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July 4th, 2014, 08:27 AM
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Last year question papers of All India Institute of Medical Sciences

Will you please give me the last year question papers of All India Institute of Medical Sciences as it is very urgent for me?
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July 5th, 2014, 09:10 AM
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Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: Last year question papers of All India Institute of Medical Sciences

As you want to get the last year question papers of All India Institute of Medical Sciences so here is the information of the same for you:

1. Acute infarct
2. Cardiac aneurysm
3. Benign tumour
4. Fibrinous clot in the chamber
Ans-4 -?
2. Condition promoting adipocere formation
1. Dry and hot
2. Hot and humid `
3. Dry & optimum
4. Moist & optimum
Ans-2 -?
3. Enlarged pulsating liver with ascites occurs in:
1. Mitral regurgitation
2. Tricuspid regurgitation
3. CCF
4. AR
4. In civil negligence, onus of proof is with
1. Judicial first degree magistrate
2. Police not below the level of sub inspector
3. Doctor
4. Patient
5. According to European laryngeal Society, Subligamentous cordectomy is classified as
1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type IV
6. The technique of laproscopic cholecystectomy was first described by?
1. Erich Muhe
2. Phillip Moure
3. Lanchenback
4. Eddie Reddick
7. Percutaneous vertebroplasty is indicated in all except
1. Tuberculosis
2. Metastasis
3. Osteoporosis
4. Hemangioma
8. Degrees awarded by Indian universities are mentioned in
1. Schedule I of MCI act
2. Schedule II of MCI act
3. Part 1 of schedule III
4. Part 2 of schedule III

9. During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Antero-lateral
10. A 30yr old lady P2L0 with menorrhagia. what is the treatment of choice
1. Mirena
2. Combined OCP`s
3. Trans cervical resection of endometria(TCRE)
4. Hysterectomy
11. Ideal Contraceptive for lactating women
1. POP
2. Barrier
3. Lactation amenorrhea
12. Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally
1. Barrier
2. OCP`s
4. Inj. DMPA
13. Ideal contraceptive for a newly married couple is
1. OCP
2. Barrier
4. Natural methods
14. Apo B48 & Apo B100 is synthesized in intestinal cells by
1. RNA splicing
2. Allelic exclusion
3. Uridine deletion
4. Upstream repression

15. Maximum postprandial contractility is seen in
1. Ascending colon
2. Descending colon
3. Sigmoid colon
4. Transverse colon
16. A man working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odor in breath & transverse Mees lines on nails. What is diagnosis
1. Arsenic poisoning
2. Lead poisoning
3. Mercury poisoning
4. Cadmium poisoning
17. Formication & delusion of persecution occurs together in abuse of
1. LSD
2. Cocaine
3. Canabis
4. Amphetamine
18. Incidence is determined by
1. Prospective study
2. Case control study
3. Cross sectional study
4. Retrospective study
19. A lactating woman has sputum positive TB. The neonate is 3 months old. What is the recommended chemoprophylaxis
1. INH 3mg/kg for 3 months
2. INH 5mg/kg for 3 months
3. INH 3mg/kg for 6 months
4. INH 5mg/kg for 6 months
20. Regarding ACE inhibitor which of the following is true
1. Inhibits Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
2. t 1/2 of Enalapril is more than Lisinopril
3. Omission of prior diuretic dose decreases the risk of postural hypotension
4. It is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction
21. A Patient with cystic fibrosis develops acute exacerbation of respiratory tract infection/pneumonia & admitted to hospital. Which of the following will be cultured
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa(non mucoid strain)
2. Burkholderia capecia
3. Aeromonas
4. Plesiomonas

22. Hyperkalemia with tall peaked waves on ECG. Fastest acting drug for lowering S. Potassium concentration
1. Calcium gluconate
2. Glucose plus insulin
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Calcium carbonate
23. Radiological features of L ventricular failure are all except
1. Kerley B lines
2. Cardiomegaly
3. Oligemic lung fields
4. Increased flow in Upper lobe veins
24. A 10 month old baby previously normal becomes unconscious on crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose was 30mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis
1. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
2. Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
3. Hyperinsulism
4. Cushings syndrome

