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Old April 24th, 2015, 08:59 AM
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Default Sri Ramachandra University Entrance Exam Papers

I would like get into the MBBS course of Sri Ramachandra University. Will you please share the MBBS entrance exam question paper of Sri Ramachandra University?
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Old April 24th, 2015, 02:52 PM
Garima Chauhan
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Join Date: Mar 2012
Posts: 33,070
Default Re: Sri Ramachandra University Entrance Exam Papers

Sri Ramachandra University conducts the Entrance exam for admission in MBBS. The entrance exam contains following sections.

Physics - 45 Qs
Chemistry - 45 Qs
Biology (Botany & Zoology) - 90 Qs
Total - 180 Qs

Here, I am giving you sample paper for the exam.

1. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow in the portal vein. Portal flow is maximally reduced by –
A. ether
B. halothane
C. isoflurane
D. enflurane
Ans: b.

2. A young boy has sickle cell trait. Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
A. IV regional anaesthesia
B. Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
C. Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach
D. Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
Ans: a.

3. Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia –
A. Procaine
B. Prilocaine
C. Etiodicaine
D. Ropivacaine
Ans: b.


4. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all except:
A. Cricothyroid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Hyoepiglottie
D. Cricotracheal
Ans: A.

5. Paneth cells – true is
A. Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. High zine content
C. Foamy cytoplasm
D. Numerous lysozyme granules
Ans: A.

6. True about prostatic urethra are all except:
A. Trapezoid in cross section
B. Presence of verumontanum
C. Openings of prostatic ducts
D. Contains urethral crest
Ans: A.

7. Cranial nerve not carrying parasympathetic fibres
A. Fourth
B. Seventh
C. Third
D. Ninth
Ans: A.

8. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of
A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
B. Palatine division of maxillary nerve
C. Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve
D. Inferior alveolar nerve
Ans is none

9. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?
A. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of the patella
B. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
C. Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medical border of patella
D. No change in position
Ans: b.

10. Coeliac plexus is located
A. Anterolateral & around the aorta
B. Posterolateral & around the aorta
C. Anteromedical to lumbar sympathetic chain
D. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
Ans: c.

11. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except:
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Interior of nasal cavity
C. Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
D. Ethmoidal air cells
Ans: d.

12. Appendix epiploicae present in
A. Appendix
b. Caecum
C. Rectum
D. Sigmoid colon
Ans: a.

13. All of the following muscles retract the scapula except:
A. Trapezius
B. Rhomboid major
C. Rhomboid minor
D. Levator scapulae
Ans: d.

14. The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
A. smell
B. taste
C. Touch
D. Balance
Ans: d.

15. Pain insensitive structure in brain is:
A. Falx cerebri
B. Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
C. Middle meningeal artery
D. Choroid plexus
Ans: d.

16. Which is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic nerves?
A. rectum
B. urinary bladder
C. appendix
D. Uterus
Ans: c.


17. Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all except:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Triglycerides
C. Lecithin
D. Cholesterol
Ans: b.

18. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except:
A. glucose
B. fatty acids
C. cholesterol
D. ketone bodies
Ans: a.

19. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
A. phenyketonuria
B. alkaptonuria
C. tyrosinemia type-2
D. argininosuccinic aciduria
Ans: b.

20. After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transporters reduced in
A. brain cells
C. adipocytes
D. hepatocytes
Ans: c.

21. Splicing activity is a function of:
B. snRNA
Ans: b.

22. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by:
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA topoisomerase
D. DNA gyrase
Ans: b.

23. True about sickle cells are all, except:
A. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine
B. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a non polar residue with a polar residue
C. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
D. RFLP results from a single base change
Ans: b.


24. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
A. Cochlear aqueduct
B. Endolymphatic sac
C. Vestibular aqueduct
D. Hyrtle fissure
Ans: a.

25. Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A. Ethmoidal sinuses
B. Maxillary sinuses
C. Frontal sinuses
D. Tegmen tympani
Ans: a.

26. Endolymph in the inner ear:
A. Is a filterate of blood serum
B. Is secreted by stria vascularis
C. Is secreted by basilar membrane
D. Is secreted by hair cells
Ans: b.

27. Bell’s palsy patient comes on day 3. treatment given would be:
A. Intratympanic steroids
B. Oral steroids + vitamin B
C. Oral steroids + Acyclovir
D. Vitamin B + vasodilators
Ans: c.


28. Heat rupture is characterized by
A. irregular margin
B. Clotted blood
C. regular margin
D. clotted blood vessels
Ans: d.

29. Motorcyclist fracture among the following is
A. ring facture
B. sutural separation
C. comminuted fracture of vault of skull
D. Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
Ans: d.

30. A child brought with suspected ingestion, presented with dry mouth, dilated pupil, difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin, the substance is:
A. Anti-cholinergic
B. Sympathetic
C. Cholinergic
D. Alpha-blocker
Ans: a.

