#1
July 2nd, 2014, 08:35 AM
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Can any of you here please provide me the last year question paper of AIIMS – PG Medical Entrance Exam???? As per your request here I am providing you the last year question paper of AIIMS – PG Medical Entrance Exam 1.******* Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following lung carcinoma’s a.******* Squamous cell carcinoma b.****** Adenocarcinoma c.******* Epidermoid carcinoma d.****** Oat cell carcinoma 2.******* By knowing the half life of a drug it would help in knowing the a.******* Median lethal dose b.****** Median effective dose c.******* Potency of drug d.****** Frequency of dosing 3.******* Which of the following types of human papiloma viruses is implicated in causation of carcinoma cervix a.******* 6 b.****** 11 c.******* 16 d.****** 42 4.******* The best way to visualize the corneoscleral angle is a.******* Slit lamp microscopy b.****** Gonioscopy c.******* Opthalmoscope d.****** Keratometer 5.******* Mebendazole is used for treatment of all of the following except a.******* Intestinal ameobiasis b.****** Trichuriasis c.******* Ankylostoma d.****** Round worm 6.******* Which of the following causes visceral larva migrane a.******* Toxocara catis b.****** Ankylostoma doudenale c.******* Loa Loa d.****** Trichuris trichura 7.******* Which of the following is content of littre’s hernia a.******* Sigmoid colon b.****** Urinary bladder c.******* Meckel’s diverticulum d.****** Ileus 8.******* Amino Acid Score (AAS) refers to a.******* The ratio of number of essential amino acids present in the given diet to reference protein b.****** The ratio of number of limiting amino acids present in given diet to the reference protein c.******* The number of limiting amino acids present in the given diet d.****** The number of essential amino acids present in the given diet 9.******* Most common tumor of the appendix is a.******* Adenocarcinoma b.****** Carcinoid c.******* Squamous cell carcinoma d.****** Metastasis 10.**** Formation of ammonium ions to remove the excess acid in urine is produced by which of the following enzymes a.******* Glutaminase b.****** Glutamate pyruvate transaminase c.******* Glutamate dehydrogenase d.****** Carboxylase 11.**** The normal PR interval is in seconds a.******* 0.05-0.08 b.****** 0.12-0.16 c.******* 0.8-1.6 d.****** 1.2-2.3 12.**** The normal sperm count is a.******* 4-5 million/mm3 b.****** 60-120 million/ml c.******* 60-120 lakhs/ml d.****** 40-50 lakhs/mm3 13.**** To balance pressure natriuresis, the renal sodium excretion is a.******* Increased with increased arterial pressure b.****** Decreased with increased pressure c.******* Decreased with decreased pressure d.****** Increased with decreased pressure 14.**** The limiting amino acid in wheat is a.******* Lysine b.****** Threonine c.******* Tryptophan d.****** Cysteine 15.**** Chronic retropharyngeal abcess is formed due to a.******* Acute cervical lymphadenitis b.****** Caries spine c.******* Tonsillitis d.****** Trauma 16.**** Post cricoid malignancy is commonly in a.******* Alcoholics b.****** Smokers c.******* Plummer vinsons syndrome d.****** Reflux esophagitis 17.**** The Henderson Hassalbach equation is used for measuring a.******* The sodium potassium balance b.****** The acid base balance c.******* The kinetics of enzymatic reaction d.****** Anion gap 18.**** All of the following are anabolic except a.******* Growth hormone b.****** Cortisol c.******* Insulin d.****** IGF-1 19.**** In right homonymous hemianopia the lesion is in a.******* The right optic nerve b.****** Optic chiasma c.******* The left Optic tract d.****** The Optic radiations in the left cortex 20.**** Osteochondritis of the lunate bone is known as a.******* Friebergs b.****** Keinbocks c.******* Perthes d.****** Kohlers 21.**** The incubation period of mumps is a.**** 7 days b.**** 10 days c.**** 18 days d.**** 25 days 22.**** To differentiate between osmotic and secretory diarrhea it is best to measure a.******* The stool osmolol gap b.****** The stool and plasma osmolality c.******* The stool anion gap d.****** The water content of the stools 23.**** Cobble stone appearance is seen in a.******* Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis b.****** Vernal conjunctivitis c.******* Trachoma d.****** Herpes Infection 24.