This is the GATE Textile engineering & technology question paper:

Q.1 The fibre that contains nitrogen and sulfur is
(A) Polyester (B) Wool (C) Nylon 6 (D) Kevlar

Q.2 Condensation polymerization is not used to produce
(A) Polyester (B) Nylon 6 (C) Nylon 66 (D) Polypropylene

Q.3 Wet spinning technique is commercially used to produce filament yarn of
(A) Polypropylene
(B) Polyester
(C) Nylon 66
(D) Acrylic

Q.4 The fibre that dissolves in 59% (w/w) sulfuric acid solution is
(A) Wool
(B) Polypropylene
(C) Cotton
(D) Viscose

Q.5 Surface features of a fibre can be obtained by
(A) Transmission electron microscope
(B) Scanning electron microscope
(C) Small angle X-ray diffractometer
(D) Sonic modulus tester

Q.6 Birefringence of filament yarn is related to its
(A) Crystallinity
(B) Orientation
(C) Individual filament denier
(D) Density

Q.7 A machine that does not improve the mass evenness is
(A) Drawframe (B) Ring doubler
(C) Speedframe (D) Ribbon lap
Q.8 Fibre individualization in a card will increase by increasing
(A) Licker-in to cylinder setting (B) Doffer speed
(C) Licker-in speed (D) Cylinder speed
Q.9 Softer cots on drafting rollers result in
(A) An increase in drafting wave (B) Less fibre slippage at roller nip
(C) Change in draft (D) Reduced roller lapping
Q.10 Compared to the spinning of finer cotton yarns, the preferred rotor diameter for the production of
very coarse cotton yarns would
(A) Be higher
(B) Be lower
(C) Remain the same
(D) Change depending on fibre strength
Q.11 Amongst the following, the suitable technology for producing core spun yarn is
(A) Air vortex spinning (B) Rotor spinning
(C) Friction spinning (D) Air-jet spinning
Q.12 Increase in taper angle on sectional warping drum will normally require
(A) Higher warping speed
(B) Lower warping speed
(C) Increase in traverse speed
(D) Decease in traverse speed
Q.13 Increase in the ratio of the length of crank to the length of connecting rod leads to
(A) Increase in sley eccentricity
(B) Decrease in sley eccentricity
(C) No change in sley eccentricity
(D) Initial increase and then decrease in sley eccentricity
Q.14 Shuttle remains on the race board during its flight in the shed because of
(A) Forward positive acceleration of the sley
(B) Backward positive acceleration of the sley
(C) Constant forward velocity
(D) Constant backward velocity
Q.15 In weft knitted fabrics of the same mass per unit area produced from the same yarns, the structure
which will give the highest thickness is
(A) Plain
(B) Rib
(C) Purl
(D) Interlock
Q.16 The nonwoven process which has the highest production rate is
(A) Needle punching (B) Hydroentangling
(C) Melt blowing (D) Spunbonding
Q.17 During bleaching of cotton with H2O2, the stabilizer used is
(A) Sodium hydroxide (B) Sodium silicate
(C) Acetic acid (D) Sodium carbonate
Q.18 The highest washing fastness in a dyed cotton fabric would be obtained if the dye-fibre bond is
(A) Ionic (B) Hydrogen
(C) Covalent (D) Van der Waal's force
Q.19 Disperse dye cannot generally be fixed on polyester by
(A) Superheated steam at180oC (B) Saturated steam at 130oC
(C) Dry heat at 200oC (D) Saturated steam at 100oC
Q.20 Crease resist finishing of cotton fabric does not lead to
(A) Reduction in tensile strength (B) Increase in dimensional stability
(C) Increase in moisture regain (D) Increase in bending length
Q.21 Two yarn samples have standard deviation of strength σ1 and σ 2. If σ1 < σ2, the 'F' ratio would be
(A) σ1 / σ2 (B) σ2 / σ1 (C) σ1
2 / σ2
2 (D) σ2
2 / σ1
2
Q.22 Nep count in a cotton fibre sample is measured by
(A) AFIS (B) HVI (C) Uster tester (D) Stelometer
Q.23 In a given woven fabric the extension at break in weft direction is higher than that in warp
direction. During bursting strength test, the threads that will always break first are
(A) Warp
(B) Weft
(C) Both warp and weft simultaneously
(D) Those with lower strength
Q.24 CSP of yarn is equal to the product of
(A) Yarn tex and lea strength (N)
(B) Yarn count (Ne) and lea strength (lbf)
(C) Yarn tex and lea strength (lbf)
(D) Yarn count (Ne) and lea strength (kgf)
Questions Q.25 to Q.32 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 A market survey by a garment manufacturing company revealed that the chest width of their target
customers had normal distribution with a mean of 54 cm. If 18% of customers surveyed have chest
width greater than 58 cm and 75% of customers surveyed have chest width greater than 52 cm, the
percentage of customers having chest width between 56 cm and 58 cm is ________.
Q.27 The relationship between load (y) in N and elongation (x) in mm of a cotton fabric is y √ .
If the breaking elongation of the fabric is 9 mm, the work of rupture, in N.mm, is________.
Q.28 On twisting, the denier of a multifilament yarn consisting of 300 filaments of 3 denier each
becomes 1100. If 11 km of untwisted filament yarn is twisted, its length in km will be __________.
Q.29 A loom is producing 2 m wide grey fabric with 8% weft crimp. Assuming that the loom is running
at 570 rpm with 90% efficiency, the weft consumption in kg/hr of 30 tex yarn will be _______.
Q.30 The strength of 100 g/m2 fabric obtained by testing 4 cm wide strip is 0.4 kN. The tenacity (cN/tex)
of the fabric is ______.
Q.31 Out of 100 textile companies, 10 companies are involved in spinning, weaving and chemical
processing, 25 companies are involved in spinning and chemical processing, and 30 companies are
involved in weaving and chemical processing. If 65 companies are involved in chemical
processing, the number of companies involved ONLY in chemical processing is_______.
Q.25 If the moisture regain of a fibre is 10%, its moisture content (%) is _______ .
Q.32 In a card the probability of fibre transfer from cylinder to doffer in one revolution of cylinder is
0.2. The probability that a particular fibre will be transferred to the doffer within the first three
revolutions of cylinder is _______.



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