Here I am giving you question paper for LIC Development Officer examination organized by Life Insurance Corporation of India




Directions—(Q. 1 to 25) What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 15•36 ´ 2•8 + 7•6 = ?

(A) 326•86 (B) 42•364

(C) 50•608 (D) 36•34

(E) None of these

2. 846 + 281 + (?) + 252 = 681

(A) 446 (B) 698

(C) – 446 (D) – 698

(E) None of these

3. = ?

(A) 0•8 (B) 8•10

(C) 10•5 (D) 0•81

(E) None of these

4. 39114 ÷ 246 ´ ? = 6201

(A) 37 (B) 39

(C) 43 (D) 41

(E) None of these

5. ´ + (85)2 = ?

(A) 7270 (B) 7280

(C) 7260 (D) 7250

(E) None of these

6. (7)3 ´ (3)3 ÷ (6)2 = ?

(A) 12348 (B) 85•75

(C) 1543•5 (D) 257•25

(E) None of these

7. ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E) None of these

8. 39% of ? – 24% of 390 = 171•60

(A) 650 (B) 580

(C) 740 (D) 630

(E) None of these

9. 8736 + 9121 + 4867 + 3308 = ?

(A) 26032 (B) 26320

(C) 23062 (D) 22603

(E) None of these

10. ?

(A) 59 (B) 67

(C) 61 (D) 57

(E) None of these

11. 7 – 6 = ?

(A) 1 (B) 1

(C) 1 (D) 1

(E) None of these

12. ?

(A) (B) 4

(C) (D) 2

(E) None of these

13. (666 ´ 66 ´ 6) ÷ ? = 499•5

(A) 462 (B) 532

(C) 540 (D) 396

(E) None of these

14. 3120 + ? ÷ 12•5 = 3563•36

(A) 5542 (B) 5446

(C) 5452 (D) 5354

(E) None of these

15. 449 ´ 367 = ?

(A) 164783 (B) 165681

(C) 164416 (D) 164049

(E) None of these

16. ´ = ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E) None of these

17. (51)2 – (47)2 + (32)2 = ?

(A) 3786 (B) 2596

(C) 1416 (D) 1296

(E) None of these

18. ÷ 4 ´ 26 = 247

(A) 1764 (B) 1296

(C) 1444 (D) 1369

(E) None of these

19. 0•576 + 2•4 ´ 1•5 = ?

(A) 2•874 (B) 4•276

(C) 2•8824 (D) 4•476

(E) None of these

20. = 17(?)

(A) 1•62 (B) 2•64

(C) 11•1 (D) 29•06

(E) None of these

21. ? + 3229 = 17368 – 4454

(A) 9676 (B) 9445

(C) 9658 (D) 9585

(E) None of these

22. ´ = ?

(A) 2793 (B) 2842

(C) 2679 (D) 2891

(E) None of these

23. ´ ? + 595 = 833

(A) 4480 (B) 4352

(C) 4608 (D) 4096

(E) None of these

24. 815964 – 697826 – 9674 – 6542 = ?

(A) 109122 (B) 101292

(C) 101922 (D) 110922

(E) None of these

25. (7928 – ?) ÷ 84 ´ 12 = 888

(A) 1705 (B) 1698

(C) 1710 (D) 1712

(E) None of these

26. Find out the average of the given numbers.

356, 449, 51, 652, 533, 105, 122

(A) 307 (B) 315

(C) 412 (D) 324

(E) None of these

27. The multiplication of two con-secutive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number among them ?

(A) 94 (B) 92

(C) 91 (D) 93

(E) None of these

28. An amount of rupees 4500 is to be distributed among Shrikant, Ramakant and Bikrant in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 5 respectively. If Rs. 500 is added to each of the share, the new ratio will become…… ?

(A) 7 : 10 : 13 (B) 9 : 16 : 13

(C) 2 : 4 : 3 (D) 4 : 5 : 2

(E) None of these

29. If (67)2 is added to the square of a number, the addition thus obtained is 6605. What is that number ?

(A) 45 (B) 51

(C) 46 (D) 39

(E) None of these

30. What approximate value should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following ques-tion ?

7686 ´ 19 ÷ (17)2 = ?

(A) 505 (B) 485

(C) 545 (D) 575

(E) 615

31. If an amount of Rs. 39,856 is distributed equally amongst 18 persons, how much approximate amount would each person get ?