**** The difference between use of a selective alpha1 blocker to using a non selective alpha blocker is a.******* Less reflux tachycardia b.****** Decreased postural hypotension c.******* More vasodilation d.****** Vasoconstriction 25.**** All of the following are actions of epinephrine on beta receptors except a.******* Tachycardia b.****** Ventricular arrythmia’s c.******* A-V block d.****** Increased cardiac output * 26.**** Symes amputation is of which of the following types a.******* Provisional non end bearing b.****** Provisional end bearing c.******* Definitive non end bearing d.****** Definitive end bearing 27.**** All of the following are true about amiodarone a.******* It acts on fast sodium channels b.****** Increase action potential c.******* It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres d.****** It increases refractory period in A-V node 28.**** The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is a.******* Osteoblast b.****** Osteoclast c.******* Undifferintiated cells d.****** Giant cells 29.**** In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is a.******* Friction b.***&nbsn style='color:navy;layout-grid-mode:line'>c.******* It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres d.****** It increases refractory period in A-V node 28.**** The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is a.******* Osteoblast b.****** Osteoclast c.******* Undifferintiated cells d.****** Giant cells 29.**** In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is a.******* Friction b.****** Congestion c.******* Infection d.****** Mechanical 30.**** DIC is seen in all of the following except a.******* Intra uterine death b.****** Extraamniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate c.******* Blood loss d.****** Amniotic fluid embolism 31.**** All of the following are conservative management used in ectopic pregnancy except a.******* Salpingostomy b.****** Salpingotomy c.******* Salpingectomy d.****** Methotrexate 32.**** Hyperemisis Gravidarium in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of the following except a.******* H.Mole b.****** Twins c.******* Preeclampsia d.****** Primigravida 33.**** Volume of synovial fluid in knee joint is a.******* 0.5-4 ml b.****** 4-8 ml c.******* 10-20 ml d.****** 8-12 ml 34.**** The increased production of vitamin D induced transport protein increases absorption of a.******* Iron b.****** Magnesium c.******* Calcium d.****** Zinc 35.**** The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are a.******* Directed against parietal cells b.****** Prevents binding of IF and B12 c.******* Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex d.****** Are directed against enterocytes in ileum 36.**** Most common site of urethral rupture is a.******* Prostatic b.****** Penile c.******* Bulbar d.****** Membranous 37.**** WHO day is celebrated all over the day on a.******* April 10 b.****** April 7th c.******* May 31st d.****** Dec 1st 38.**** Small Pox was declared globally eradicated on a.******* 7th May 1977 b.****** 1975 c.******* 8th May 1980 d.****** 14th April 1977 39.**** The membranous separating the region between the feotal skull bones is called as a.******* Fontanels b.****** Wormian Bones c.******* Sutures d.****** Ostia 40.**** Bisphosphonates act by a.******* Preventing calcium absorption in GIT b.****** Inhibiting osteoclast mediated bone resorption c.******* Preventing Ca excretion 41.**** Altering blood pH and preventing Ca resorption a.******* Odd’s ratio measures the strength of association and b.****** The ratio of incidence of disease in exposed to nonexposed c.******* The risk factors and outcome d.****** The ratio between exposed to the incidence of disease in the total population 42.**** The structures marking the seperation of the duodenum and the jejunum is a.******* The superior mesenteric vein b.****** The bile duct c.******* The ligament of trietz d.****** The caudate lobe of liver 43.**** In an immunosupressed individual suffering from viral , opportunistic fungal and parasitic infections is suffering mainly from a defect in a.******* B cells b.****** T cells c.******* Complement d.****** Neutrophils 44.**** For contraception (post contraception) all of the following are used except a.******* Mifepristone b.****** Oral contraceptives c.******* Levonorgestrol d.****** Prostaglandins 45.