25. In case of Renal cell carcinoma following are seen except
1. Polycythemia
2. Cushings syndrome
3. Malignant hypertention
4. Amyloidosis
26. CSF pressure primarily determined by ?
1. CSF production
2. CSF reabsorption
3. CNS blood flow
4. Blood pressure
27. Most important prognostic factor for colorectal carcinoma?
1. Tumor size & characteristics
2. Tumor site
3. LN status
4. Vascular invasion
28. Investigation Of Choice For Recurrent GIST ?
1. MRI
2. PET
3. USG
29. Which Is Not A Pure Beta Particle Emitter ?
1. Samarium 135
2. Strontium 89
3. Yttrium 90
4. Phosphorus 32

30. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora?
1. Pectin
2. Lignin
3. Starch
4. Glucose
31. Root of mesentery crossed by
1. Horizontal part of duodenum
2. Left gonadal vessels
3. Left ureter
4. Superior mesenteric artery

32. Histopathological features of fat necrosis in a new born closely resembles?
1. Steroid induced lipid necorsis
2. Lupoid necrosis
3. Erythema induratum
4. Lipodermatosclerosis
33.Gene duplication has the greatest role in the evolution of
1. mRNA
2. t RNA
3. hnRNA
4. ribosomal RNA
34. Laudanosine is a metabolite of
1. Cis-atracurum
2. Atracurium
3. Pancuronium
4. Succinylcholine
Ans-1 & 2 – ???

35. Which does not form border of triangle of auscultation
1. Trapezius
2. Scapula
3. Latissmus dorsi
4. Serratus anterior
36. 30yr woman presents with primary infertility and mass. CA 125 level 90u/L. what is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Ovarian ca
2. Borderline ovarian tumor
3. TB
4. Endometrioma
37. All are true about incontinentia pigmenti except?
1. X linked dominant disorder
2. 100% ophthalmic involvement
3. Skin pigmentation present

38. Ovarian reserve is measured by
1. LH
2. FSH
4. Estrogen
39. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by
3. Confocal microscopy
4. Electron microscopy

40. Muscle rigidity due to action of opioid on which of the following receptors?
1. mu
2. kappa
3. delta
4. lambda
41. Axillary neurovascular bundle sheath derived from?
1. Prevertebral fascia
2. Pretracheal fascia
3. Clavipectoral fascia
4. Axillary sheath
42. In a subclavian artery block at outer border of 1st rib, all of the following arteries help in maintining the circulation to upper limb except?
1. Subscapular artery
2. Superior thoracic artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Suprascapular artery
43. Spleen projects into folowing space of peritoneal cavity
1. Paracoloic gutter
2. Infracolic compartment
3. Left subhepatic space
4. Greater sac
44. Which of the following is a terminal group of Lymph node for colon
1. Paracoloc
2. Epicolic
3. Preaortic
4. Ileocolic
45. Triplet DNA is due to
1. Hoogsteen pairing
2. Palindromic sequences
3. Large no. of guanosine repeats
4. Polypyramidine tracts
Ans- 1
46. Which of the following may not worsen angina?
1. Dipyridamole
2. Sumatriptan
3. Oxyfedrine
4. Thyroxine
47. During arteriography dissection most commonly in?
1. Gastroduodenal artery
2. Coeliac trunk
3. Superior mesenteric artery
4. Inferior mesenteric artery
Ans – ?
48. A 7 day old baby was brought with respiratory distress and shock. Baby was discharged in a healthy state 2 days back. Diagnosis ?
1. Aortopulmonary window
2. Hypoplastic LV
3. Large VSD
4. Ebsteins anomaly
49. Healthy thinking is characterized by all except
A. Continuity
B. Constancy
C. Clarity
D. Organization
Ans -B
50. Blood supply of sternocleidomastoid muscle is from all except?
1. Post auricular artery
2. Occipital artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Superior thyroid artery
51. Reflex hallucinations occurs in?
1. Kinesthesia
2. Paraesthesia
3. Hyperaesthesia
4. Synaesthesia
Ans – 4
52. Local Scarring and limb hypoplasia in a newborn is seen due to?
1. Toxoplasma
2. T.pallidum
3. Varicella
4. Herpes
Ans-3 (congenital varicella not perinatal varicella )
53. Patency of ductus arteriosus is necessary in all except?
1. Persistent truncus arteriosus
2. Hypoplastic left heart
3. Pulmonary stenosis
4. Transposition of great vessels with intact ventricular septum
54. Acetyl CoA cannot be converted directly into?
1. Glucose
2. Ketone bodies
3. Fatty acids
4. Cholesterol
Ans – 1
55. Side effects of cyclosporine are all except
1. Pulmonary edema
2. Hirsutism
3. Renal impairment