(A) Rs. 2,214 (B) Rs. 2,524

(C) Rs. 2,124 (D) Rs. 2,343

(E) Rs. 2,254

32. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two-digits of the same number is 9. The sum of the digits of the two-digit numbers is 17. What is the product of the two-digits of the two-digit number ?

(A) 64

(B) 63

(C) 72

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

33. What is 260% of 6680 ?

(A) 18036 (B) 18704

(C) 16700 (D) 17368

(E) None of these

34. What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 18,000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. at the end of three years ?

(A) Rs. 5,628 (B) Rs. 5,400

(C) Rs. 5,940 (D) Rs. 5,858

(E) None of these

35. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the follow-ing number series ?

19 36 70 ? 274 546

(A) 142 (B) 138

(C) 136 (D) 140

(E) None of these

36. The difference between 60% of a number and 20% of the same numbr is 316. What is 35% of that number ?

(A) 270•5 (B) 285•5

(C) 276•5 (D) 275

(E) None of these

37. The average of 4 positive integers is 52•5. The highest integer is 76 and the lowest integer is 34. The difference between the remain-ing two integers is 4. Which of the following integers is higher of the remaining two integers ?

(A) 52

(B) 54

(C) 48

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

38. The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 9 : 8 respectively. The area of the plot is 3528 sq. metres. What is the perimeter of the rectangular plot ?

(A) 256 metres

(B) 119 metres

(C) 238 metres

(D) 126 metres

(E) None of these

39. What is 876 times 779 ?

(A) 68214 (B) 68824

(C) 628402 (D) 682514

(E) None of these

40. The total number of students studying in a school is 10396. The ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys studying in the school is 52 : 61 respectively. What is the total number of girls studying in the school ?

(A) 4874 (B) 4784

(C) 5216 (D) 5612

(E) None of these

41. The present age of Mr. Deepak is 3 times the present age of his son. Five years hence the ratio of their ages will be 34 : 13 respecti-vely. What is the present age of Mr. Deepak ?

(A) 63 years (B) 68 years

(C) 58 years (D) 60 years

(E) None of these

42. In an examination it is required to get 36% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 174 marks and is declared failed by 96 marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get ?

(A) 750

(B) 650

(C) 600

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

43. In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number—

13 16 22 31 42 58

(A) 16 (B) 42

(C) 22 (D) 31

(E) None of these

44. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 66. What is the product of B and E ?

(A) 4352 (B) 4340

(C) 4620 (D) 4224

(E) None of these

45. Shri Verma invests Rs. 14500 for 6 years at the certain rate of simple interest. After 6 years his invested sum becomes Rs. 21460. Find out the rate of interest per annum—

(A) 4% p.a. (B) 10% p.a.

(C) 6% p.a. (D) 8% p.a.

(E) None of these

46. The cost of 4 digital cameras and 6 mobile phones is Rs. 51,365. Find out the cost of 12 digital cameras and 18 mobile phones—

(A) Rs. 1,74,500

(B) Rs. 5,13,650

(C) Rs. 1,54,095

(D) Can’t be determined

(E) None of these

47. In how many ways 7 children can be seated in the available 7 seats ?

(A) 4050 (B) 1680

(C) 840 (D) 5040

(E) None of these

48. If x + y = 11 and xy = 28, find out the value of the expression

(x)2 + (y)2.

(A) 63

(B) 56

(C) 65

(D) Can’t be determined

(E) None of these

49. In a canteen 238 kgs. of rice is required for a week. How much rice is required for 49 days ?

(A) 1715 kg (B) 1764 kg

(C) 1568 kg (D) 1617 kg

(E) None of these

50. The circumference of a circular plot is 484 metre. Find out the area of that circular plot—

(A) 15246 metre2

(B) 18634 metre2

(C) 20328 metre2

(D) 13552 metre2

(E) None of these

Answers with Explanations

1. (c) 2. (D) 3. (e) 4. (b) 5. (a)6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (e) 9. (a) 10. (c)11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (e) 14. (A) 15. (a)16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (b)21. (e) 22.a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d)26. (d)27. (b)28. (e)29. (C)30. (a31. (a)32. (c)33. (d)35. (b)36. (c)37. (a)38. (c)39. (e)40. (b)41. (a)42. (a)43. (b)44(e)45. (d)46. (c)47. (d)48. (c)49. (e)50. (b)



1. Which Indian filmstars was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University, (U.K.) ?
(A) Amitabh Bachhan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Om Puri
(D) Amir Khan
Ans : (B)

2. Williams Sisters won the U.S. Open Women’s Doubles Title 2009 after defeating in the final—
(A) Leizal Herber and Cara Blank
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna Kournikova
(C) Coroline Wozniacki and Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania Mirza
Ans : (A)

3. Which one of the following is a military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) NATO
(D) NAFTA
Ans : (C)

4. The recipient of the 42nd Jnan Peeth Award is—
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K. Kamal Kumar
Ans : (C)

5. World Development Report is an annual publication of—
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) WTO
(D) World Bank
Ans : (D)

6. Which one of the following is correct ?
Player — Sport
(A) Jeev Milkha Singh —Tennis
(B) Jhulan Goswami —Cricket
(C) Baichung Bhutia —Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani —Badminton
Ans : (B)

7. Which one of the following industrialists was declared ‘The Business Person of the year 2008’ by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
Ans : (C)

8. Naina Devi peak forms a part of—
(A) Himalayan range located in Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (B)

9. The aim of the ISRO’s OCEANSAT-2 satellite is—
(A) To provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) To aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) To aid weathermen to forecast cyclones and weather conditions
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

10. Who amongst the following is not the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Vijendra Singh
(B) Sushil Kumar
(C) M. C. Marykom
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)

11. Nilgiri, Himgiri and ‘Beas’ are—
(A) Aircraft Carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
Ans : (B)

12. The age of a tree can be calculated by—
(A) Number of branches
(B) Its height
(C) Girth of its trunk
(D) Number of its annual rings
Ans : (D)

13. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale ?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
Ans : (D)

15. A rolling plan refers to a plan which—
(A) Does not change its targets every year
(B) Changes its allocations every year
(C) Changes its allocations and targets every year
(D) Changes only its targets every year
Ans : (C)

16. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is—
(A) Open market operations
(B) Credit rationing
(C) Change in reserve ratio
(D) Bank rate policy
Ans : (B)

17. Laissez-faire is a feature of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
Ans : (C)

18. Which one of the following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States ?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
Ans : (D)

19. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is—
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
Ans : (B)

20. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India ?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
Ans : (B)

21. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve ?
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
Ans : (C)

22. According to J. A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their……… activities.
(A) Innovative
(B) Risk taking
(C) Risk averting
(D) Hard work
Ans : (A)

23. Demonstration effect means—
(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) Imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Ans : (B)

24. Homogeneous product is a feature of—
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
Ans : (D)

25. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans : (D)

26. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the Government” ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Shri B. N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)

27. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as—
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
Ans : (A)

28. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is—
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Two hours
(D) Unspecified
Ans : (B)

29. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Ans : (C)

30. When will demand become a grant ?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
Ans : (C)

31. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
Ans : (D)

32. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (D)

33. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice-President can be heard by—
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
Ans : (C)

34. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of—
(A) The village, the block and the district levels
(B) The mandal and the district levels
(C) The village, the district and the State levels
(D) The village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
Ans : (A)

35. Which of the following has banned ‘floor crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature ?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Ans : (A)

36. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to—
(A) Those sections of society which pay Income-tax
(B) Those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced
(C) Those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) All sections of upper castes of the society
Ans : (B)

37. When was the Panchtantra written ?
(A) Maurya Period
(B) Kanishka Period
(C) Gupta Period
(D) Harsha Period
Ans : (C)

38. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
Ans : (A)

39. The battle of Mahabharata is believed to have been fought at Kurukshetra for—
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Ans : (C)

40. The Mukteswara Temple is located at—
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
Ans : (D)

41. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Ans : (A)

42. Between which two rulers was the First Battle of Panipat fought ?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Bairam Khan and Sikandar Lodi
(D) Shah Jahan and Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)

43. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari ?
(A) Abul Fazal
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Ans : (A)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I — List-II(a) Peshwas 1. Nagpur
(b) Gaekwads 2. Pune
(c) Bhonsles 3. Indore
(d) Holkers 4. Baroda
Codes a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

45. Which reformer from Maharashtra was known as Lokhitavadi ?
(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Ans : (D)

46. ‘Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a success because—
(A) After Akbar, it was not patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected to the masses
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

47. Who was the author of the book ‘My Experiments with Truth’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (C)

48. Give the correct chronological order of the following events—
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Untouchability League
3. Formation of All India Trade Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (D)

49. 80% of the coal in India comes from—
(A) Jharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
Ans : (A)

50. Dry zone agriculture in India contributes nearly 40% of the total—
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Ans : (D)

51. The precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain is—
(A) Sleet
(B) Smog
(C) Snow-line
(D) Fog
Ans : (A)

52. ‘Operation Flood’ was launched in 1970 to—
(A) Control floods
(B) Increase milk production
(C) Improve water sources
(D) Construct more dams
Ans : (B)

53. Photogrammetry is—
(A) Portraying gradient
(B) Movement of setlines
(C) A method of solving geometrical problems
(D) Use of photography in surveying and mapping
Ans : (D)

54. The spice State of India is—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans : (D)

55. Jog Falls is found across the river—
(A) Cauvery
(B) Kabini
(C) Krishna
(D) Sharavati
Ans : (D)

56. Which of the following sea ports of India is the main outlet for export of Tea ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

57. The International Date Line passes through the—
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (A)

58. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation ?
(A) Rainfall
(B) Snowfall
(C) Fog
(D) Hail
Ans : (C)

59. Which of the following is a Great Circle ?
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
Ans : (C)

60. Tides in the sea have stored in them—
(A) Hydraulic energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Gravitational potential energy
(D) A combination of all the above
Ans : (D)

61. Which component of blood is considered as the guard cell of our body ?
(A) R.B.C.
(B) Platelets
(C) Plasma
(D) W.B.C.
Ans : (D)

62. Camel can walk easily in the desert, because—
(A) It has thick skin
(B) It can maintain water level in the body
(C) It has a layer of fat under the skin to combat heat
(D) It has long legs with padded paws
Ans : (D)

63. The function of arteries in our body is to—
(A) Carry blood away from the heart
(B) Purify the blood
(C) Manufacture White Blood Corpuscles
(D) Carry blood back to the heart
Ans : (A)

64. Plants climb by means of—
(A) Tendrils
(B) Roots
(C) Pistil
(D) Branches
Ans : (A)

65. This term is associated with the Biology of silkworms.
(A) Apiculture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Sylviculture
(D) Pisciculture
Ans : (B)

66. Pick out the correct sequence of a simple land food chain :
1. Deer
2. Grass
3. Tiger
(A) 1–2–3
(B) 3–2–1
(C) 1–3–2
(D) 2–1–3
Ans : (D)

67. Sex in human beings is determined by—
(A) Vitamins
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Hormones
(D) Nutrients
Ans : (B)

68. Deficiency of fluorine in drinking water causes—
(A) Dental caries (cavity)
(B) Dental fluorosis
(C) Skeletal fluorosis
(D) Goiter
Ans : (A)

69. In man,urea is formed in—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Nephron
(D) Urinary Bladder
Ans : (B)

70. The most important function of perspiration is—
(A) Get rid of the body wastes
(B) Regulate body temperature
(C) Regulate body wastes
(D) Lubricate the skin
Ans : (B)

71. ECG is the instrument that records—
(A) Potential different of cardiac muscles
(B) Rate of respiration
(C) Rate of glomerular filtration
(D) Volume of blood pumped
Ans : (A)

72. Hot spot is an area having—
(A) Wide variety of species
(B) Wealth of endemic species
(C) Rich variety of flora and fauna
(D) Conserving species in natural habitat
Ans : (B)

73. Electromagnet is used in a—
(A) Calling bell
(B) Computer
(C) Motor
(D) Washing machine
Ans : (A)

74. Kilo Watt Hour represents the unit for—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Time
(D) Energy
Ans : (D)

75. A transformer is used to—
(A) Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) Convert alternating current into direct current
(C) Convert direct current to alternating current
(D) Transform alternating current voltage
Ans : (D)

76. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of—
(A) Conduction
(B) Condensation
(C) Radiation
(D) Insolation
Ans : (C)

77. A stick partly dipped in water appears broken due to—
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Diffraction
Ans : (B)

