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  #1  
June 20th, 2014, 12:13 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Previous Years Papers of IBPS

Can you give me question paper for Common Written Examination organized by IBPS soon ??

1. The difference between the place values of 7 in the numeral 574873 is
(a) 69930 (b) 59930 (c) 96390 (d) 69305 (e) None of these
2. (387*387+114*114+2*387*114) = (?)
(a) 250001 (b) 251001 (c) 260110 (d) 261001 (e) None of these
3. A trader has three types of oils: 400 litres and 465 litres, respectively. If he wants to fill them separately in tins of equal capacity, what is the least number so tins required?
(a) 42 (b) 21 (c) 7 (d) 84 (e) None of these
4. The length and breadth of a room are 13m and 7.5m, respectively. The floor of the room is to be paved with square tiles of uniform size. Determine the length of the largest possible size of the tile.
(a) 1.0 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 5.0 (e) 6.0
5. If the unit digit in the product (459*46*28?*484) is 2, the digit in place of ?is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) None of these
6. Which one of the following numbers is not a square of any natural number?
(a) 17956 (b) 18225 (c) 53361 (d) 63592 (e) None of these
7. A third of Vinod’s marks in mathematics exceeds a half of his marks in social studies by 30. If he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in social studies?
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 90 (e) None of these
8. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period is
(a) 42 minutes (b) 48 minutes (c) 51 minutes (d) 53 minutes (e) None of these

9. If (64)2-(36)2= 20z, the value of z is
(a) 70 (b) 180 (c) 120 (d) 50 (e) None of these
10. What number should replace both the asterisks in (?/21*?/189) = 1?
(a) 21 (b) 63 (c) 147 (d) 3969 (e) 4968
11. Which one of the following fractions is the smallest?
(a) 13/16 (b) 15/19 (c) 17/21 (d) 7/8 (e) None of these
12. If the difference between the 4/5th part and 1/3rd part of a number is 4 what is the number?
(a) 60 (b) 100 (c) 80 (d) 120 (e) None of these

13. If x and y are +ive integers such that (3x+7y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following will also be divisible by 11?
(a0 4x+6y (b) x+y+4 (c) 9x+4y (d) 4x-9y (e) None of these
14. If x and y are the two digits of the number 653 xy such that this number is divisible by so, then x+y is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) None of these
15. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube?
(a) 9 (b) 50 (c) 300 (d) 450 (e) 500
16. What may be substracted from 39468 to make it perfect square?
(a) 192 (b) 264 (dc) 246 (d) 280 (e) None of these
17. 1399*1399=?
(a) 1687401 (b) 1901541 (c) 1943211 (d) 1957201 (e) None of these
18. The product of two numbers is y/x. IF one of the numbers is x/y2, then the other one is
(a) y3/x2 (b) y2/x3 (c) x2/y (d) x/y2 (e) x2/y2
19. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has. If the average money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has
(a) Rs 55 (b) Rs 60 (c) Rs 90 (d) Rs 180 (e) Rs 200
20. A cricketer has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing his average by 8 runs. His new average is
(a) 20 runs (b) 24 runs (c) 28 runs (d) 32 runs (e) None of these
21. A number when divided by 296 gives a remainder 75. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 37?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 6 (e) 8
22. What will be the sum of all odd numbers between 30 and 50?
(a) 625 (b) 400 (c) 225 (d) 500 (e) 600
23. In an election between two candidates, a candidate who gets 40 percent of total votes is defeated by 15000 votes. The number of votes polled by the winning candidate is
(a) 6000 (b) 10000 (c) 22500 (d) 45000 (e) 10% increase
24. The population of a town increases by 15 percent annually. If its population was 8000 in 1995, what would it be in 1997?
(a) 9200 (b) 10400 (c) 9600 (d) 10580 (e) None of these
25. What will be the sum of all the even numbers between 1 and 60?
(a) 870 (b) 960 (c) 840 (d) 720 (e) None of these
26. Find the largest number of five digits which is divisible by 17.
(a) 99999 (b) 99960 (c) 99994 (d) 10013 (e) 10014
27. A sum of money was divided between A, B and C, such that when A gets Re 1 then B gets 65 paise and C gets 40 paise. If C’s share be Rs 40 then what is that sum of money?