56. Which is NOT true about angiography?
1. Common femoral artery is routinely catheterised
2. Single wall puncture is indicated in those with normal coagulation profile
3. Femoral artery is catheterised at medial third of femoral head
4. Seldinger technique is used both for femoral artery and vein
57. Retraction of scapula is not done by
1. Rhomboidius major
2. Rhomboidius minor
3. Trapezius
4. Levator scapulae
58. Upper limb weight is transmitted to axial skeleton by all except?
1. Coracoacromial ligament
2. Claviculoclavicular [interclavicular] ligament
3. Costoclavicular ligament
4. Acromioclavicular ligament
Ans-4 or 2 -???
59. Net protein utilization all except
1. Defined as nitrogen retained by total nitrogen consumed x100
2. Good for estimating protein quality
60. Female child with linear verrucuous plaque and vacuolation of keratinocytes in granulosa and spinosum. What is the diagnosis?
A. Linear darriers
B. Linear verrucuous hyperkeratosis
C. ??nevus
D. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
61. Non neoplastic lesions simulating bone tumor are all except?
1. Fibrous dysplasia
2. Bone island
3. Bone infarct
4. Hurler syndrome
62. Variant of Giant cell tumor is?
1. Ossifying fibroma
2. Non ossifying fibroma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Chondroblastoma
63. Infraclavicular pulmonary lesion in TB?
1. Gohns focus
2. Assman focus
3. Simons focus
4. Puhl sign
64. Survival of non operable Gall Bladder carcinoma
1. 4-6m
2. 8-10m
3. 1y
4. 12-24m
65. Dietary management of hypoglycemia in a patient taking both insulin & acarbose?
1. Sucrose
2. Glucose
3. Maltose
4. Starch
66. All are true about exenatide except?
1. Glucagon like peptide analogue
2. Used in type 1 diabetes mellitus
3. Administered subcutaneously
4. Decreases glucagon level
67. False regarding Pioglitazone
1. Activates PPAR-Gamma
2. Acts by inducing transcription of gene that catabolize carbohydrate & lipid metabolism in the absence of insulin
3. Contra indicated in diastolic heart dysfunction
4. Metabolized in liver
68. Histone acetylation causes?
1. Heterochromatin
2. Euchromatin
3. Methylation of cystine
4. DNA replication
69. Which is not a congenital myopathy?
1. Central core disease
2. Nemaline myopathy
3. Centronuclear (myotubular) myopathy
4. Z and B myopathy
70. Not true about mucinous cystadenoma pancreas
1. Microcystic adenoma
2. Lined by columnar epithelium
3. Pre malignant
4. Focus of ovarian stroma in it
71. Gleason score grading false is
1. Gleason score range between 1-10
2. Higher grade has got worse prognosis
3. Helps in staging the tumor
4. Grade determines further management

72. True statement regarding the kidney is?
1. Clearance will be more than GFR means the substance is secreted into the tubule
2. Descending limb is permeable to solutes
3. Fluid coming from the descending limb is hypotonic
4. Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR if there is tubular secretion
73. Lambda phage
1. Causes mad cow disease
2. Lytic and lysogenic phase cannot be inter converted
3. In lytic phase the DNA gets integrated to bacterial DNA and it causes lysis of the cell
4. In lysogenic phase, it gets integrated to the bacterial DNA and remains dormant until activated
74. Best way to teach a mentally retarded child
1. CBT
2. Cognitive reconstruction
3. Self learning
4. Contingency

75. Function of CD4 T cells is all except?
1. Antibody production
2. Cytotoxicity of T cells
3. Memory B cells
4. Opsonisation
76. Thrombosis least seen in
1. PNH
2. DIC
3. Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia
4. ITP
77. Anti phospholipid syndrome not seen?
1. Recurrent abortions
2. Thrombosis
3. Pancytopenia
4. Anticardiolipin/lupus anticoagulant
78. Not seen in Gestational Diabetes?
1. Previous macrosomic baby
2. Congenital malformation
3. Polyhydramnios
4. Obesity
79. 5 yr old male child presents with pubic hair development, phallic enlargement BP-130/90. Which will be helpful-
1. 17 hydroxyprogesterone
2. Aldosterone
3. Renin
4. 11 deoxy cortisol

80. False about hepatic duct is?
1. Left hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure
2. Caudate lobe drains only into left hepatic duct
3. Right hepatic duct formed by V and VII segments
4. Left hepatic duct crosses segment IV
81. A 3 month old female child comes with history of hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Apart from cardiac malformations and dehydration nothing else could be found what would you like to investigate
1. 17 hydroxy progesterone
2. Renin
3. Aldosterone
4. ADH
82. Steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome in a child not responding to prednisolone. Best management?
1. Oral cyclophosphamide X 3 months
2. Oral mycophenolate x 6 months
3. Iv cyclosporine X 3 months
4. Iv cyclophosphomide X 6 months

83. 17 yr old female with bosselated, non blanching hyperpigmented plaque on cheek present since birth. Management?
1. Pulsed laser
2. Nd YAG
3. Ruby laser
4. Erbium laser
84. CAP in LAC operon is
1. Positive regulator
2. Negative regulator
3. Repressor
4. Constitutive expression
85. Alpha thalassemia is due to
1. Deletion of beta genes
2. Deletion of alpha genes
3. Increase in alpha/delta chains
4. Insertion of Amino acids in alpha chains
86. Non stress test was done in a 36-38 week fetus was non reactive. What is the next step?
1. Do a biophysical profile
2. Repeat NST after an hour
3. Induction of labor
4. Caesarean section
87. True regarding brucella a/e
1. Brucella abortus is capnophilic
2. Pasteurization kills it
3. Occasional transmission by aerosols
4. Test done by 2ME confirms diagnosis
88. Revascularization best for-
1. Stunned heart
2. Hibernating heart
3. Mixed viable and scarred myocardium
4. Non ischemic viable myocardium
89. Extended release drug systems (microwick & microcatheter) used for ?
1. Drug delivery to round window
2. Drooling of saliva
3. Frey’s syndrome
4. Epistaxis
90. Acrodermatitis enteropathica not true
1. Autosomal Recessive
2. Serum Zn levels are low
3. Triad of dermatitis, dementia and diarrhoea
4. Zn supplementation improves the condition
91. A child presents with faliure to thrive with frequent vomiting, diarrhea, hepatic splenomegaly and abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
1. Adrenal haemorrage
2. Wolmans disease
3. Pheochromocytoma
4. Addisons disease
Ans –2
92. Comet tail artefacts seen in which gall bladder disease
1. Adenomatous polyp
2. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
3. Ca gall bladder
4. Cholesterosis
93. Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) includes all of the following groups except?
1. Shock
2. Ischemia
3. Neurogenic injury
4. Energy of injury
94. Australian collaborative trial on steroid use in neonates
1. Neurodegenerative illness is more in steroid patients
2. Neonates taking CS have decreased head circumference
3. Health of neonates on CS is same as those of those not on CS
4. Results are similar to that with placebo
Ans- ???
95. GOLD STANDARD TEST for insulinoma
1. 72 hr fasting test
2. Plasma insulin levels
3. C-peptide levels
4. Low glucose levels < 30 mg/dl

96. overexpressed in GIST
1. CD117 2. CD34 3. CD21 4. S100 Ans-1

97. What is the mode of treatment for a 2 cm sized papillary carcinoma thyroid in left lobe?
1. Total thyroidectomy + radical LN neck dissection 2. Near total thyroidectomy + radical LN neck dissection 3. Only total thyroidectomy 4. Left hemithyroidectomy Ans-2

97. Trochlear nerve all true except
1. Longest intracranial course. 2. Arise from dorsum of brainstem. 3. Supply ipsilateral superior oblique. 4. enters orbit through sup. orbital fissure outside annulus of Zinn Ans-3
[snip]. Abscess in axillary region is safely drained by which approach? 1. Medial 2. Posterior 3. Lateral 4. Floor Ans-1 or 4-??

99. Octreotide is not useful in? 1. Insulinoma 2. Glucaganoma 3. Carcinoid tumor 4. Glioma Ans-4-?

100. Gold standard investigation for GERD-
1. 24 hr pH monitoring 2. Endoscopy 3. Manometry 4. Esophagogram

101. Sphincter of Oddi has
1. 3 sphincters 2. 2 3. 4 4. 5
Ans-3 (BAILEY)

102. Cis atracurium is better than atracurium because
1. Rapid onset 2. Short duration of action 3. Less cardiac depression 4. Less histamine release

103. Bleomycin causes the following in lungs
1. Destruction of type 1 pneumocytes 2. Destruction of type 2 pneumocytes 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Destruction of endothelial cells

104. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central chemoreceptors is
1. Increased H+ 2. Increased CO2 3. Increased O2 4. Decreased CO2 Ans-1-?(explanation needed for CO2 vs H+)

105. After laparoscopic cholecystectomy specimen sent for histopathology shows ca gallbladder stage 1a. Management is? 1. Excision of all port sites 2. Follow up 3. Chemotherapy & Radiotherapy 4. Extended resection Ans-1

106. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except? 1. Monochorionic monoamniotic 2. Mentoanterior 3. Extended breech 4. Dichorionic twins with first vertex and second breech Ans-1

107. True regarding animals that are chronically exposed to cold
1. Increased sympathetic stimulation 2. Increased vagal action 3. Increased insulin levels in blood 4. Decrease blood supply to adipose tissue

108. True about non typhoid salmonella?
1. Invasive in infants 2. Blood culture more sensitive than stool in adults 3. Poultry acts as a source of infection 4. Fluoroquinolone resistance is seen in some clinical reports

109. Gall bladder polyps have risk of malignancy if 1. Polyp is associated with gall stones 2. Polyp size > 5 mm
3. >65 years
4. Increasing size
110. All are true regarding carcinoma pancreas except?
A. 75% cases have p53 mutation
B. 5 year survival rate after pancreatico duodenectomy is 10-15%
C. Stage III cancer median survival is 3-6 months
D. Increased risk in hereditary pancreatitis
111. A pregnant gets Chicken pox 3 days before delivery of the baby. What is the baby’s prognosis?
1. No risk to mother or child
2. Intrapartum antiviral therapy required
3. Fetopathic effects seen
4. At risk of fetal varicella syndrome
112. Which among the following is not a feature of Horner’s syndrome?
1. Ptosis
2. Miosis
3. Heterochromia iridis
4. Apparent exophthalmos
113. True regarding myocardial O2 demand?
1. Inversely related to heart rate
2. Has constant relation to external cardiac work
3. Correlates with duration of systole
4. Is negligible at rest
114. All of the following is involved in development of carcinoma colon except?
1. APC
2. Beta catenin
3. K Ras
4. Mismatch repair genes
115. Which among the following is false regarding familial adenomatous polyposis?
1. Autosomal recessive inheritance
2. Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
3. Polyps develop in late adulthood
4. Epideral cyst may occur with osteoma
116. All are true about diazoxide EXCEPT:
1. Anti-hypertensive
2. Causes severe hypoglycemia
3. Used in treatment of insulinomas
4. Acts by ATP mediated K+ channel opening in beta cell membrane
117. Vertical crest at the junction of the internal auditary canal?
1. Bill’s bar
2. Ponticulus
3. Cog
4. Falciform crest
118. True regarding ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle is?
1. FSH increases aromatase activity
2. Peak inhibin activity
3. Increased steroidogenesis
3. Activin level is high
119. All are true regarding cystic fibrosis except?
1. It is caused by CFTR gene mutation
2. Defect lies in Calcium channel
3. Autosomal Recessive
4. Mutation in delta f508 mutation
120. All are true regarding streptococci except?
1. Group A and C are hemolytic
2. Pyrogenic toxin is plasmid mediated
3. Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
4. Streptdornase digests nucleic acids
121. All are true regarding mesothelioma except?
1. Bilaterally symmetrical
2. Associated with asbestos exposure
3. Histopathalogy shows bimodal trend
4. Occurs in late middle age
122. A person having chest pain and sudden palpitations with heart rate of 150/min and regular rhythm. Diagnosis?
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. Idioventricular rhythm
3. SVT
4. AF with heart block
123. Cotrimoxazole used in all except
1. UTI
2. Chancroid
3. Prostatitis
4. Typhoid
124. According to Enneking system, not true regarding an active benign lesion is
1. Intracapsular
2. Margin of reactive bone
3. Wide rim of reactive bone
4. Extended curettage is treatment