78. What is condensation ?
(A) Change of gas into solid
(B) Change of solid into liquid
(C) Change of vapour into liquid
(D) Change of heat energy into cooling energy
Ans : (C)

79. Kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy in—
(A) Electric Motor
(B) Dynamo
(C) Electromagnet
(D) Ammeter
Ans : (B)

80. Floppy disk is an example of—
(A) Read Only Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Cache Memory
(D) Secondary Storage Memory
Ans : (D)

81. Which of the following compounds are sprayed over clouds to cause artificial rain ?
(A) Ice
(B) NaOH
(C) AgI
(D) NH4Cl
Ans : (C)

82. Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause—
(A) Rickets
(B) Obesity
(C) Scurvy
(D) Goiter
Ans : (D)

83. The refrigeration of the food articles keeps them fresh, because—
(A) Water forms crystals
(B) Chemical reaction is slowed down
(C) Chemical reaction take place faster
(D) Bacteria are killed
Ans : (A)

84. Which substance is called the ‘liquid gold’ ?
(A) Gold as a liquid form
(B) Sodium as a liquid form
(C) Mustard oil
(D) Petroleum oil
Ans : (D)

85. Percentage of silver in German silver is—
(A) 25%
(B) 0%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
Ans : (B)

86. Which type of compounds are sugar and common salt ?
(A) Both are organic compounds
(B) Both are inorganic compounds
(C) Sugar is an organic compound and common salt is an inorganic compound
(D) Sugar is inorganic compound and common salt is an organic compound
Ans : (C)

87. The chemical name of Vitamin ‘E’ is—
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Retinol
(C) Tocopherol
(D) Thiamine
Ans : (C)

88. Which of the following gases has bleaching property ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (C)

89. The heaviest body of our Solar system is—
(A) Sun
(B) Uranus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
Ans : (A)

90. From amongst the following; name the famous Indian ornithologist—
(A) Dr. Salim Ali
(B) Dr. Gopalasamudram N. Ramachandran
(C) Dr. J. B. S. Haldane
(D) Dr. H. G. Khorana
Ans : (A)

91. Who performed the longest space journey in the year 2007 ?
(A) Venus Williams
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Sunita William
(D) Sir John William
Ans : (C)

92. ‘The Lost Child’ was written by—
(A) Nirad C. Chowdhury
(B) Mulk Raj Anand
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Annie Besant
Ans : (B)

93. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields ?
(A) Nuclear Physics
(B) Agriculture
(C) Astrophysics
(D) Medicine
Ans : (B)

94. The Headquarters of UNESCO is at—
(A) Rome
(B) Geneva
(C) Paris
(D) New York
Ans : (C)

95. January 15 is celebrated as the—
(A) Army Day
(B) Martyr’s Day
(C) Independence Day
(D) Ugadhi
Ans : (A)

96. Bijapur is known for its—
(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Rock Temple
(C) Gol Gumbaj
(D) Statue of Gomateshwara
Ans : (C)

97. The Americans are also known as—
(A) Kiwis
(B) Yankees
(C) Tories
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

98. India lifted the ONGC Nehru Cup, 2009 after defeating in the final—
(A) Syria
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

99. An element which does not react with oxygen is—
(A) Chlorine
(B) Iodine
(C) Helium
(D) Nitrogen
Ans : (C)

100. During sleep, man’s blood pressure—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Fluctuates
(D) Remains constant
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 1–5) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following—
>> Each committee must have exactly three members.
>> No person can serve on more than one committee.
>> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee.
>> C and D must serve on the same committee.
>> A and B cannot serve on the same committee.
>> E cannot serve on the same committee as I.
>> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H.

1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E
(B) A, D, G
(C) C, H, E
(D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee.
2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (A)

4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A 2. G 3. I
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee
(B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee
(D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—

