resistance for units moving on the road surface is greater than grade
resistance for units moving on rails
90. Match List I (Type of Compactor) with
List II (Soil Best Suited) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Sheep’s foot compactor
B. Steel tandem compactor with 2 or 3 axles
C. Steel drum
D. Pneumatic with large tyre
List II
1. Granular or granular plastic
2. Sandy silts, sandy clays, gravelly sand and clays with few fines
3. Clay, silts clay, gravel with clay binder
4. Sandy silts, most granular material
with come clay binder A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 1 4 3
91. Match List I (equipment) with list
II(Operation) and select he correct answer:
List I
A. Powel shovel
B. Dragline
C. Backhoe
D. Clamshell
List II
1. Can excavate vertically
2. Can excavate underwater
3. has better control because of the rigid dipper stick
4. Can operate while standing on firm ground and the bucket is pulled
towards the machine A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 2 3 4 1
92. The number of trips of a dumper per hour
is given by
60 minutes
a.
Actual or effective cycle time in minutes
60 minutes
b.
Ideal cycle time in minutes
c. 60 minutes
Ideal running time + Loss time in minutes
60 minutes
d.
Runnig time in minutes
93. In compaction of clayey-soils using sheep-
foot roller, compaction is achieved by
a. Static action
b. Vibration action
c. Kneading action
d. Impact action
94. The working range of a crane is limited
horizontally for maximum lift only by
a. Boom length
b. Length of hoist cable
c. Length of jib
d. Counter weight
95. Which one of the following types of crane
is used for high rise buildings ?
a. Traveller crane
b. Tower crane

c. Overhead gantry crane
d. Derric crane
96. A certain concreting job can be started
only when all three groups
1. measuring and loading
2. operating the machine, and
3. evacuating and transporting
are in potion. These local groups can be credited each with only a chance of 0.7 being on time, and the 0.3 chance of being late, each independently of the other. What are the chances of the starting of the job getting delayed on any day due to non- arrival of any one group on time ?
a. 0.021
b. 0.147
c. 0.343
d. 0.441
97. Three activities F, G and H are to be
performed in the said sequence and for the whole stretch of the project need 15, 21 and 27 days respectively. If a ladder
99.
A-O-A network is suggested as shown above. The number of errors/incompatibilities in this network is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
100. Which one of the following project
management techniques is deterministic in nature ?
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. GERT
d. LCES
101. The probabilistic time is
t + t + t
network is adopted with on-third of each a. 0 p n
activity as the laddered activity, the saving 3
in total project time in days will be t +t + 4t
0
a. 15 b.
b. 18
p n
6
t + 4t + t
0 p n
c. 21 c.
d. 24 6
t + 2t + 4t
98. Match list I (Inputs Into Networks) with 0
List II(Basis) and select the correct
d.
p n
4
answer:
List I
A. Activity Time
B. PERT durations
C. WBS
D. interfaces
List II
1. Availability of resources is not discussed
2. Senior management’s involvement is assumed
3. Total cost of each activity is
where t0 = Optimistic time tp = Pessimistic time
tn = Most likely time
102. A serious limitation of independencies
between various activities is generally observed in
a. Bar charts
b. Milestone charts
c. Network analysis
d. Job layouts
103. In time-cost analysis, the cost slope Cs is
C C
considered
4. Needed supervisory inputs are
a. c
t
c
C
n
t
n
C
considered
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 3 1 2 4
b.
c.
c n
t t
n c
t t
c n
C C
c. 4 2 1
c n
3 C C
d. 4 2 3
d.
1
n c
2 t t 
n c

where Cc = Crash cost Cn = Normal cost
tc = Crash time tn = Normal time
104. Sinking fund method is useful in
a. Depreciation
b. Obsolescence
c. Liquidation
d. Scrap value
105. Assertion (A) : Timbers used for
engineering construction are derived from deciduous trees.
Reason (R) : Deciduous trees yield hard wood while conifers yield soft wood.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
106. Assertion (A) : Dry rot is a disease in
wood caused by spores germinating in wood cells.
Reason (R) : Decomposition and putrefaction of tissues of a standing tree are indication of dry rot.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
107. Assertion (A) : The greater the surface
area of a given volume of cement the greater the hydration.
Reason (R) : The reaction between the water and cement starts from the surface of the cement particles.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
108. Assertion (A) : A low C3A cement
generates less heat and develops higher ultimate strength.
Reason (R) : During setting and hardening, the amount of lime liberated appears to be about 15 to 20 per cent by weight of cement.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
109. Assertion (A) : Addition of 5% to 6% of
moisture content by weight increases the volume of dry sand from 18% to 38%.
Reason (R) : Bulking of sand is caused due to surface moisture on sand particles.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
110. Assertion (A) : Normal stress of one nature
(compressive or tensile) acting along one of the three orthogonal axes of a member will produce strains of the same nature in its direction and strains of opposite nature along the other two directions.
Reason (R) : Sum of the strains along the three orthogonal axes equals volumetric strain.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
111. Assertion (A) : A horizontal beam hinged
at one end and freely supported at the other end will be in static equilibrium under inclined load applied on it.
Reason (R) : The hinged end will offer resistance to the horizontal component of the applied force.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
112. Assertion (A) : In a circular masonry
column it is desirable to restrict the resultant load within the middle core of one fourth the area of the column section. Reason (R) : It is desirable not to allow any tension in masonry structures.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A) : Any arch cannot
practically be built to the shape of the theoretical arch.
Reason (R) : The shape of the theoretical arch is affected by loads moving on it.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
114. Assertion (A) : Lateral support to a beam
is provided by a concrete slab resting over the top flange of a beam.
Reason (R) : Shear connectors are needed to provide continuous lateral support.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A) : Compared to riveted plate
girders, in welded plate girders a thicker web must be used.
Reason (R) : Omission of flange angles in creases the clear depth of the web and we thickness is controlled by buckling criterion.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
116. Assertion (A) : In double-laced system of a
built-up column, cross member perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the column is not used.
Reason (R) : Lacing bars are forced to share the axial load on the strut.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A) : Web crippling occurs at a
section where heavy vertical load is applied.
Reason (R) : There is stress concentration in the vicinity of the load.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
118. Assertion (A) : All columns shall be
designed for a minimum eccentricity of unsupported length of column divided by 500, plus lateral dimension divided by 30 subject to a minimum of 20 mm.
Reason (R) : Assertion refers to the design of axially loaded column and it may not be possible to build a perfectly axially loaded column in practice.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
119. Assertion (A) : Under working loads, in a
reinforced concrete beam the lever arm remains unchanged.
Reason (R) : As the bending moment increases, the total compressive force and tensile force are assumed to increase in direct proportion.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A) : Rubber tyred equipment
pull better on smooth, hard surfaces while crawlers work better on firm earth.
Reason (R) : Bulldozers mounted on wheels are employed on earth construction for better performance.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

Contact Details:
Staff Selection Commission
Pragati Vihar,
CGO Complex,
New Delhi,
Delhi 110003
India

Map Location: