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1. Inert gases do not- react with any other element because
(1) their outermost electron level is nIled with 8 electrons
(2) the pressure is not high enough
(3) the temperature is not high enough
(4) their nucleus is very small
2. Addition polymerization is often catalyzed by a chemical free radical. What is a
'free radical'?
(344)
(1) It is a chemical species with one or more unpaired electrons
(2) It is a chemical species with one or more double bonds
(3) It is a chemical species with all paired electrons
(4) It is a chemical species with all single bonds
3. During a chemical reaction, atomic number
(1) changes (2) rem runs same
(3) changes and then is restored (4) changes alternately
4. For a reaction, Rate"" k[AlIB]2, what factor will not change k?
(1) Raising temperature (2) Adding inhibitor
(3) Increasing [AI (4) Adding catalyst
5. A, nucleus of 92U238 gets converted into a 91 p234 nucleus. The particles emitted
during this decay are
(1) one a-particle and one positron
(2) one a-particle and one electron
(3) one a-particle and one antineutrino
(4) one a-particle and one neutrino
6. A 50.0 mL sample of a 6.0 M NaOH solution is diluted with 250 mL of water.
What is the final concentration of the diluted NaOH solution?
(1) 6.0 M (2) 3.0 M (3) 1.2 M (4) 1.0 M
7. When a neutral metal sphere IS charged by contact with a positively charged
glass rod, the sphere
(1) loses electrons (2) gains electrons
(3) loses protons (4) gains protons
8. Hydrogen and nitrogen react to fann ammonia according to the reaction, 3H2
+ N2~2NH3' If 4.0 moles of H2 with 2.0 mol of N2 are reacted, how do you know
this is a limiting reactant problem?
(344)
(1) Mass is conserved in the problem
(2) Moles are not conserved in the problem
(3) The masses of two reactants are given
(4) More than one of the above are correct
9. Consider the following two statements :
(AI If heat is added to a system, its temperature must increase
(B) If positive work is done by a system in a thermodynamic process, its volume
must increase
State which one of the following is correct
(1) Both A and B are correct
(3) B is correct and A is wrong
(2) A is correct and B is wrong
(4) Both A and B are wrong
10. The internal energy of an ideal gas decreases by the same amount as the work
done by the system
(I) the process must be adiabatic
(3) the process must be isobaric
(2) the process must be isothermal
(4) the temperature must increase
11. All matters in motion have a wave-like nature was said by
( I) Schrodinger (2) de Broglie (3) Planck (4) Thomson
12. A Carnat engine takes in 3000 kcal. Of heat from a reservoir at 627°C gives it
to a tank at 27°C. The work done by the engine is
(I) 4.2 x 106J (2) 8.4 x 106J (3) 16.8 x 106J (4) Zero
13. Visible light's wavelength ranges between
(I) 0.39-0.77 mm
(3) 0.39-0.77 nm
(2) 0.39-0. 77 ~m
(4) 0.39-0.77cm
14. A laser source gives light output of power P. If the wavelength of the laser is A,
the number of photons emitted in a time t in terms of the given parameters and
fundamental constants is
15.
(3441
(I) PAt/ hc
Although
(I) violet
(2) Phct/A (3) Pht/Ac (4) PA/ hc
sunlight contains all colors of light, the brightest color is
(2) blue-violet (3) yellow-green (4) orange
16. If an object is located between the focal point and a converging lens, the image
will be
(1) upside down (2) real
(3) larger than the object (4) smaller than the object
17. A simple astronomical telescope consists of
(1) several sets of lenses that focus an image on the eye
(2) a single lens that focuses an image on a piece of film
(3) a pair of converging lenses
(4) condenser lenses, prisms and a projection lens
18. The hydrogen bond is strongest in
(1) O-H ... S (2) 8-H ... O
19. The bonds present in N20 S are
(1) only ionic
(3) only covalent
20. A weak acid in solution is
(1) mostly molecules
(3) both molecules and ions
21. A magnifying glass is an example of a
(1) convex lens (2) concave lens
(3) F-H ... S (4) F-H. .. O
(2) covalent and coordinate
(4) covalent and ionic
(2) mostly ions
(4) less water
(3) prism (4) biconcave
22. When light rays travel at a critical angle through an object such as opueal fibre,
they are
(344)
(1) totally internally reflected
(3) termed 'critically angled'
4
(2) refracted out of the fibre
(4) totally externally reflected
23. Light is composed of waves and particles called
(1) electrons (2) quarks (3) photons (4) neu trons
24. How many electrons are required in the Qutennost shell of an element for it to
be stable?