6. AYDOT
(A) A
(B) D
(C) T
(D) Y
Ans : (D)

7. ILCEOP
(A) C
(B) E
(C) L
(D) O
Ans : (B)

8. CAPCET
(A) A
(B) C
(C) P
(D) T
Ans : (D)

9. VISERL
(A) E
(B) L
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (C)

10. ERVSECI
(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet.

11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest
(B) Weight
(C) Gravitation
(D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail
(B) Letter-box
(C) Stamp
(D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss
(B) Surplus
(C) Balance
(D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate
(B) Count
(C) Weigh
(D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution
(B) Disaster
(C) Risk
(D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MOndAy
(B) tUESdAy
(C) WEdNESdAy
(D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK
(B) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
(C) OVERSEAS : TCHWWKCW
(D) BANKING : HPLOSGI
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) PROFIT : RPQCKR
(B) OTHERS : QRJCTQ
(C) LEGUME : NCISOC
(D) CANKER : EYPIGP
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) JOEHNP
(D) SFXPMG
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW
(B) MS
(C) FT
(D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—

21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S
(B) R 180 M
(C) S 198 I
(D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX
(B) 6 RI
(C) 9 LV
(D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16
(A) V 4
(B) K 7
(C) T 13
(D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
(A) A 12 L
(B) I 18 X
(C) Z 25 D
(D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5
(B) KPV 8
(C) PVZ 9
(D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L
(B) O
(C) M
(D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK
(A) LACK
(B) MEET
(C) ROAD
(D) DEAF
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) HKNGSW
(B) EIMQVZ
(C) SUXADF
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
(A) MGVFK
(B) PJXHM
(C) EQZFI
(D) GWIQU
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.

31. D U E L
(A) g
(B) i
(C) p
(D) j
Ans : (C)

32. P I T Y
(A) g
(B) b
(C) r
(D) k
Ans : (B)

33. R I N G
(A) it
(B) rk
(C) mp
(D) ti
Ans : (A)

34. G O A L
(A) c
(B) q
(C) e
(D) j
Ans : (C)

35. S L A P
(A) dx
(B) ms
(C) vp
(D) io
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below—
Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk
Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ

36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ?
(A) 4, 3
(B) 6, 2
(C) 8, 1
(D) 10, 0
Ans : (A)

37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be ……, whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be ……
(A) L, x
(B) j, x
(C) U, (11)
(D) x, L
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ?
(A) hy
(B) Hy
(C) sQ
(D) Sq
Ans : (C)

39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) azj
(B) emb
(C) qdf
(D) xtk
Ans : (B)

40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41– 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning—
I. P @ Q means add P to Q;
II. P & Q means subtract Q from P;
III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and
IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q.
Now study the given information and answer the question following it—
Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together.

41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20)
(B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20)
(C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20)
(D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(A) B and C travel in opposite directions
(B) C travels towards West
(C) D travels towards North
(D) B and C travel in the same direction
Ans : (D)

46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
Ans : (A)

47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now ?
(A) East or West
(B) North or West
(C) South or West
(D) North or South
Ans : (D)

48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (D)

49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 32
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 30
Ans : (A)

50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row—
(A) 61
(B) 62
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

51. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 17
(D) 33
Ans : (B)

52. Choose the odd numeral pair in the following—
(A) 140 – 45
(B) 120 – 35
(C) 110 – 35
(D) 80 – 25
Ans : (B)

53. Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set—
Given set — (246, 257, 358)
(A) (145, 235, 325)
(B) (143, 253, 246)
(C) (273, 365, 367)
(D) (233, 343, 345)
Ans : (A)

54. Choose the one which is different from the rest—
(A) 248
(B) 326
(C) 392
(D) 414
Ans : (C)

55. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 156
(B) 152
(C) 72
(D) 42
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer—
(A) If only assumption I is implicit;
(B) If only assumption II is implicit;
(C) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
(D) If both I and II are implicit.

56. Statement—To achieve economic development, people should work hard.
Assumptions :
I. Achieving economic development is desirable.
II. Working hard is not impossible.
Ans : (D)

57. Statement—He is too industrious to be poor.
Assumptions :I. Very industrious people also can be poor.
II. Very lazy people also can be rich.
Ans : (C)

58. Statement—Visitors may use lift at their own risk.
Assumptions :I. Using lift is not always safe.
II. Visitors do not want to use lift.
Ans : (A)

59. Statement—This book is so designed that even a layman can easily learn science in the absence of a teacher.
Assumptions :I. Learning science by everybody is desirable.
II. A layman generally finds it difficult to learn science on his own.
Ans : (B)

60. Statement—Although the rates of this hotel are comparable with other hotels, the amenities provided here are far superior.
Assumptions :I. Rates are independent of amenities provided.
II. Rates are dependent on amenities provided.
Ans : (C)