125. Regarding Ifosfamide, all are true except?
1. It is a nitrogen mustard
2. Metabolised by liver
3. More neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide.
4. Chloracetaldehyde is its metabolite
126. Most common cause of death in a patient with thrombolytic therapy?
1. Myocardial rupture
2. Reperfusion arrhythmia
3. Intracranial haemorrhage
4. Cardiogenic shock
127. A male child presents with Fanconi anemia & hypercalciuria. All are true regarding Dent’s disease except?
1. Proteinura
2. Hypercalciuria
3. Father will have the same disease
4. Rickets is present
128. Central dot sign seen in
1. Caroli disease
2. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
3. Liver hematoma
4. Budd chiari syndrome
129. Most comon cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is
1. Arterial thrombosis
2. Venous thrombosis
3. Embolism
4. Non occlusive ischemia
130. A term male baby, with birth weight 3.5 kg, developed respiratory distress at birth, not responded to administration of surfactant. Echocardiogram was normal. X ray chest shows ground glass appearance. There is history of death of a female sibling at 1 month of age. What is the diagnosis?
2. Meconium aspiration
3. Neonatal alveolar proteinosis
4. 2–Methylacyl CoA Racemase Deficiency

131. Which of the following is not true about JRA?
1. Fever
2. Uveitis
3. Rheumatoid nodules
4. Raynaud’s phenomenon
132. A 14 yr old girl on exposure to cold has pallor of extremities followed by pain and cyanosis and rash over metacarpophalangeal joints. She is prone to develop:
1. SLE
2. Scleroderma
3. Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Histiocytosis
133. A 9 yr old girl has difficulty in combing hair and climbing upstairs. Gowers sign is positive. What is the next investigation to be performed?
1. ESR
2. RA factor
3. Creatine kinase
4. EMG
134. BRCA1 gene is located on chromosome number?
1. 13
2. 11
3. 17
4. 22
135. Which among the following is false in barium meal ?
1. Ileum is featureless
2. Colon has haustrations
3. Jejunum is feathery
4. Distal part of duodenum has a cap
136. About RCT all true except
1. Baseline characteristics are comparable
2. Bias eliminated by double blinding
3. Sample size depends on type of study
4. Dropouts are excluded from the study
137. Not true about breast milk
1. Max output at 12 months
2. Co-efficient of iron absorption is 70%
3. Ca utilization more than cows milk
4. Breast milk protien is reference protein
138. True about cluster sampling all except
1. Sample size same as simple random
2. It is two stage sampling
3. Cheaper than other methods
4. It is a method for rapid assessment
139. Which is true about BCG?
1. Distilled water is used as diluent
2. Site for injection is cleaned with spirit
3. Mantoux test positive in 6 weeks
4. WHO recommends Danish 1331 for vaccine production
140. Incineration not done for
1. Cytotoxic drugs
2. Waste sharps
3. Human anatomical waste
4.Cotton contaminated by blood
141. Which of the following statements regarding DDT is false?
1. Pyrethrum has synergistic action
2. It is a contact poison
3. Immediately kills the prey
4. Residual effect lasts 18 months
142. Following are larval control measures except?
1. DDT
2. Paris green
3. Gambusia fish
4. Intermittent irrigation
143. Goals of national population policy are all except?
1. Decrease IMR to below 30/1000 live births
2. Reduce MMR to below 100/100000 live births
3. Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy
4. Bring down TFR to replacement levels by 2015
144. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by all except
1. Amylodosis
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Addison’s disease
4. Diabetes mellitus
145. True statement regarding clomiphene citrate is?
1. Enclomiphene is an anti estrogenic
2. Increases pregnancy rate 3 times
3. Incidence of twin pregnancy is 5%
4. Shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in RCT
146. Following modification occurs in Gs subunit which leads to watery diarrhea
1. ADP ribosylation
2. ATP-ADP transfer
3. Phosphorylation
4. Dephosphorylation
147. Late expanding stage of population in India is due to?
1. Birth rate stationary death rate continues to fall
2. Death rate declines faster than birth rate
3. Birth rate declines, death rate same
4. Birth rate is less than birth rate
July 5th, 2014, 09:10 AM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Mar 2012
Re: Last year question papers of All India Institute of Medical Sciences