(I) 6 (2) 2 (3) 8
25. Which of the following is a condensation reaction?
(I) Addition of H, 0 to a double bond
(4) 4
(2) Linking an acid and an alcohol to make an ester and water
(3) Addition of H to an alkene
{4} Oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde
26. The dose unit of ionizing radiation is called the rad. The rad is defined in terms of
(1) the half-life of a radioisotope
(2) the energy deposited per kilogram of an object
(3) the biological damage produced
{4} accumulation of fission products
27. A purified protein fraction containing buffer with salt can be desalted by one of
the following techniques
(1) Gel filtration chromatography
(3) Paper chromatography
(2) Affinity chrolllatography
(4) Thin layer chromatography
28. Assuming the developing solvent as n-butanol, water and acetic acidj predict the
relative order of paper chromatography Rr values for the amino acids in the
mixture containing Ser, Lys, Leu, Val, and Ala
(344)
(I) Ser, Lys, Ala, Val, Leu
(3) Lys, Ser, Leu, Ala, Val
5
(2) Ala, Val, Ser, Leu, Lys
(4) Ser, Leu, Val, Lys, Ala
29. A reaction is first order. If its initial rate is 0.0200 M/sec and 25.0 days later
its reaction is 6.25 x 10-4 m/sec, then its half-life is
(I) 12•5 days (2) 5•0 days (3) 25•0 days (4) 50•0 days
30. Photomultiplier tube (PMT) is a variation of the conventional
(I) photovoltaic cell
(2) phototube
(3) silicon photodiode
(4) combination of phototube and photovoltaic cell
31. Which of the following does not determine the rate of a reaction?
(I) Value of DELTA H" (2) Activation energy
(3) Presence of a catalyst (4) Temperature of reactants
32. The anion exchanger resin is conjugated with a group having
(I) negative charge
(2) positive charge
(3) equal number of negative and positive charges
(4) metal ions
33. The first life forms on earth were
(I) single-cellular (2) multi-cellular (4) plants (5) viruses
34. The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated
(344)
(1) how RNA could have been the frrst organic molecule
(2) that simple molecules could not have evolved spontaneously
(3) the kinds of molecules that could have been produced on the early earth
(4) that oxygen was required for the formation of molecules on early earth
35. wliich of the following organisms alive today is likely to be most similar to the
first life forms that evolved on the earth?
(1) Ethane-producing bacteria
(3) Algae
(2) Cyanobacteria
(4) Dinosaurs
36. Colors of light most useful in photosynthesis are
(I) green, yellow and orange
(3) infrared, red and yellow
(2) red, violet and blue
(4) red, white and blue
37. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the movement of electrons
during the light-dependent reactions of plants?
(II P680 a P700 a water a NADP+
(3) P700 a P680 it NADP\1. water
38. Which of the following is mismatched?
(1) PGA - a 3-carbon compound
(2) water a P700 it NADP+a P680
(4) water it P680 a P70D a NADP+
(2) Antenna complex - contains hundreds of pigment molecules
(3) CAM plants - open their stomata during the day and close them at night to
avoid photorespiration
(4) Photosystem I - uses the P700 molecule in its photocenter
39. Which instrument is best used to view the structure of viruses?
(1) Single-lens microscope (2) Confocal microscope
(3) Scanning electron microscope (4) Transmission electron microscope
40. Which of the following organisms is a primary consumer?
(I) An autotroph (2) A horse parasite
(3) An oak tree parasite (4) A wolf
41. Which of the following are producers?
(I) Termites (2) Algae (3) Bacteria (4) Grasshoppers
42. The process of converting nitrate to nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide is called
(1) nitrogen fIxation
(3) denitrification
43. Organisms in trophic level 3 are
(1) carnivores (2) herbivores
(2) ammonification
(4) eutrophication
(3) detrivores (4) producers
44. The nitrogenase complex converts N2 into NH4 + by the addition of electrons.
Which of the following is not true of this complex?
(1) It requires Fe-S protein
(2) Pyruvate is always the source of electrons
(3) It requires ATP
(4) It requires Mo-Fe protein
45. Which of the following is the proper summary equation for photosynthesis?
(I) C.H1,O. + CO, in the presence of light and chlorophyll yields H,O + 0,
(2) H,O + CO, in the presence of light and chlorophyll yields C.H1,O. + 0, + H,O
(3) H,O + CO, yields C.H1,O. + 0, + H,O
(4) CO, in the presence of light and chlorophyll yields C.H1,O. + 0,
46. If you wanted to retard the growth of a plant. then which color(s) of light would
you most likely use?
(I) Green only
(3) Green and purple
(344) 8
(2) Purple and red
(4) Yellow and green
12P/216/29
47. In plant cells, the organelles that conduct photosynthesis and the organelles that
conduct cellular respiration are the
(1) leucoplasts and mitochondria
(3) chloroplasts and mitochondria
(2) chromoplasts and leucoplasts
(4) chloroplasts and chromoplasts
48. The significance of a notochord in the evolution of chordates is that it
(1) provided an internal attachment point for muscles
(2) allowed for the development of a more complex nervous system
(3) eliminated the need for segmentation
(4) allowed the organism to grow larger
49. A radula is
(II a sharp structure that is injected into the prey of a mollusk
(2) a protective coating made of calcium carbonate on sponges
(3) a small, internal shell found in cephalopods
(4) a rasping, tongue-like organ in mollusks
50. Cnidarians project a nematocyst to capture their prey by
(1) ejecting it with a jet of water
(2) using a spring-like apparatus
(3) building up a high internal osmotic pressure
(4) coiling and releasing the tendrils on which the nematocysts are found





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