(a) Rs 82 (b) Rs 126.15 (c) Rs 105 (d) Rs 205 (e) Rs 305
28. Marks obtained by Komal in English are equal to 1/3rd of marks obtained by her in Music. Total marks obtained by her in both the subjects is 160. How many marks did she secure in Music?
(a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 90 (e) 100
29. How many numbers up to three digits are divisible by 19?
(a) 48 (b) 47 (c) 25 (d) 52 (e) 54
30. What is the largest prime number by which 871 is exactly divisible?
(a) 13 (b) 1 (c) 67 (d) 871 (e) None of these
31. Vivek purchased 120 tables at a price of Rs 110 per table. He sold 30 tables at a profit of Rs 12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of Rs 14 per table. The remaining tables were sold at a loss of Rs 7 per table. What is the average profit per table?
(a) Rs 12.875 (b) Rs 10.04 (c) 10.875 (d) Rs 12.80 (e) Rs 13.80
32. A book dealer allows 16 per cent discount to a retailer and the retailer allows 10 per cent discount to a customer. These both discounts are given on the printed price of the book. If the customer pays Rs 270 for a book and the dealer makes a profit of 5 per cent what is the cost price of the book for the dealer?
(a) Rs 252 (b) Rs 243 (c) Rs 240 (d) Rs 250 (e) Rs 350
33. The difference between the greatest and the least numbers of eight digits which begin with 8 and end with 6 is
(a) 99999999 (b) 10000000 (c) 80000006 (d) 9999996 (e) None of these
34. If a*b=a2+b2 then 3*5 is equal to
(a) 16 (b) 34 (c) 8 (d) 15 (e) 18
35. The Simple interest on a sum of money at 8 per cent per annum for 6 years is half the sum. The sum is
(a) Rs 4800 (b) Rs 6000 (c) Rs 8000 (d) Rs 7000 (e) Data inadequate
36. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 5 per cent per annum simple interest to increase its value by 40 per cent?
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) 8 years (e) 10 years
37. A number, when successively divided by 3 and 5, leaves remainder of 2 and 1, when the same number is divided by 15, the remainder is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 10
38. The numbers 1, 3, 5, ………., 25 are multiplied together. The numbers of zeros at the right end of the product is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 8
39. What will be the compound interest on Rs 240 for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum?
(a) Rs 19.20 (b) Rs 9.60 (c) Rs 19.18 (d) Rs 19.58 (e) Rs 20.58
40. Find the compound interest on Rs 15000 at 8 per cent per annum payable half-yearly for 1 year.
(a) Rs 1500 (b) Rs 1432 (c) Rs 1200 (d) Rs 1224 (e) Rs 1324
41. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work, is
(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 42 (e) 50
42. A and B can do a work in 10 days. B and C in 12 days while C and A in 15 days. How long would they take if all the three work together?
(a) 5days (b) 4 days (c) 7 days (d) 8 days (e) 10 days
43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in
(a) 18 min (b) 27 min (c) 38 min (d) 9 min (e) 10 min
44. In how many seconds a cyclist will pass a distance of 100 metres at the speed of 10 km/hr.
(a) 25 sec (b) 36 sec (c) 40 sec (d) 42 sec (e) 50 sec
45. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of
(a) 120o (b) 125o (c) 130o (d) 135o (e) 140o
46. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 44 (d) 48 (e) 50
47. Today is Tuesday. After 62 days it will be
(a) Wednesday (b) Monday (c) Thursday (d) Sunday (e) Tuesday
48. The day on March of 5 of a year is the same day on what date of the same year?
(a) 5th August (b) 5th October (c) 5 November (d) 5 December (e) None of these
49. A garden is 70 m long and 30 m wide. It is surrounded by a footpath 5 m wide outside. What is the area of the path?
(a) 2200 m2 (b) 1100 m2 (c) 550 m2 (d) 625 m2 (e) 700 m2
50. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is
(a) 81 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 36 cm (e) 40 cm

Answer of these Questions:-
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B A B C D D B D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D B D D B D A D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B D D A C D A D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C D B D D C B D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D A B C C B C B A

Last edited by Neelurk; April 22nd, 2020 at 02:13 PM.