148. Which does not cause hypoglycemia?
1. Acarbose
2. Glimepride
3. Sulfonylurea
4. Nateglinide
149. Regarding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis, all are true except?
1. Follicular destruction
2. Increase in lymphocytes
3. Oncocytic metaplasia
4. Orphan Annie eye nuclei
150. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true?
1. Intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids associated with decreased risk
2. Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta
3. Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
4. Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se
151. Berry aneurysm defect lies in:
1. Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
2. Degeneration of media/muscle cell layer
3. Deposition of mucoid material in media
4. Low grade inflammation of vessel wall
152. All the following statements about purification of water are true except
1. Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination
2. Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100ml sample of drinking water
3. Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
4. Coliforms may be dtected by multiple tube method and indole production at 44 degrees
153. True about sickle cell disease are all except
1. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine
2. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar residue with a polar residue
3. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
4. RFLP results from a single base change
154. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by?
1. DNA polymerase
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA topoisomerase
4. DNA gyrase
155. Fish is the source of all except?
1. Iron
2. Iodine
3. Vitamin A
4. Phosphorus
156. Most probable route for transmission of meningitis from CNS to inner ear?
1. Cochlear aqueduct
2. Vestibular aqueduct
3. Endolymphatic sac
4. Hyrtle fissure
157. All of the following drugs will worsen megaloblastic anemia except
1. Alcohol
2. Phenytoin
3. Methotrexate
4. Chloroquine

158. Most common site of cholangiocarcinoma
1. Distal biliary duct
2. Hilum
3. Intrahepatic duct
4. Multifocal
159. In case of an obstructed labor with mother dehydrated, febrile, and an IUD fetus in cephalic presentation. What is the management?
1. Craniotomy
2. Decapitation
3. Cesarean section
4. Forceps delivery

160. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa is caused by a mutation of?
1. Alpha 6 integrin
2. Collagen 7
3. Laminin 4
4. Keratin 14
161. In “bounce off” test of knee joint, end feel is described as all except?
1. Bony
2. Empty
3. Springy
4. Firm
162. Nitrogen narcosis occurs due to?
1. …
2. Increased affinity of neurons for nitrogen
3. Inhibits enzyme dismutase
4. large production of NO
163. True about prolactinoma in pregnancy all except ?
1. Most common pituitary tumors, hardly cause any effect
2. Increasing level of prolaction show bad prognosis
3. In pregnancy size increases
4. Size of about macro adenoma
164. Not a side effect of naloxone?
1. Hypertension
2. Seizures
3. Pulmonary edema
165. Non progressing contraction of esophagus is
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quarternary
166. True about shunt vessels:
1. Play a role in thermoregulation
2. Role in nutrition distribution
3. Present in all vital organs
4. No autonomic nervous regulation
167. A lady comes for antenatal checkup in 1st trimester and has no other complaints except lymphadenopathy. Spiramycin was prescribed but there is no improvement. However the baby was born with hydrocephalus and cerebral calcification. Most probable cause?
1. CMV
2. Toxoplasmosis
3. Rubella
4. HSV
168. Fine reticulate pigmentation with palmar pitting is seen in?
1. Cockayne syndrome
2. Blooms syndrome
3. Dowling Degos syndrome
4. Thompson Edmund syndrome
169. 12 yr female with 3+proteinuria, lipiduria and hyaline casts but no hematuria. Which of the following is true?
1. Low C3 levels expected
2. No deposits of IgG and C3
3. Nephritic syndrome
4. IgA nephropathy
170. Drugs not used in pregnancy are all except
1. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
2. Angiotensin receptor blockers
3. Aldosterone
4. Propylthiouracil
171. A patient with clinically significant diabetic macular edema with non progressive diabetic retinopathy was treated with Macular grid photocoagulation. The patient still has vitreo macular traction. What is the preferred treatment?
1. Intravitreal bevacizumab
2. Pars plana vitrectomy
3. Repeat macular grid photocoagulation
4. Augmented macula photocoagulation
172. Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with?
1. Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P.
2. Independent of corticothalamic inputs
3. Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors
4. Essentially silent in sleep
173. Protein losing enteropathy diagnosis, all used except?
1. Tc albumin
2. Tc dextran
3. Tc transferrin
4. Tc 99 Sotisumab
Ans- 4
174. Which is not true about disinfectants?
1. Ethylene dioxide is an intermediate level disinfectant
2. Phenols are useful for treatment of organic wastes
3. Glutaraldehyde is sporocidal
4. Hypochlorite is virucidal
175. Methotrexate used in all except
1. Post transplant
2. Carcinoid tumour
3. Psoriasis
4. Sickle cell anemia
176. In India maximum maternal mortality is due to
1. Hemorrhage
2. Anemia
3. Abortion
4. Sepsis
177. Commonest histological finding in benign hypertension
1. Necrotising arteritis
2. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
3. Loss of internal elastic lamina
4. Fibrinoid necrosis
178. Child presents with a history of respiratory infections. His sweat chloride is 36,41 meq/l on 2 occasions. What other test you do to exclude diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
1. CT Chest
2. Nasal potential diferance
3. Fat in stool in next 72 hours
4. DNA analysis for ?508 mutation
179. Which of the following agent can be used for sickle cell anaemia
1. Hydroxyurea
2. Cysplatin
3. Methotrexate
4. Busulphan
180. Protective for carcinoma colon
1. Low protein diet
2. Low fat diet
3. Low selenium diet
4. High fibre diet
181. False about vaccines
1. Thiomersal is used as preservative in DPT vaccine
2. Kanamycin is used as preservative in measles vaccine
3. Neomycin is used as preservative in BCG vaccine
4. Magnesium chloride used to stabilize OPV
182. Baby born at 33 wks on examination at 42wks with ROP both eyes in 12 clock hours position stage 2 zone 1 plus disease, how will u manage the patient ?
1. Examine the patient after 1 week
2. Laser photocoagulation of avascular retina of both eyes
3. Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up of other eye
4. Vitreoretinal surgery
183. In international prognostic factor which of following not include in lymphoma?
1. Patients Age & Performance Status
2. LDH
3. Serum albumin, hemoglobin
4. Extranodal involvement
184. Side effects of Tamoxifen a/e?
1. Venous thrombosis
2. Endometrial carcinoma
3. Osteoporosis
4.Causes cancer in opposite breast
185. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on
1. Lean body mass
2. Adipose tissue
3. Resting heart rate
4. Exercise
186. Among the following all are steroid hormones that act on cytosolic receptors except one which is a peptide hormone that acts on nuclear receptor
1. Thyroxine
2. Epinephrine
3. GH
187. Lyme disease all true except
1. B.borgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
2. Infection progresses despite of good humoral mediated immunity
3. IgA intrathecally confirms diagnosis
4. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes in CSF suggest meningitis