31. Incisional wound on genital is seen commonly in:
A. accidents
B. Suicides
C. Homicides
D. Postmortem artifact
Ans: c.

32. Destructive power of bullet is determined by:
A. weight of bullet
B. shape of bullet
C. Size of bullet
D. velocity of bullet
Ans: d.


33. Causes of primary amenorrhea are all except –
A. Rokitansky syndrome
B. Sheehan syndrome
C. Kollman syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Ans: b.

34. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be –
A. Galactorrhoea
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Loss of menstruation
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans: c.

35. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
A. Phosphatidylesterase
B. Acetyl cholinesterase
C. Pseudocholine esterase
D. Butyrylcholine esterase
Ans: b.

36. A 35 yr old P 3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be –
A. Cryosurgery
B. Conization
D. Hysterectomy
Ans: c.

37. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non-complaint. Baby was born with hydrocephalous and intracerebral calcification. Which of the these is likely cause?
A. Toxoplasmosis
C. Cryptococcus
D. Rubella
Ans: a.

38. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
A. Tranexamic acid
B. Ethamylate
C. Combined OCP
D. Progesterone
Ans: b.

39. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are all except:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Sulphasalazine
C. Methotrexate
D. Hydroxychloroquine
Ans: c.

40. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except –
A. Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins
B. Mentoanterior
C. Extended breech
D. Dichorionic twins with first vertex & second breech
Ans: a.

41. A lady undergoes total radical hysterectomy for stage Ib Ca cervix. It was found that Ca extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix. Next step of management will be –
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemoradiation
D. Follow-up
Ans: d.

42. A 35 yr old woman presents with primary infertility & palpable pelvic mass. Her CA-125 level is 0 U/ml. Diagnosis is –
A. Ovarian Ca
B. Endometrioma
C. Tuberculosis
D. Borderline ovarian tumor
Ans: b.

43. Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers is:
A. Barrier method
B. Combined OCP
C. Lactational amenorrhea
D. Progesterone only pill
Ans: c.

44. Test for ovarian reserve –
B. LH/FSH ratio
D. Estradiol
Ans: c.

45. At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated?
A. 34 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 38 weeks
D. 40 weeks
Ans: c.

46. Clomphene citrate – True statement is –
A. Enclomiphene is anti-estrogenic
B. Increases pregnancy rate 3 times as compared to placebo
C. Incidence of twin pregnancy is 5-6%
D. It has been shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in randomized controlled trials
Ans: a.

47. Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to –
A. back to thigh
B. gluteal region
C. anterior surface of thigh
D. medial surface of thigh
Ans: d.

48. All are seen in gestational diabetes except –
A. Previous macrosomic baby
B. Obesity
C. Malformations
D. Polyhydramnios
Ans: c.


49. Radiological features of left ventricular heart failure are all, except:
A. kerly B lines
B. cardiomegaly
C. oligenic lung fields
D. increased flow in upper lobe veins
Ans: c.

50. Which is the most common childhood CNS tumor to metastasize outside brain?
A. ependymoma
B. glioblastoma multiforme
C. choroids plexus tumor
D. medulloblastoma
Ans: d.

51. Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects –
A. Post-capillary venules
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Medium-zised arteries
Ans: a.

52. Hyperextensibility with normal elastic recoil is a feature of –
A. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
B. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
C. Cutis laxa
D. Scleroderma
Ans: a.

53. Which of the following about artherosclerosis is true?
A. Intake of PUFA associated with decreased risk
B. Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta involvement
C. Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
D. Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se
Ans: a.

54. A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG. Fasted way of shifting potassium intracellularly is –
A. calcium gluconate IV
B. oral resins
C. insulin + glucose
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Ans: c.

55. Features of hypocalcemia are A/E –
A. numbness & tingling
B. circumoral & paresthesis
C. depressed tendon reflexes
D. skin irritability & sensitivity
Ans: c.

56. A young man back from leisure tri has swollen knee joints & foreign body sensation in eyes. Likely cause is –
A. reiter’s syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Behcet’s disease
Ans: a.

57. Cause of vasodilatation in spider nevi –
A. estrogen
B. testosterone
C. Hepatotoxins
Ans: a.

58. A patient presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobins around the vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
D. parvovirus
Ans: b.

59. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature of all the following except –
A. Hepatic porphyria
B. Nieman pick disease
C. Von gierke’s disease
D. hurler syndrome
Ans: a.

60. Rapid infusion of insulin causes –
A. hyperkalemia
B. hypokalemia
C. hypernatremia
D. hyponatremia
Ans: b.

61. Digitalis toxicity enhanced by A/E –
A. renal failure
B. Hyperkalemia
C. hypercalcemia
D. hypomagnesemia
Ans: b.
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