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  #2  
June 20th, 2014, 04:58 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: Previous Years Papers of IBPS

Here I am giving you question paper for Common Written Examination organized by IBPS in PDF file attached with it ..

1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?
(a) US (b) Britain
(c) France (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so warrants.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Manipur
(c) Assam (d) Mizoram
(e) None of these
3. Who among the following has won the Durand Cup held in New Delhi recently?
(a) JCT (b) Chirag United
(c) East Bengal (d) Mohun Bagan
(e) None of these
4. Name the Spanish world champion who won the Valencia Grand Prix in the final round of the world championship.
(a) Jorge Lorenzo (b) Malcolm Campbell
(c) Enzo Ferrari (d) Louis Chiron
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Swiss Indoors – Roger Federer
(b) ATP Valencia Open – David Ferrer
(c) WTA tournament of Champion – Ana Ivanovic
(d) Questnet Open ITF Women’s – Nicha Lertpitak
(e) US Open 2010 – Roger Federer
6. Who is the author of the book World of All Human Rights?
(a) Harish Salve (b) Santosh Hegde
(c) Arundhati Roy (d) Soli J Sorabjee
(e) None of these
7. Name the Ethiopian legend who announced his retirement after dropping out of the New york City Marathon with a knee injury.
(a) Haile Gebreslassie (b) Duncan Kibet
(c) James Kwambai (d) Patrick Makau
(e) None of these
8. Name the deputy governor of RBI who retired recently after spending nearly 38 years there in various capacities during which she has had a stint in virtually every area of central banking.
(a) Mohan Rakesh (b) Subir Gokarn
(c) Usha Thorat (d) Shyamala Gopinath
(e) None of these
9. Name the person who has been honoured with the prestigious 2010 Intel Environment Award for his efforts to solve global safe drinking water and sanitation crises.
(a) Subir Bhomick (b) Rajesh Shah
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna (d) Chandi Prasad
(e) None of these
10. The three-day India Economic Summit, organized by the Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF), November 14-17 was held in
(a) New Delhi (b) Geneva
(c) Washington (d) Brussels
(e) None of these
11. Name Myanmar’s celebrated pro-democracy leader and a political prisoner of global stature who was set free from house arrest in Yangon.
(a) Ne Win (b) San Yu
(c) Maung Maung (d) Than Shwe
(e) None of these
12. The 10th Russia-India-China (RIC) meeting was held in
(a) Guilin (China) (b) Beijing (China)
(c) Bangalore (India) (d) Wuhan (China)
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following has been removed from the United Nations list of unresolved disputes, in a setback to Pakistan which has been asking the world body to intervene on the issue?
(a) Siachin (b) Sir Creek
(c) Baglihar dam (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(e) None of these
14. Which of the following has not been conferred Maharatna status by the Central government?
(a) ONGC (b) IOC
(c) NTPC (d) SAIL
(e) Railways
15. Who has been re-appointed as the prime minister of France?
(a) Dominique de Villepin (b) Jean-Perre Raffarin
(c) Francois Fillon (d) Lionel Jospin
(e) None of these
16. Who among the following became the first enlisted Sikh soldier in the US Army in more than two decades to complete basis training after getting a rare religious exemption for his turban and beard because the military requires his language skills?
(a) Kamaljeet Singh Kalsi (b) Tejdeep Singh Rattan
(c) Bob Singh Dhillon (d) Simran Preet Singh Lamba
(e) None of these
17. Ending weeks of opposition to a European Union bailout, heavily-indebted –has agreed finally with the EU and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on a multi-billion euro rescue package to avert bankruptcy. It will be the first country to receive financial support from the euro 750-billion (nearly trillion dollars) financial safety net, spread by the EU and the IMF six months ago, to help euro zone nations facing liquidity crisis.
(a) Ireland (b) Spain
(c) Argentina (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
18. Sonal Mansingh is associated with
(a) Painting (b) Theatre
(c) Dance (d) Sports
(e) None of these
19. Who has won the Indian Open golf title recently?
(a) Baek Seuk-Hyun (b) Rikard Karlberg
(c) Manar Jaini (d) Shiv Kapur
(e) None of these
20. Serbia has won the Davis Cup title by defeating
(a) France (b) US
(c) Switzerland (d) Sweden
(e) None of these
21. Who has been crewned Miss Earth Talent 2010 after beating 17 other contestants at a talent competition in Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam?