**** All of the following are used in treatment of endometriosis except a.******* Danazol b.****** Gonadotropin releasing hormone c.******* OCP’s d.****** Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist 46.**** During a surgery ligation of which of the following small veins in the abdomen can lead to death of the patient a.******* IVC b.****** Superior mesenteric vein c.******* Coronary vein d.****** Splenic vein 47.**** All of the following are associated with maculopapular rash except a.******* Typhoid b.****** Dengue c.******* Chicken pox d.****** Measles 48.**** Punctate basophilia is seen in a.******* Erythrocytes b.****** Nuetrophils c.******* Lymphocytes d.****** Eosinophils * * 49.**** The fibrous layer is missing in a.******* Pars tensa b.****** Pars flaccida c.******* Umbo d.****** Anullus of tympanic membrane 50.**** Myotonic dystrophy inheritance is by a.******* Autosomal Dominant b.****** X-linked recessive c.******* Autosomal recessive d.****** Multifactorial 51.**** X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in a.******* Polycystic Kidney disease b.****** Vitamin D resistant rickets c.******* Cystic fibrosis d.****** Von willibrands disease 52.**** Von Willibrands disease is transmitted as a.******* Autosomal recessive b.****** Autosomal Dominant c.******* X-linked recessive d.****** Y-linked recessive 53.**** Internal hordeolum is a.******* Chronic granulomatous infection of Meibomian glands b.****** Acute supperative infection of Miebomian glands c.******* Acute infection of glands of Zei’s d.****** Lacrimal gland infection 54.**** The protein content in breast milk is a.******* 0.8 gm/100 ml b.****** 0.9 gm/10 ml c.******* 1 gm/10ml d.****** 2 gms/100 ml 55.**** Dysphagia lusoria is due to a.******* Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery b.****** Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery c.******* Compression by aortic arch d.****** Obstruction due to foreign body 56.**** Sensitivity is written in the formula as a.******* TP/FP+FN b.****** TP/FN+TN c.******* TP/TN+TP d.****** TP/TN+FP 57.**** Annual parasite incidence measures a.******* Number of confirmed cases due to malaria in 1 yr *1000 / Population under surveillance b.****** Number of cases of malaria due to falciparam in 1 yr * 1000 / Total population c.******* Number of slides examined *1000 / Total population d.****** Number of faciparum malria cases in 2-10 yr old children*1000 / Total population 58.**** As per WHO TB is said to be under control when a.******* <1% population is tuberculin positive b.****** <1% population is sputum positive c.******* <1% infection in children less then 14 years d.****** <5% TB cases 59.**** Tullio Phenomenon refers to a.******* Increased sensitivity to hearing b.****** Better hearing in noisy surrounding c.******* Impedence matching d.****** Vertigo on hearing high freq sounds 60.**** Thornwalds disease is infection of a.******* Pharyngeal bursa b.****** Space of gillete c.******* Crypta magna d.****** Subhyoid infection 61.**** All of the following are true regarding ulcerative colitis except a.******* Decreased goblet cells b.****** Crypt abcess c.******* Destruction of crypts d.****** Transmural infarction 62.**** Avoiding reflex is due to a.******* Right frontal lobe disease b.****** Dominant parietal lobe disease c.******* Non dominant parietal lobe disease d.****** Left Frontal lobe disease 63.**** All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except a.******* Hypotonia b.****** Adiodokinesia c.******* Resting tremors d.****** Ataxia 64.**** Normal oxygen tension with decreased oxygen carrying capacity is seen in a.******* Histotoxic hypoxia b.****** Anemic hypoxia c.******* Stagnant hypoxia d.****** Hypoxic hypoxia * 65.**** Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as a.******* Dyslexia b.****** Aphasia c.******* Disconnection syndrome d.****** Apraxia 66.**** Abelson oncogene is associated with which of the following leukemias a.******* Acute myeloid leukemia b.****** Acute leukemic leukemia c.******* Chronic myeloid leukemia d.****** Chronic leukemic leukemia 67.**** In CML the translocation occurring is a.******* Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 21 b.****** Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 22 c.******* Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 21 d.****** Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 22 68.**** M4 in the classification of AML denotes which of the following stages a.******* Promyelocytic b.****** Monocytic c.******* Myelomonocytic d.****** Megakaryocytic 69.**** The M4 stage in AML is associated with the presence of a.******* Megaloblasts b.****** Myeloblasts c.******* Both myeloblasts and megaloblasts d.****** Promylocytes 70.**** KANAVEL’S sign is seen in a.******* Acute tenosynovitis b.****** Pancreatitis c.******* Appendicitis d.****** Ectopic pregnancy 71.**** The most common cause of multiple strictures in the small intestine is a.******* TB b.****** Ischeamic enteritis c.******* Crohns disease d.****** Ulcerative colitis 72.**** In a post appendectomy patient the cause of an external fistula formation is a.******* TB b.****** Intussuception c.******* Crohns disease d.****** Ulcerative colitis 73.**** Feacal fistula at the umbilicus is due to a.******* Patent urachus b.****** Vescico intestinal diverticulum c.******* Omphalocele d.****** Infection 74.**** Most common cause of vescico vaginal fistula in developing countries is due to a.******* Obstructed labour b.****** Werthiems hysterectomy c.******* Ceasarian section d.****** Forceps delivery 75.**** All of the following operations are done in incontinence except a.******* Kelleys stitch b.****** Aldridge’s operation c.******* Marshal marchetti krantz operation d.****** Shirodhkars sling operation 76.**** Most common type of incontinence seen in UTI is a.******* False b.****** Overflow c.******* Urge d.****** True 77.**** Deep tranverse arrest is commonly associated with which of the following types of pelvis a.******* Platypelloid b.****** Android c.******* Anthrapoid d.****** Gyenecoid 78.**** Which of the following is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the occipitoposterior position a.******* Moderate size fetus b.****** Gynecoid pelvis c.******* Weak uterine contractions d.****** Good levator ani muscle contractions 79.**** Which of the following sinuses is commonly associated with development of osteomyelitis in the face a.******* Maxillary b.****** Ethmoid c.******* Frontal d.****** Sphenoid 80.**** Atropine causes decrease salivation and bronchodilatation . These properties enable it to used in as a.******* Preaneasthetic medication b.****** Hyertension c.******* Supraventricular tachycardia d.****** MI * 81.**** All of the following are true about succinylcholine except a.******* Causes persistent depolarizing block b.****** Metabolized by psuedocholinesterase c.******* Block can be reversed by neostigmine d.****** Has a short half life 82.**** Maculopaular rash is seen is all of the following except a.******* Typhoid b.****** Varicella c.******* Dengue d.****** Measles 83.**** Diastomatomyelia is a.******* Discontinuity in spinal cord b.****** Spur in spinal cord c.******* Absence of dorsal column d.****** Dislocated disc 84.**** The weight of the body is transmitted through the axis of the vertebrae passing through a.******* Lamina b.****** Vertebral Body c.******* Pedicle d.****** Dorsal arch 85.**** All of the following are selective beta blockers except a.******* Atenolol b.****** Metoprolol c.******* Bisoprlol d.****** Propranolol 86.**** All of the following are seen in Tetralogy of Fallot except a.******* VSD b.****** Overiding aorta c.******* Pulmonary stenosis d.****** Left ventricular hypertrophy 87.**** In most patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are a.******* Increased b.****** Decreased c.******* Normal d.****** Absent 88.**** In Freidrichs type V hyperlipedemias the protein raised is a.******* IDL b.****** VLDL c.******* LDL d.****** Chylomicronsii 89.**** Atoprine is used in treatment of all of the following except a.******* Iridocyclitis b.****** Angle closure glaucoma c.******* Corneal ulcer d.****** Before refraction assessment 90.**** Wickhams striae is characteristically is seen in a.******* Psoriasis b.****** Lichen planus c.******* Pemphigus d.****** Pemphigoid 91.**** Rhinitis sicca involves a.******* Anterior nares b.****** Septum c.******* Posterior wall d.****** Lateral wall 92.**** Acute pancreatitis is caused most commonly by a.******* Gallstones b.****** Alcohol c.******* Truama d.****** Drugs 93.**** All of the following about meperidine are true except a.******* Has shorter half life then morphine b.****** Greater spasmogenic action then morphine c.******* Has dependency d.****** Better oral avialabilty 94.**** The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by a.******* Lacunar ligament b.****** Femoral ligament c.******* Femoral vein d.****** Femoral nerve 95.**** Posterior relation of Winslows foramen is a.******* IVC b.****** Liver c.******* Doudenum d.****** Pancreas 96.**** The death sentence given by a judicial officer has to be confirmed by a.******* Sessions court b.****** Additional sessions court c.******* High court d.****** Supreme court 97.**** The asbestos which of least likely pathogenic is a.******* Crocodolite b.****** Crysolite c.******* Amsolyte d.****** Trenolite * 98.**** Most common surgical complication of typhoid is a.******* Myocarditis b.****** Cholecystitis c.******* Hemorrhage d.****** Ileal perforation 99.**** In a patient with highly selective protienuria the protein lost is a.******* Transferrin b.****** Albumin and fibronogen c.******* Transferrin and fibronogen d.****** Fibronogen 100.* The immunologic response giving protection to Hepatitis A for long periods a.******* IgM b.****** IgG c.******* IgA d.****** IgD 101.* In window period in Hepatitis B infection, the severly shows a.******* HbsAg b.****** Anti HbsAg c.******* HbeAg d.****** Anti HbeAg 102.* Characteristic skin lesion in Peutz Jeghers syndrome is a.******* Freckles b.****** Lentigenes c.******* Café u-lait spots d.****** Adenoma Sebacium 103.* Characteristic lesion in tuberous sclerosis a.******* Café u lait b.****** Adenoma sebaceum c.******* Lentigenes d.****** Melanoma 104.* All of the following are common uses of beta blockers and calcium channel blockers except a.******* Atrial arrythmias b.****** Hypertension c.******* Variant angina d.****** Migraine 105.* Cardiac output is decreased by a.******* Increased sympathetic activity b.****** Tachycardia c.******* Increased preload d.****** Decreaesd venous return 106.* The parasympathetic effect on bronchial smooth muscle causes a.******* Increased tidal volume b.****** Bronchoconstriction c.******* Bronchodilatation d.****** No effect * * 107.* All of the following are true about cochlea except a.******* Lesion in cochlea causes nerve deafness b.****** Contains the tectorial membrane which is fine tuned c.******* It contains the hearing sense organs d.****** Lesion causes vertigo 108.* Myopia is best corrected by a.******* Convex lenses b.****** Concave lenses c.******* Astigmatic lenses d.****** Prisms 109.* All of the following are causes of complicated cataract except a.******* Malignant Myopia b.****** Diabetes mellitus c.******* Retinitis Pigmentosa d.****** Iridocyclitis 110.* The most common cause of psuedohermaphroditism is a.******* Ovarian dysgenesis b.****** Ovarian tumor c.******* Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d.****** PCOD 111.* The D/D of rectal prolapse in a child is a.******* Intusseception b.****** Rectal polyp c.******* Heamorrhoids d.****** Tumor 112.* Most common cause of stridor in newborn is a.******* Subglottic stenosis b.****** Laryngomalacia c.******* Foreiegn Body d.****** Infection 113.* All of the following are functions of saliva except a.******* Acts as lubricant for mastication b.****** It helps in perception of taste by dissolving c.******* It helps in digestion of carbohydrates d.****** It helps in digestion of proteins 114.* The blood supply of SA node is a.******* Left coronary artery b.****** Right coronary artery c.******* Left circumflex artery d.****** Anterior descending artery 115.* The graph used to measure to unrelated variables like height and weight are a.******* Scatter diagram b.****** Bar chart c.******* Pie chart d.****** Histogram 116.* Reverse intussuception occurs in a.******* Ileocolic b.****** Ileoceacal c.******* Colocolic d.****** Jejunogastric 117.* Aspirin can be used in all of the following except a.******* Dysmennorhes b.****** Acute inflammation of joints c.******* Post MI d.****** Viral infection 118.* All of the following are true about metropathia heamoragica except a.******* Swiss cheese endometrium b.****** Common nearing menopause c.******* Anovulatory cycles d.****** Metrorhagia 119.* Savlon contains a.******* Cetavlon + hibitane b.****** Cetavlon + Chlorheximide c.******* Hibitane + Chlorhexenol d.****** Cetavlon + Chlorohexenol 120.* Most common adverse effect of Ziduvudine is a.******* Myopathy b.****** Bone marrow toxicity c.******* Hemolytic anemia d.****** Hepatitis 121.* All of the following are advantages of using INH in antiTB treatment except a.******* It reduces load of TB bacilli b.****** It kills intracellular TB bacilli c.******* It acts on dormant bacilli d.****** It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy 122.* The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a.******* Chlorpropamide b.****** Thiazide c.******* Desmopressin d.****** Frusemide 123.* All of the following are physiological cysts in the ovary except one which is a tumor a.******* Theca cysts b.****** Dermoid c.******* Luteal cysts d.****** Corpus luteum cysts * 124.* Development of testes is dependant upon which of the following a.******* X chromosome b.****** Y chromosome c.******* XY chromosomes d.****** XX chromosomes 125.* Turners syndrome karyotype is a.******* 45, XXY b.****** 45 0 c.******* 45,XX d.****** 45, XY 126.* All of the following are indications of enucleation except a.******* Malignant myopia b.****** Pthysis bulbi c.******* Panopthalmitis d.****** Total anterior staphyloma 127.* Purely ketogenic aminoacid a.******* Proline b.****** Tyrosine c.******* Leucine d.****** Phenylanine Last edited by Anuj Bhola; October 9th, 2019 at 02:33 PM. |
#2
July 3rd, 2014, 11:09 AM
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Re: PG Medical Entrance Exam last Year Solved Papers
128.* Ponderal index is a.******* Wt/Ht2 b.****** 100-ht in cms c.******* Wt/cube root of Ht d.****** Observed weight/Expected weight 129.* WHO’s definition of blindness is a.******* <6/60 b.****** <3/60 c.******* <20/60 d.****** <1/60 130.* All of the following are seen in abruptio placentae except a.******* Tenderness over the abdomen b.****** Renal failure c.******* Uterine inversion d.****** DIC 131.* PQLI includes a.******* IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, economic growth product b.****** IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, literacy c.******* MMR, literacy, economic growth product d.****** IMR, life expectancy at birth and knowledge * 132.* Freshly prepared bleaching powder yields what % of chlorine a.******* 66% b.****** 33% c.******* 50% d.****** 20% 133.* Iodized salt at production level and at consumer level should be a.******* 45 ppm and 15 ppm b.****** 30 ppm and 15 ppm c.******* 40 ppm and 20 ppm d.****** 20 ppm and 10 ppm 134.* The toxin implicated in lathyrism is a.******* Pyrralizidone b.****** BOAA c.******* Sanguinarine d.****** Aflatoxin 135.* Chronic noise exposure above what level causes deafness a.******* 100 Db b.****** 85 Db c.******* 70 Db d.****** 140 Db 136.* All of the following are seen in horners syndrome except a.******* Ptosis b.****** Miosis c.******* Proptosis d.****** Anhydrosis 137.* Antigen drift involving infleunza indicates a.******* Major shift in the structure of the antigens b.****** Minor variations in the viral nucleocapsid c.******* Minor antigenic variations in the heamagluttinin and neuroaminidase antigens d.****** Recombination with host DNA 138.* Skin contains which type of glands largely a.******* Apocrine and sweat glands b.****** Ecocrine and sweat glands c.******* Holocrine and sweat glands d.****** Sebacious and sweat glands 139.* Acute flaccid paralysis is suddenly caused by a.******* Hypercalcemia b.****** Hypocalcemia c.******* Hyperkalemia d.****** Hypokalemia 140.* In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from abnormality involving a.******* Aldosterone b.****** ADH c.******* Insulin d.****** Growth hormone 141.* Chlamydia is best treated by a.******* Tetracycline b.****** Ampicillin c.******* Gentamycin d.****** Cephalexin 142.* True about competitive inhibitor is a.******* Decrease in Km and Vmax b.****** Decrease in Vmax and Km is same c.******* Increase in Km and Vmax is same d.****** Decrease in Km and Vmax is same 143.* Best drug to potentiate DOPA is a.******* Pyridoxine b.****** Carbidopa c.******* Pergolide d.****** Amantadine 144.* Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following except a.******* Air insufflation b.****** Sonosalpingogography c.******* Hysterosalpingography d.****** Laproscopic chromotubation 145.* Kernicterus is caused by a.******* Bilirubin monoglucoronide b.****** Albumin bound bilirubin c.******* Unbound bilirubin d.****** Bilirubin diglucoronide 146.* Mechanism of action of cluvalinic acid is a.