As per your concern I will help you here to get AIIMS PG Medical Entrance Exam question paper so that you can have idea about the exam.


Here is the exam paper

1. True regarding the following statements is all except
1. 500 ml of normal saline contains 77 mEq of Na+
2. 50 ml 25% dextrose gives 50 kcals of energy
3. 20 ml 15% potassium chloride contains 40 meq of K+
4. 10 ml of calcium chloride contains 9 meq of Ca++

2. External ear is developed from
1. First branchial arch
2. First and second branchial arch
3. Second and Third branchial arch
4. Second branchial arch

3. True about tympanic membrane is all except
1. Tympanic membrane is attached to annulus ring made of fibrous cartilage
2. Lined by stratified epithelium in continuity with external auditory canal
3. It is inclined at an angle of 35 degrees to the meatus
4. It has sensory supply via the auriculotemporal branch of the Mandibular Nerve

4. A 12 year old child came presenting with nasal obstruction. On examination there was a bilobed polyp protruding from the right nasal cavity. The management of this child is
1. Medical treatment till she is 18 years of age
2. Caldwell luc operation to be done
3. Endoscopic sinus operation
4. Polypectomy

5. Treatment of choice for a patient with inverted papilloma of right side of nasal cavity is
1. Partial Maxillectomy
2. Total Maxillectomy
3. Local excision
4. Radiotherapy

6. A child presenting with history of nasal obstruction since 5 years and with epistaxis since 1 year. CT scan showed a tumor arising in left nasal cavity and extending into the nasopharynx as well. It was decided that she requires surgery. The best approach required for resection of
the tumor is
1. Transpalatal
2. Sublabial
3. Transmaxillary
4. Lateral rhinotomy

7. A child presented with history of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge from the same side. The diagnosis is
1. Antrachoanal polyp
2. Foreign body
3. Angiofibroma
4. Rhinosporidiosis

8. In which of the following operations is the Eustachian tube closed
1. Modified radical mastoidectomy
2. Radical mastoidectomy
3. Endolymphatic decompression
4. Attico antrotomy

9. Modified Radical operation is done in all the following conditions except
1. Cholesteatoma
2. Coalescent mastoidectomy
3. Deafness with fascial palsy
4. Cholestatoma with sensory neural deafness

10. Schwartz sign is seen in
1. Glomus jugulare
2. Otosclerosis
3. Tympanic granuloma

11. Tympanic membrane and ossicles efficiently transmit sound to the inner ear at which of the following frequencies
1. 200-1000 hrz
2. 500-3000 hrz
3. 2000-3000 hrz
4. 3000-5000 hrz

12. In a patient with acoustic neuroma all are seen except
1. Fascial nerve may be involved
2. Tinnitus is present
3. Deafness
4. Acute episodes of vertigo occur

13. A patient is suspected to have vestibular shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
1. Contrast enhanced CT scan
2. Gadolinium enhanced MRI
3. SPECT
4. PET scan

14. In a patient with trauma with middle cranial fossa fracture complains of loss of tear secretion. This occurs due to injury to
1. Ciliary ganglion
2. Greater superficial Petrosal nerve
3. Stellate ganglion
4. Trigeminal nerve

15. Sensory nerve supply over the angle of mandible is due to
1. Superficial cervical nerve
2. Greater auricular nerve
3. Posterior auricular nerve
4. Lingual nerve

16. True regarding venous drainage of thyroid is all except
1. Middle thyroid vein drains into internal jugular vein
2. Inferior thyroid vein drains into external jugular vein
3. The veins of thyroid are valveless
4. Superficial thyroid vein is closely related with external branch of superficial laryngeal
nerve

17. All the following tumors of the larynx involve cervical lymph nodes except
1. Transglottic
2. Glottic
3. Supraglottic
4. Infraglottic

18. Most common tumor to have metastatic involvement of upper deep cervical lymph nodes is
1. Pharynx
2. Colon
3. Breast
4. Kidney

19. All are causes of grey white membrane in throat except
1. Streptococcus
2. Ludwig angina
3. adenovirus
4. Diphtheria

20. Which of the following acts on the uveoscleral tract
1. Levobunol
2. Epinephrine
3. Latanoprost
4. Timolol maleate

21. Fibrous attachment of lid to the eye globe is known as
1. Symbelpharon
2. Ankyloblepharon
3. Ectropion
4. Syndesmosis

22. In a susceptible patient which of the following drugs precipitate glaucoma
1. Phenylalanine
2. Phentolamine
3. Homatropine
4. Epinephrine

23. In a patient with cataract, capsulotomy with removal of lens nucleus followed by aspiration of cortical content is known as
1. Intracapsular cataract extraction
2. Extracapsular cataract extraction
3. Discission
4. Lensectomy

24. Dilator pupillae is supplied by
1. Adrenergic fibres of Oculomotor nerve
2. Cholinergic fibers of Oculomotor nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Fascial nerve

25. A patient presented with unilateral ptosis and diplopia and on examination was found to have decreased movement of eyeball in all directions. The patient also complains of difficulty reading newsprint. The diagnosis is
1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Oculomotor palsy

26. In Oculomotor palsy all the following are seen except
1. Ptosis
2. Eye deviated upward and medially
3. Mydriasis
4. Proptosis

27. Cherry red spot is seen in
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Central retinal artery occlusion
3. Optic neuritis
4. Adreno leukodystrophy

28. Anisometropia means
1. Both the eye are not oriented in the same parallel axis
2. There is high difference of refractive errors between the two eye
3. Sublaxation of one of the eye
4. Difference in image sizes’

29. In a patient presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus. All are true except
1. It is caused by varicella
2. It is lodged in the gasserian ganglion
3. Corneal involvement is always associated with tip of nasal involvement and ulcers
4. Punctate Keratitis may coalesce and unite to form dendritic ulcers which simulate
Herpes simplex

30. Night blindness is caused by all except
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Cone dystrophy
3. Xeroderma pigmentosa
4. ***