188. Acellular pertussis vaccine composed of?
1. Pertactin, endotoxin, fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin
2. Pertactin, Pertussis toxin, fimbriae, endotoxin
3. Pertactin, Pertussis toxin, fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin
4. Fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin, endotoxin, pertussis toxin
189. Positive hepatojugular reflux seen in?
1. TR
2. Decreased afterload
3. LVF
4. PS
190. All true about high tibial osteotomy except?
1. Can correct varus over 30 degress
2. Deformity recurs after a long time
3. Done though cancellous bone
4. Done in case of unicompartmental disease

191. A woman complaints of a severe headache that she has never experienced with photophobia and neck stiffness. Diagnosis?
1. SAH
2. Migraine
3. Meningitis

192. A 50 yr old man complains of crushing sternal pain, following which patient dies of myocardial infarction. 4 days later what will be the appearance at infarct site
1. Granulomatous inflammation
2. Fibroblasts and collagen
3. Neurophilic infiltration surrounding coagulative necrosis
193. 4 weeks infant comes to casualty with h/o vomiting after feeds grossly dehydrated. Next management
1. Immediate surgery
2. Fluid management first surgery can be delayed
194. False about congenital rubella
1. Ig G is diagnostic
2. Most commonly associated with CVS anomalies, cataract and hearing loss
4. High risk if infected after 16 weeks
195. True about ESBL all except
1. Sensitive to carbepenem
2. The basis of testing on the basis of 3rd class cephalosporins
3. Amsler classification is based on culture characteristics
196. Topical mitomycin is used for?
1. Surgery for laryngeal subglotic stenosis
197. Medullary carcinoma thyroid treatment?
1. Surgery only
2. Combined chemoradiation
3. Surgery f/b radiation therapy
4. Radioiodine ablation

198. Cognitive model
1. Beck
2. Ellis
3. Kreplin
199. Angiotensin II causes all except
1. Stimulates release of ADH
2. Increases thirst.
3. Vasodilation
4. Stimulates aldosterone release.
Ans – 3
200. Which is true ?
1. Goitre in 5 percent of population is endemic goitre
2. In thyroid storm, the clinical features are primarily due to increased thyroxine
3. Propylthiouracil is contraindicated in pregnancy
4. ??

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Ansari Nagar East,
Gautam Nagar,
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011 2658 8500

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