I am providing you the question paper of JIPMER PG Entrance Exam

JIPMER PG Entrance Exam question paper

1. In rupture of the bulbar urethra the urine is found to
extravasate into all of the following spaces except
a. The scrotum
b. Penis
c. Anterior abdominal wall
d. Ischerectal fossa
2. The anti diabetic drug which also has anorectic effect is
a. Glipizide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Gliclazide
d. Metformin
3. The intervertebral disc is related to all of the following
except
a. To the aorta anteriorly
b. To the 2nd lumbar nerve closely
c. The cauda equina of spinal cord
d. Is the site of origin of Psoas major
4. The ant diabetic drug which is considered aspost
prandial hyperglycaemic regulatoris
a. Rosiglitazone
b. Piaglitazone
c. Ripaglinide
d. Tolbutamide
5. The position of the hip in osteoarthritisis
a. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c. Extension, abduction and internalrotation
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
6. All of the following structures arise from the embryonic
ectoderm except
a. The anterior hypophysis cerebri
b. The epithelium of thyroid cartilage
c. Enamel of teeth
d. Epithelium lining the nasolacrimalduct
7. Stimulation of the region over the sartorius muscle over
the lower part of hunters canal would cause stimulation
of which muscle
a. Cremastric
b. Anal
c. Bulbocavernous
d. Iliopsoas
8. All of the following statements are true about Treacher
Collins syndrome except
a. It is inherited as autosomal dominant
b. The defect is due to neuronalmigration
disorder
c. It is sue to 3rd arch defect
d. It occurs due to terratogenic effect of
isotretenoic acid

9. The bronchial artery supplies the respiratory tract tillthe

a. Terminal bronchiole
b. Respiratory bronchiole
c. Tertiary bronchiole
d. Proximal bronchiole
10. The AV node is situated in the
a. The membranous portion ofintraventricular
septum
b. The muscular portion ofintraventricular
septum
c. Interatrial septum
d. Crista terminalis
11. The jugular foramen transmits all of the following
except
a. Superior petrosalsinus
b. Internal jugular vein
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Vagus nerve
12. The relationship between Inferior vena cava and
sympathetic trunkis
a. It is anterior to it
b. Lateral to it
c. Posterior to it
d. Medial to it
13. The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the
following views
a. Occipitobregmatic
b. Mentovertical
c. Fronto-occipital
d. Lateral view
14. Which of the following are true about the causation of
tetralogy of fallot
a. It is due to defect in formation ofmembranous
part of intraventricularseptum
b. Failure of fusion of conus medularis and
septumsecundum
c. Failure of fusion of septum primum with
septumsecundum

15. The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the
following views
a. Occipitobregmatic
b. Mentovertical
c. Fronto-occipital
d. Lateral view
16. The lymphatic drainage from the ovaries and rectum
drains into which of the following lymph nodes
a. Aortic
b. Aortic and common iliac
c. Aortic , common iliac and internaliliac
d. Aortic, common iliac, internal iliac and
inguinal

17. The position of the hip in osteoarthritisis
a. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c. Extension, abduction and internalrotation
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
18. The drug which causes ototoxity manifesting mainly as
vestibular component is
a. Gentamycin


b. Kanamycin
c. Amikacin
d. Natilimicin
19. There are many complications of CSOM. TheTobey
Ayer test is used to see for which of the following
complication
a. Cavernous sinusthrombosis
b. Cerebral abcess
c. Lateral sigmoid sinusthromosis
d. Petrositis
20. The extracellular fluid which contains increase
potassium and low sodium ions is
a. CSF
b. Ectolymph
c. Endolymph
d. Pleural fluid
e. Aryepiglottic folds
21. In bilateral abductor paralysis ofthe vocal cords the
voice described is
a. Mogiphonia
b. Phoneasthenia
c. Good or normal
d. Woody
22. The muscles supplied by the glossopharyngeal muscle
include all of the followingexcept
a. Constrictors of pharynx
b. Stylopharyngeus
c. Taste from circumvallate pappilae
d. Sensation from 1/3rd tongue
23. Most of the CNS tumors in children are present in
a. Supratentorial region
b. Extradural
c. Infratentorial region
d. Cauda equina
24. There is bulging of the endolymph sac in which of the
following diseases
a. Otospongiosis
b. Otosclerosis
c. Meniers disease
d. Otitis media
25. Tuberculosis most commonly involves which of the
following part of the larynx
a. Vocal cords
b. Subglottic region
c. Posterior commissure
d. Aryepiglottic folds
26. The hypopharynx includes all of the following except
a. Pyriformisfossa
b. Epiglottis
c. Post cricoid region
d. Valecula
27. All of the following are coccobacilli except
a. Bordatella
b. Brucella
c. Klebsiella
d. H.Infleunza
28. All of the following are true about vonWillibrands
disease except
a. Abnormal platelet count

