I am providing you the sample question paper of UPSC Combined Medical Services CMS Exam

UPSC CMS Exam question paper

Medical Science Paper I

1. A patient with small cell lung carcinoma has symptomatic hyponatraemia (serum sodium
127 mmol/ L). The most likely etiology is:
(a) Fanconi Syndrome
(b) Cushing’s Syndrome
(c) Metabolic Syndrome
(d) Syndrome of inappropriate ADH
2. Regarding Gilbert’s syndrome, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Jaundice becomes severe with time.
(b) Hyperbilirubinemia increases after fasting.
(c) Inheritance of disease is autosomal dominant.
(d) Liver histology is normal.
3. Which of the following is an uncommon cause of autonomic dysfunction?
(a) G B S (Guillain Barre Syndrome).
(b) Porphyria.
(c) Diabetic neuropathy.
(d) Neuropathy associated with Vitamin B12deficiency.
4. Peripheral Eosinophilia is not a characteristic feature of:
(a) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis.
(b) Allergic aspergillosis.
(c) Tropical eosinophilia.
(d) Loeffler’s syndrome.
5. Salicylate intoxication inadults usually causes:
1. Severe respiratory alkalosis.
2. Mixed metabolic acidosisrespiratory alkalosis.
3. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. With reference to psoriatic arthritis, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In 70 – 80% patients psoriasis precedes arthritis.
(b) Distribution of arthritis is mainly asymmetrical.
(c) Involvement of PIP joints is more than DIP joints.
(d) Cup like erosions are seen on X ray.
7. Consider the following statements regarding rheumatic heart disease:
1. Rheumatic carditis is a pancarditis. 2. Carey–Coombs murmur is a delayed systolic murmur heard during the course
of acute rheumatic fever.
3. Mitral regurgitation is the most common manifestation of acute rheumatic
carditis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3
8. The extra cellular fluid deficit in a comatose patient of diabetic ketoacidosis is replenished
by:
(a) 0.9 % NaCl
(b) 3 % NaCl
(c) 5 % Dextrose
(d) Ringer’s lactate
9. Which one of the following is notassociated with a high reticulocyte count?
(a) Acute bleed
(b) Haemolytic anaemia
(c) Megaloblastic anaemia
(d) Response to treatment in ‘nutrition – deficiency’ anaemia
10. What happens when normal erythrocytes (blood – group matched) are transfused into a
patient with anaemia secondary to an intracorpuscular defect?
(a) Donor cells are destroyed.
(b) Donor cells have normal survival.
(c) Depends on the severity of anaemia.
(d) Depends on whether the donor cells are fresh or stored (older than a week).

11. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase is seen in all except:
(a) Osteoporosis
(b) Osteomalacia
(c) Paget’s disease of bone
(d) Cholestatic jaundice
12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Uraemic acidosis - Haemodialysis
(b) Methanol intoxication - Ethanol
(c) Hyperosmolar coma - Intravenous fluids
(d) Starvation ketosis - Glucagon
13. In a young epileptic woman wishing to use oral contraceptive agents, which of the
following drugs is not an ideal agent?
(a) Carbamazepine
(b) Sodium valproate
(c) Topiramate
(d) Ethosuximide
14. Which of the following is not true about alcoholic cirrhosis?
(a) On many occasions alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic cirrhosis coexist.
(b) Concomitant HIV infection accelerates it.
(c) Starts with macronodular and later on changes to micronodular cirrhosis.
(d) 10 – 40 % remains clinically silent.
15. Cardiac arrest may be due to all of the following except:
(a) Ventricular fibrillation
(b) Atrial fibrillation
(c) Acute myocardial infarction
(d) Pulmonary embolism
16. Which of the following is not useful in the management of status epilepticus?
(a) Lorazepam
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Phenobarbitone
(d) Carbamazepine
17. The following are indications for renal replacement in ARF except:
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Fluid overload
(c) Uraemic pericarditis
(d) Metabolic alkalosis
18. Biphasic defibrillation in case of ventricular fibrillation is first done with:
(a) 200 Joules
(b) 250 Joules
(c) 300 Joules
(d) 360 Joules
19. Gastric erosions are likely to be associated with the following conditions except:
(a) Pernicious anaemia
(b) Cor pulmonale
(c) Polycythemia rubra vera
(d) Hepatic cirrhosis
20. Wegener’s granulomatosis is characterized by all of the following except:
(a) Vasculitis of respiratory tract
(b) Granulomatous uveitis
(c) Granulomatous hepatitis
(d) Glomeralonephritis
21. An 11 year old boy has elevated prothrombin and activated partial prothrombin time .
What is the most likely defect?
(a) Defect in extrinsic pathway
(b) Defect in intrinsic pathway
(c) Defect in common pathway
(d) Defect in platelet function
22. The radiological findings in chest X ray in sarcoidosis includes the following except:
(a) Bilateral symmetrical lymphadenopathy on chest X ray is commonly seen.
(b) Upper lobe involvement is more than that of lower lobe.
(c) Egg shell calcification is seen on X ray.
(d) Pleural effusion is a common finding.
23. Acute rheumatic fever is caused by:
(a) Coagulase negative staphylococcus
(b) Streptococcus pneumonia
(c) Group A streptococcus
(d) Group D streptococcus
24. Which of the following is not a complication of peptic ulcer?
(a) Gastric outlet obstruction
(b) Perforation
(c) Indigestion
(d) Bleeding

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