(a) Jennifer Pazmino (b) Watsaporn Wattanakoon
(c) Yeidy Bosquez (d) Nicole Faria
(e) None of these
22. Who won the 21st Lal Bahadur Shastri hockey tournament?
(a) ONGC (b) Indian Oil
(c) Air India (d) Indian Railways
(e) None of these
23. Which country has recently won the ICC Inter Continental Cup in Dubai?
(a) Kenya (b) Scotland
(c) Afghanistan (d) China
(e) None of these
24. World leaders from 193 countries signed a new global climate regime on Dec 11 called
(a) Cancun Agreement (b) Kyoto Agreement
(c) Copenhagen Agreement (d) London Agreement
(e) None of these
25. Mobile banking is set to get a boost form IMPS, which stands for
(a) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment Service
(b) Inter-Bank Money Payment Service
(c) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(d) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(e) None of these
26. With the aim of giving a fillip to development schemes in tribal and backward regions, mostly affected by Naxal violence, the Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs (CCEA) has approved the commencement of an Integrated Action Plan (IAP) in
(a) 20 districts (b) 40 districts
(c) 60 districts (d) 100 districts
(e) None of these
27. Name of the animal rights crusader who was presented the shining World Compassion Award along with a cheque for 20,000 dollars from Supreme Master Ching Hai International Association.
(a) Vandana Shiva (b) Sunita Narain
(c) Maneka Gandhi (d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(e) None of these
28. Name the founder of the whistleblower website Wikileaks.
(a) Julin Assange (b) Navi Pillay
(c) Phillip Adams (d) BenLaurie
(e) None of these
29. Name the country’s only government award for an environmental film.
(a) Vasudha Award (b) Vasundhara Award
(c) Vaishali Award (d) Vriksha Mistra Award
(e) None of these
30. The controversial UDRS system used in cricket is
(a) Universal Decision Review System
(b) Unified Decision Review System
(c) Umpire Decision Review System
(d) Unmanned Decision Review System
(e) None of these
31. Which of the following is anti-corruption watchdog?
(a) WTO (b) Transparency International
(c) UN Security Council (d) Wikileaks
(e) None of these
32. Who among the following has been appointed as the new director of the Central Bureau of investigation watchdog?
(a) Ashwani Kumar (b) Amar Pratap Singh
(c) DP Kohli (d) VS Tiwari
(e) None of these
33. Who is the author of the book Yes, We Can!?
(a) M Karunanidhi (b) Dr Ramadoss
(c) Vaiko (d) MK Azhagiri
(e) None of these
34. Who is the author of the book A Rainbow in the Night?
(a) Jim Corbett (b) George Orwell
(c) Riduard Lo[;omg (d) Dominique Lapierre
(e) None of these
35. Which country will host the FIFA World Cup in 2018?
(a) England (b) Spain
(c) Portugal (d) Belgium
(e) None of these
36. Name the film which is an Indo-Bangladesh joint production and has bagged the coveted Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film at the 41st International Film Festival of India (IFFI) 2010.
(a) Moner Manush (b) Bilet Pherat
(c) Andhare Lao (d) Neel Akasher Neechey
(e) None of these
37. Beighton Cup is associated with
(a) Football (b) Cricket
(c) Badminton (d) Hockey
(e) None of these
38. Name the tiny the energy-rich gulf Arab country that has been picked to host the FIFA 2022 World Cup.
(a) UAE (b) Oman
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Qatar
(e) None of these
39. World Disabled Day is observed on
(a) 1 December (b) 2 December
(c) 3 December (d) 4 December
(e) None of these
40. Name the concept introduced by the UPA govt through an Act in 2008 for imparting speedy justice to rural population.
(a) Gram Nyayalayas (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Nyaya Sabha (d) Gram Sabha
(e) None of these
41. Name the son of the late Andhra chief minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy who resigned form the Kadapa Lok Sabha constituency and Congress recently.