b. Normal platelet
c. Decreased time on addition of ristocetin
d. Decreased coagulation to ADP
29. The most pathognomonic feature of a malignant lesion
is
a. Vascular invasion
b. Metastasis
c. Genetic mutation
d. Tissue markers
30. The nerve that supplies the pronator muscle of the distal
radioulnar joint is
a. Deep branch of radial nerve
b. Posterior interossius nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Ulnar nerve
31. Photostress test is done to test
a. Macula
b. Optic nerve
c. Refractive error
d. Optic tract
32. Laser iridotomy is done for
a. Buphthalmos
b. Primary angle closureglaucoma
c. Staphyloma
d. After cataract
33. The markers which differentiates between a highly
malignant cancer and a lymphoma is
a. Neuron specific enolase
b. Cytokeratin
c. Vimentin
d. Desmin
34. The enzyme which does not take part in DNA
replication is
a. Restriction endonuclease
b. Telomerases
c. Reverse transcriptase
35. The articular capsule is defective in which part of the IP
joint
a. Dorsum(posterior)
b. Ventral (anterior)
c. Lateral
d. Medial
36. In high myopia which of the following is seen
a. Retinal heamorhages
b. Papillitis
c. Chorioretinal degeneration
d. Uvietis
37. Hyperkalemia is seen in which of the following types of
renal tubular acidosis
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
38. Normal anion gap acidosis isseen
a. Lactic acidosis
b. Diarhrea
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
d. Glycol poisoning
39. Face to pubis is seen in which type ofpelvis



a. Android
b. Anthropoid
c. Gynecoid
d. Platepyloid
40. Thiamine is used in which of the following reactions
a. Pyruvate to oxalate
b. Pyruvate to acetyl coA
c. Succinate to Fumarate
d. Malonate to oxaloacetate
41. Which of the following amino acid is both polar and
ionic
a. Aspartate
b. Leucine
c. Glutamate
d. Arginine
42. The HLA III codes for
a. Taq proteins
b. Complement gene protein
c. Helper T cells
d. Diabetes Mellitus
43. Zafirulukast is a drug which has found use in asthmatic
patients it acts by
a. LOX inhibitor
b. Leukotrien receptor blocker
c. Newer phosphodiestraseinhibitor
d. Endothelin receptor blocker
44. Superior gluteal nerve supplies to all of the following
muscles except
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteusminimus
c. Iliotibial tract
d. Gluteusmaximus
45. Decarboxylation of which amino acid releases a
compound which has potent vasodilator effects
a. Aspartate
b. Arginine
c. Glutamate
d. Histidine
46. Ross position (used in tonsillectomy ) is used forwhich
of the following procedures
a. Tracheostomy
b. Bronchoscopy
c. Flexible esophagoscopy
d. Direct laryngoscopy
47. All of the following are used in monitoring use of
magnesium sulphate in eclampsia except
a. Respiratory rate
b. Deep tendon reflexes
c. Serum calciumlevels
d. Urine output
48. The drug used to treat a pregnant women with 20 week
gestation with blood pressure of 150/90 is
a. Enalapril
b. Furesemide
c. Hydralizine
d. Atenolol

49. All of the following are indications of trail oflabour
except
a. Young primi
b. Vertex anterior
c. Breech presentation
50. For brow presentation the engaging diameter is
a. Submentobregmatic
b. Mentovertical
c. Submento-occipital
d. Occipito-bregmatic
51. The drug which is added to pyramithamine in the
treatment of toxoplasma gondi infectionsis
a. Clindamycin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Amikacin
d. Vancomycin
52. In a HIV seropositive case all of the followingare
causes of diarrhea except
a. Isospora
b. Acanthameoba
c. Cryptospora
53. Deceased activity of osteoblasts is causedby
a. Parathormone
b. Vitamin D 3
c. Corticosterone
d. T3 and T4
54. Perineal support is to be given during labour to prevent
lacerations in which of the following conditions
a. Breech
b. Shoulder
c. Body
d. Leg
55. Frontal EEG showing slowed delta waves is seen. The
probable cause would be
a. Metabolic encephalopathy
b. Hypoxic encephalopathy
c. Raised intracranial pressure
d. Toxoplasma infection
56. In the mass prophylaxis in filariasis in India the drug
and the dosage preffered is
a. DEC 6mg/Kg for 1 day
b. DEC 6 mg/Kg for 12 days
c. Ivermectin 24 micro/Kg
d. Albendazole 400mg single dose
57. In AIDS defining illness, which of the following is not
included in the criteria
a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptosporidiasis
c. Multidermatomal herpes zoster
d. Recurrent salmonella septicaemia