******* Inhibits cell wall synthesis b.****** Inhibits beta lactamase c.******* Acts on protein synthesis d.****** Causes miss reading of DNA 147.* Prolactin secretion is inhibited by a.******* Growth hormone b.****** Stomatostatin c.******* Dopamine d.****** TSH 148.* In increased stage of endometrial carcinoma treatment given is a.******* Tamoxifen b.****** Medroxyprogesterone c.******* Danazol d.****** Methotrexate * 149.* Normal fluoride level for drinking purposes is in mgs/lt a.******* 0.08-0.5 b.****** 0.8-1.2 c.******* 1-1.75 d.****** 1.5-3.5 150.* Epinephrine can be used in all of the following except a.******* Anaphylactic shock b.****** Chronic bronchial asthma c.******* Cardiac resuscitation d.****** To prevent local bleed 151.* The most common nerve involved in leprosy is a.******* Ulnar nerve b.****** Lateral popliteal nerve c.******* Sciatic nerve d.****** Radial nerve 152.* Dangerous area of face is a.******* Olfactory bulb b.****** Woodruffs area c.******* Littles area d.****** Inferior turbinate 153.* During surgery involving abdomen ligation of a small vein can cause death of the patient a.******* Coronary vein b.****** Superior mesenteric vein c.******* Splenic vein d.****** IVC 154.* The main blood supply of the small gut is a.******* Celiac axis b.****** Superior mesenteric vein c.******* Inferior mesenteric vein d.****** Middle colic vein 155.* The external ear develops from which of the following a.******* 1st branchial arch b.****** 2nd branchial arch c.******* 1st branchia cleft d.****** 2nd branchial cleft 156.* Division of nuclear material occurs in which of the following stages a.******* Metaphase I b.****** Prophase I c.******* Anaphase d.****** Prophase II 157.* Rotation of radius occurring without extension and flexion at the elbow joint is caused by a.******* Anconeus and supinator b.****** Brachioradialis and Brachialis c.******* Pronator quadratus and pronator teres d.****** Triceps and Biceps brachii 158.* Depression of mandible is caused by a.******* Temporalis b.****** Lateral pterygoid c.******* Medial pterygoid d.****** Masseter 159.* Which of the following amino acids undergoes hydroxylation and is involved in the formation of collagen a.******* Proline b.****** Tryptophan c.******* Phenylalanine d.****** Cystiene 160.* Which of the following are true about nerve action conduction a.******* On activation there is influx of potassium and efflux of sodium b.****** It is decremental in nature c.******* It does not follow all or none law d.****** It requires a threshold stimulus to be activated 161.* The most physiological operation for chronic duodenal ulcer is a.******* Highly selective Vagotomy b.****** Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy c.******* Antrectomy and truncal vagotomy d.****** Selective vagotomy 162.* The least recurrence rate is seen in which of the following procedures for peptic ulcer a.******* Trancal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy b.****** Highly selective vagotomy c.******* Trancal vagotomy and antectomy d.****** Selective vagotomy 163.* Most of the long bones in the body have which of the following type of joints a.******* Synarthrosis b.****** Dyarthrosis c.******* Amphiarthrosis d.****** Synostosis 164.* The fungi present in the reticuloendothelial system is a.******* Candida b.****** Histoplasma capsulatum c.******* Sporothrix d.****** Aspergillus 165.* Alpha waves are of which of the following frequencies a.******* 7-13 Hz b.****** 10-20 Hz c.******* 15-25 Hz d.****** 4-5 Hz 166.* In a patient who is resting but is awake and has his closed will show which of the following readings on EEG a.******* Alpha waves b.****** Beta waves c.******* Theta waves d.****** Delta waves 167.* Which of the following are true about neutrophils a.******* Constitute 5-10% of leucocytes b.****** Are phagocytic cells c.******* Are increased in chronic inflammation d.****** Are present mainly in extravascular regions 168.* In a patient suffering through trauma involving regions that are extra abdominal can still cause death due to which of the following reasons a.******* Splenic rupture b.****** Acute dilatation of stomach c.******* Fat embolism d.****** Intestinal infarction 169.* All of the following are true regarding Angle closure glaucoma except a.******* Vertically dilated pupil b.****** Deep AC c.******* Ciliary congestion d.****** Haloes may appear 170.* All of the following are true about angle closure glaucoma except a.******* Prodormal phase initially b.****** Atrpoine is used in treatment c.******* Gonioscopy is used to visualize angle d.****** Iridotomy is required 171.* Which of the following drugs cause photoxicity a.******* Phenytoin b.****** Amiodarone c.******* Digoxin d.****** Verapamil 172.* Erythema Nodosum is caused by a.******* Sulphonamides b.****** Phenytoin c.******* Phenylbutazone d.****** Penecillin * * 173.* Which of the following cytokines synthesized by the LOX enzyme is involved in chemotaxis a.******* B4 b.****** C4 c.******* D4 d.****** E4 174.* True about TxA2 synthesized by endothelium is a.******* Inhibits platelet aggregation b.****** Causes vasoconstriction c.******* All of the above d.****** None of the above 175.* Benzathine penicillin is used in treatment of a.******* Endocarditis b.****** Septicemia c.******* Primary syphilis d.****** UTI 176.* Most common cause of infection in surgical wounds is a.******* Staph epidermidis b.****** Staph aureus c.******* Pseudomonas d.****** Streptococci 177.* Chronic exposure with which of the following particle size causes chronic lung disease a.******* 0.5-3 microns b.****** 5-10 microns c.******* 3-5 microns d.****** 0.01-0-5 microns 178.* Which of the following is a common child affective viruses a.******* Adenovirus b.****** CMV c.******* Parainfleunza d.****** Herpes simplex 179.* Narcolepsy is a.******* Narcotic induced epilepsy b.****** Narcotic induced depression c.******* Attacks of sleep and paralysis d.****** Narcotic withdrawal reaction 180.* The best way to gauge the IQ of a child is by looking at a.******* Gross motor development b.****** Fine motor development c.******* Psychosocial d.****** Language * * 181.* Cherry red spot is seen in a.******* CRVO b.****** CRAO c.******* Branch retinal vien occlusion d.****** Papillodema 182.* Cherry red spot is commonly seen in a.******* Gauchers disease b.****** Taysachs disease c.******* Hurlers syndrome d.****** Von gierkes disease 183.* Cubitus varus deformity occurs most commonly due to a.******* Malunited lateral condyle # b.****** Malunited supracondylar # c.******* Medial epicondyle # d.****** Elbow dislocation 184.* Vibices is another term for a.******* Subcutaneous hypostasis b.****** Arboresent markings c.******* Lichtenburgs markings d.****** Joule burns 185.* When permanent canine appears it correlates with the appearance of which of the following ossification centers a.******* Olecranon b.****** Pissiform c.******* Patella d.****** Head of femur 186.* In comparison of famotidine to cimetidine. They differ in all of the following except a.******* Antiandrogenic effect b.****** Oral bioavailability when given along with food c.******* Duration of action d.****** Side effects 187.* Posterior pituitary stores and releases which of the following hormones a.******* TSH and GH b.****** TSH and LH c.******* ADH and Prolactin d.****** Oxytocin and vassopressin 188.* Invitro fertilization is mainly used when the cause of infertility is due to a.******* Oligospermia b.****** Tubal abnormaities c.******* Anovulation d.****** Cord factor 189.* Regarding water absorption in PCT all of the following are seen in except a.******* 60% reabsorbed b.****** Depends on ADH c.******* Passive d.****** Active absorption of solutes * 190.* IV bicarbonate is given in a.******* Metabolic alkalosis b.****** Metabolic acidosis c.******* Head injury d.****** Uncompensated respiratory acidosis 191.* Normal anion gap acidosis is seen in a.******* Chronic renal failure b.****** Diarrhea c.******* Diabetic ketoacidosis d.****** Methanol poisoning 192.* The endothelial cells have specialized receptors for which of following a.******* HDL b.****** LDL c.******* Oxidized LDL d.****** Oxidized VLDL 193.* Most common parotid tumor is a.******* Pleomorphic adenoma b.****** Adenocarcinoma c.******* Warthins tumor d.****** SCC 194.* The toxin implicated in lathyrism is a.******* Sanguinarine b.****** Beta oxalyl amino acid c.******* Pyrrazolidine d.****** Aflatoxin 195.* The enzyme required for the generation of the ammonium ion in the kidney is a.******* Glutamate dehydrogenase b.****** Glutamate aspartate transaminase c.******* Glutaminase d.****** Glutamate carboxylase |
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