(a) K Rossiah (b) YS Jaganmohan
(c) Kiran Reddy (d) Gopal Rao
(e) None of these
42. What is Wikileaks?
(a) A spy agency (b) A terrorist organization
(c) A whistle-blowing website (d) A hackers, group
(e) None of these
43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) IDBI Bank – RBI (b) ULIP—SEBI
(c) Pension – PFRDA (d) Insurance—IRDA
(e) Mutual Fund – PFRDA
44. Which of the following is not an instrument of capital market?
(a) Share (b) Bond
(c) Debenture (d) Repo
(e) All the above
45. Lemuam rimmer David R udisha and Croatian high jump star Blanka Vlasic were named male and female athletes of the year respectively by the
(a) IAAF (b) World Athletic Organisation
(c) European Athletic Organisation (d) World Athletic Federation
(e) None of these
46. Which of the following is the last book of VS Naipaul?
(a) A House for Mr Biswas (b) The Masque of Africa
(c) India: A Wounded Civilization (d) India: A Million Mutinies Now
(e) None of these
47. Who among the following is not an economist?
(a) Bhagwati Prasad (b) Suresh Tendulkar
(c) Kaushik Basu (d) Vandana Shiva
(e) All the above
48. Name the chief minister of Andhra Pradesh who resigned recently.
(a) YS Jaganmohan (b) YV Reddy
(c) Janardhan Reddy (d) K Rosaiah
(e) None of these
49. Nallari Kiran Kumar Reddy has been appointed as the Chief Minister of
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of these
50. Who has been conferred Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2010?
(a) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (b) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) Bingu Wa Mutharika
(e) None of these

ENGLISH

Directions (Q. 51-64): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
July 15, 2010 turned out to be a historic day, as the Indian Rupee got the much-awaited symbol, just like other leading currencies of the world, viz Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling and the Yen. The new symbol Rs. is an amalgamation of Devanagari “Ra” and the Roman “R” without the stem. Till now, the Rupee was written in various abbreviated forms in different languages.
The new symbol designed by IIT Bombay postgraduate Shri D Udaya Kumar was approved by the Union Cabinet on July 15. “It’s a big statement on the Indian currency… The symbol would lend a distinctive character and identity to the currency and further highlight the strength and global face of the Indian economy,” said Information and Broadcasting Minister Smt Ambika Soni, while briefing the media on the Cabinet decision.
The new symbol will not be printed or embossed on currency notes or coins, but it would be included in the “Unicode Standard” to ensure that it is easily displayed and printed in the electronic and print media. The encoding of the rupee symbol in the Indian Standards is estimated to take about six months while encoding in the Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646 will take about 18 months to two years. It will also be incorporated in software packages and keyboards for use in India.
On March 5, 2009 the Government announced a contest to create a symbol for the Rupee, inviting entries for the symbol, which would reflect and capture the Indian ethos and culture. Over 3000 entries were received, which were evaluated by a jury headed by the Deputy Governor, RBI, which also included experts from three reputed art and design institutes. The Jury selected five entries and also gave its evaluation of these five entries to the Government to take a final decision.
Shri Udaya Kumar’s entry was the ‘Best of Five”. He will get an award of Rs. 2.5 lakh and more than that an incredible fame, as the designer of the Rupee symbol. “My design is a perfect blend of Indian and Roman letters – capital ‘R’ and Devanagri ‘Ra’ which represents rupaiah, to appeal to international and Indian audiences… It is based on the tricolour, with two lines at the top and white space in between,” a visibly-happy Kumar said.
The genesis of the word ‘rupee’ is in the Sanskrit word ‘raupya’ which means silver. Indian Rupee is variously called ‘rupaya’ in Hindi, ‘rupiya’ in Gujarati, ‘roopayi’ in Telugu and Kannada, ‘rubai’ in Tamil and ‘rupyakam’ in Sanskrit. However in Eastern India it is called ‘Taka/Toka’ in Bengali and Assamese and ‘Tanka’ in Oriya.
India stands among the earliest to issue coin, and as a result it has seen a wide range of monetary units throughout its history. There is some historical evidence to show that coins may have been introduced the first time some time between 2500 and 1750 BC.
51. Who is the Union Information and Broadcasting Minister?
(a) Smt Sushma Swaraj (b) Smt Meera Kumar
(c) Smt Pratibha Devisingh Patil (d) Smt Ambika Soni
(e) None of these
52. What is the importance of 15 July in the history of Indian rupee?
(a) The new Rupee symbol replaced the old.
(b) The international community approved the Rupee symbol.
(c) The Cabinet approved the much-awaited Rupee symbol.
(d) Both (1) and (3).
(e) None of these
53. Which of the following countries has a currency symbol?
(a) China (b) France
(c) Singapore (d) Germany
(e) Not mentioned in the passage
54. Who has designed the newly approved Rupee symbol?
(a) A teacher posted at IIT Bombay (b) Mr Uday Kumar of Maharashtra
(c) Mr D Uday Kumar, a postgraduate
(d) Information and Broadcasting Minister
(e) None of these
55. The new design ‘Rs.’ finds its origin in
(a) Devanagari (b) Roman
(c) Devanagari and Sanskrit (d) Devanagari and Roman
(e) None of these
56. What is the importance of the new Rupee symbol?
(a) It highlights the strength of the Indian economy.
(b) Now Indian rupee gets value like Dollar, Pound, Euro Yen.
(c) Now most of the foreign countries will maintain their foreign exchange reserves in Rupee.
(d) Now it will be a fully convertible currency.
(e) None of these
57. Where is the genesis of the term ‘rupee’?
(a) It has been derived from Sanskrit word ‘Raupya’.
(b) It finds its origin in the term ‘Rupaya’ of Hindi.
(c) ‘Rupiyo’ in Gujarati
(d) ‘Roopayi’ in Tamil and Kannada
(e) None of these
58. What does ‘Raupya’ mean in Sanskrit?
(a) Gold (b) Diamond
(c) Silver (d) Bronze
(e) None of these
59. What is Rupee called in Oriya?
(a) Taka (b) Toka
(c) Rupyakam (d) Tanka
(e) None of these
60. When was the first coin introduced?
(a) Between 250 and 750 BC (b) Between 2500 and 1750 AD
(c) Between 250 and 759 AD (d) Between 2500 and 1750 BC
(e) None of these
61. When was the process to develop a new rupee symbol initiated?
(a) 15 July 2010 (b) 5 June 2009
(c) 5 March 2009 (d) 31 January 2010
(e) None of these
62. Which among the following methods did the Government adopt to get the new symbol?
(a) All the leading artists were asked to design.
(b) A contest was announced for the purpose.
(c) The contestants were interviewed.
(d) The governor of RBI was asked to decide the process.
(e) None of these
63. What do the two lines of the design mean?
(a) They reflect the federal structure of the govt.
(b) They reflect the mixed structure of Indian economy.
(c) They reflect the new liberalized Indian economy.
(d) They reflect the tri-colour India flag.
(e) None of these
64. How many designs were sent to the Government for approval?
(a) 3000 (b) 2000
(c) 10 out of 3000 (d) 5 out of more than 3000
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 65-74): Read each sentence carefully and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case of ‘No error’, 5 will be the answer.
65. (1) To hit a man/(2) when he is down/(3) is a contemptuous/(4) thing to do./(5) No error
66. (1) The climate on this/(2) altitude is cool and dry/(3) but down in the valley/(4) it is very sultry./(5) No error
67. (1) Since her mother/(2) died when she/(3) was young/(4) she did lack maternal care./(5) No error
68. (1) In 1665 a/(2) great pestilence caused/(3) the death of 63000 persons/(4) in the city of London./(5) No error
69. (1) Because of his/(2) lack of interest in the/(3) affairs of the society, the members/(4) decided to depose the president./(5) No error.
70. (1) In the last three/(2) years Rohan has managed/(3) to obtain for him thousands/(4) of foreign stamps./(5) No error.
71. (1) We watched the/(2) aeroplane until it/(3) disappeared, surrounded/(4) complete by clouds./(5) No error
72. (1) Before the police could/(2) seize on the way the thief/(3) escaped across the/(4) river into the forest./(5) No error
73. (1) If you leave/(2) now, you will have/(3) plenty time to reach/(4) the city by noon./(5) No error
74. (1) According to/(2) present-day opinion, action/(3) must be taken long/(4) ago to preserve forests./(5) No error
Directions (Q. 75-79): Rearrange the sentences given below in a way which would make an appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.
i. In most of the tourist destinations of the valley, the somber environs greet the visitor.
ii. But the turmoil has restricted most of the pilgrims only to visit the Amarnath Shrine.
iii. Besides, most of the Amarnath Yatris too used to visit the valley’s tourist spots after their pilgrimage to the holy Amarnath cave shrine.
iv. The tourism industry was expecting a booming business this summer.
v. But the unrest has dashed the hopes of those associated with this industry, the mainstay of Kashmir’s economy.
vi. The industry was expecting at least ten lakh visitors this season.
75. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’?
(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v
76. After rearrangement which will be the ‘SECOND’ one?
(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v
77. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FOURTH’ one?
(a) v (b) vi (c) iv (d) iii (e) i
78. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FIFTH’ one?
(a) ii (b) iii (c) iv (d) v (e) vi
79. After rearrangement which will be the ‘LAST’ one?
(a) vi (b) v (c) iv (d) ii (e) i
Directions (80-89): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
An increase in repo and reverse repo 80 borrowing and lending cost 81 banks will 82. This 83 ideally lead to overall increase in interest rates like credit, deposit etc. The higher interest will in turn 84 to lower demand and thereby lower 85. This is 86 monetary transmission process. However, this 87 may not work 88 and pose 89 problems for a central bank.
80. (a) says (b) reflects
(c) relates (d) implies
(e) None of these
81. (a) of (b) for
(c) to (d) by
(e) None of these
82. (a) diminish (b) decrease
(c) increase (d) stable
(e) None of these
83. (a) do (b) could
(c) should (d) can
(e) None of these
84. (a) lead (b) come
(c) result (d) go
(e) None of these
85. (a) recession (b) deflation
(c) inflation (d) stagflation
(e) None of these
86. (a) known (b) called
(c) told (d) said
(e) None of these
87. (a) route (b) step
(c) application (d) process
(e) None of these
88. (a) suitable (b) appropriate
(c) perfectly (d) systematic
(e) None of these
89. (a) further (b) many
(c) several (d) different
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 90-94): Fill up the blanks with the most suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.
90. We’re late. The film ——— have already started by the time we ——– the cinema hall.
(a) shall, arrive (b) would, reach
(c) will, get to (d) should, approach
(e) may, go
91. The fire spread through the building ——– but everybody was ——– escape.
(a) fast, enable to (b) instant, managed to
(c) quick, able (d) immediately, safe
(e) quickly, able to
92. I am thinking ——– a house; ——– you think that’s a good idea?
(a) buying, what (b) of buying, do
(c) taking, what (d) for, will
(e) of, do
93. I am tired. I’d rather ——– out this evening, if you don’t ——– .
(a) go, feel (b) not, accompany
(c) not be, worry (d) never go, annoy
(e) not go, mind
94. I must ——– now. I promised not ——– late.
(a) leave, being (b) reach, of being
(c) go, to be (d) do it, for being
(e) get in, of been
Directions (Q. 95-100): Replace the word/words given in bold by one of the given options to make the sentence correct and meaningful. In case of ‘no correction Required’ (NCR), 5 will be the answer.
95. It was not long for I discovered that he could neither read nor write.
(a) long before (b) long since
(c) longer than (d) long then
(e) No correction required
96. The death toll in the train accident went to six hundred.
(a) increased to (b) rose to
(c) spread to (d) counted to
(e) No correction required
97. While walking on the road, a dog bit one man.
(a) a dog had bitted a man (b) the man was dogged
(c) a dog did bit a man (d) the man was bitten by a dog
(e) No correction required
98. He promised that he will deliver the letter within two days.
(a) will must deliver (b) would deliver
(c) will be delivering (d) will have delivered
(e) No correction required
99. The negotiations faced a doldrums with neither side ready to move even an inch.
(a) a hanger (b) a crisis
(c) a hold (d) an abortion
(e) No correction required
100. I started early so that I may cover the maximum of distance before even mid-day.
(a) I would (b) I shall
(c) I did (d) I could
(e) No correction required

ANSWER THESE QUESTION
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B A E D A C B A11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20E D D E C D A C B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30D C C A A C C A A C31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B C D E A D D C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C B D A B D D B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D C E C D A A C D D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B D D E A D E E C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C E C D E B B D D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C C A C B D C A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
E B E C A A D B B D


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