Here I am giving you question paper for Tamil Nadu common entrance test MCA course examination in PDF file attached with it .

1
1. Arrange the following fractions in decreasing
(descending) order
(1)
5 3 5 6 , , ,
6 4 8 7
(2)
1 3 3 21 , , ,
2 5 10 10
(3)
7 5 17 1 , , ,
12 16 36 3
(4)
2 5 22 13 , , ,
9 177 1091 558
2. A vessel full of water weighs 16.5 kg. When the vessel
is
1
4
full, it weighs 5.25 kg. Find the weight of empty
vessel.
(1) 1.5 kg (2) 2.0 kg
(3) 1.3 kg (4) 2.5 kg
3. 36 is 6% of what number?
(1) 800 (2) 600
(3) 1200 (4) 400
4. The ratio of salary of a worker in July to that in June
was
1 1
2 :2 .
2 4
By what % was the salary of July more
than the salary of June?
(1)
1 11
9 (2) 12
(3) 13 (3) None of the above
5. A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg enables a man to purchase
4 kg more sugar for Rs. 16. Find the original price of
sugar.
(1) Rs. 3 (2) Rs. 5
(3) Rs. 4 (4) None of the above
6. 30 pens and 75 pencils were purchased for Rs. 510. If
the average price of a pencil was Rs. 2, find the average
price of the pen
(1) Rs. 12 (2) Rs. 14
(3) Rs. 20 (4) None of the above
7. The average monthly expenditure of a family was Rs.
2,200 during the first 3 months, Rs. 2,250 during the
next 4 months and Rs. 3,210 during the last 5 months of
the year. If total savings during the year was Rs. 1,260.
Find the average monthly income.
(1) Rs. 1,500 (2) Rs. 2,800
(3) Rs. 2,000 (4) Rs. 2,805
8. The average temperature of June, July and August was
31 degree centigrade. The average temperature of July,
August and September was 30 degree centigrade. If
the temperature of June was 29 degree centigrade. Find
the temperature of September.
(1) 24 (2) 28
(3) 26 (4) None of the above
9. The average age of 40 students in a class is 15 years.
When 10 new students are admitted, the average is
increased by 0.2 year. Find the average age of the new
students.
(1) 14 (2) 18
(3) 16 (4) 20
10. What must be subtracted from each term of the ratio
3 : 7 so that the ratio becomes 2 : 5
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) None of the above
11. The ratio of the number of ladies to gents at a party
was 1 : 2, but when 2 ladies and 2 gents left, the ratio
became 1 : 3. How many people were originally present
in the party?
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 20 (4) None of the above
12. The sum of the present age of A, B and C is 90 years.
Six years ago, their age were in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. What
is the present age of C?
(1) 36 years (2) 44 years
(3) 48 years (4) 48 years
13. Two sums of money are in the ratio of 2 : 5. If the
second sum is Rs. 95, find the first sum.
(1) 38 (2) 36
(3) 40 (4) None of the above
14. In a Business A, B and C invested Rs. 380, Rs. 400 and
Rs. 420 respectively. Divide a net profit of Rs. 180 among
the partners
(1) 57 : 60 : 63 (2) 60 : 60 : 60
(3) 62 : 28 : 50 (4) None of the above
15. In what proportion should one variety of oil at Rs. 9.50
per kg be mixed with another at Rs. 10 per kg to get a
mixture worth Rs. 9.60 per kg.
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 6 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) None of the above
16. One litre of water is added to 5 litres of 20% solution of
alcohol and water. What is the final strength of alcohol?
(1) 16% (2)
2 16 %
3
(3) 18% (4) None of the above
17. Six kilograms of tea at Rs. 6 per kg and 4 kg of tea at Rs.
7 per kg are mixed together and the mixture is sold at
10% profit. What is the selling price per kg of the
mixture?
(1) Rs. 7.04 (2) Rs. 7
(3) Rs. 8 (4) None of the above
18. If 120 men can do a job in 100 days, in how many days
will 150 men do it?
(1) 60 days (2) 80 days
(3) 120 days (4) None of the above
19. One thousand men in a fortress have provisions for 12
days. How long will the provisions last if 200 more
men join them?
(1) 14 days (2) 12 days
(3) 10 days (4) 16 days
20. A and B can do a job alone in 20 days and 30 days
respectively. In how many days the job will be finished
if A and B work together?
(1) 10 (2) 14
(3) 12 (4) 18
21. There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. Before the
leak, it could be filled in 4.5 hours. It now takes
1
2
hour
longer. If the cistern if full, how long would the leakage
empty the full cistern?
(1) 40 hours
(2) 45 hours
(3) 42 hours
(4) None of the above
22. A person purchases 36 oranges per rupee and suffers
a loss of 4%. Find how many oranges per rupee he is
required to purchase to have a gain of 8%?
(1) 32 (2) 30
(3) 28 (4) None of the above
23. On what sum of money lent out at 9% per annum simple
interest for 6 years does the simple interest amount to
Rs. 810?
(1) Rs. 1,200 (2) Rs. 1,400
(3) Rs. 4,500 (4) None of the above
24. What sum of money lent out at a compound interest
will amount to Rs. 968 in 2 years at 10% per annum
interest being charged annually?
(1) Rs. 800 (2) Rs. 600
(3) Rs. 1,200 (4) None of the above
25. Find the distance covered by a man walking for 12
minutes at a speed of 3.5 km/hour.
(1) 700 metres (2) 800 metres
(3) 1200 metres (4) None of the above
Directions for Questions 26 to 29 :
Use the following passage for Questions 26 to 29 :
An employee has been assigned the tasks of allotting
officers to six of the staff members. The offices are numbered
1–6. The offices are arranged in a row and they are separated
from each other by six foot high dividers. Hence voices,
sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to
another.
Miss. Robert’s needs to use the telephone quite often
throughout the day. Mr. Mike and Mr. Brown needed
adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often
while working. Miss. Hardy is a senior employee and has to
be allotted office number 5, having the biggest window.
Mr. Donald requires silence in the offices next to his.
Mr. Tim, MR. Mike and Mr. Donald are all smokers. Miss
Hardy finds tobacco smoke allergic and consecutively the
offices next to hers to be occupied by nonsmokers.
Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain
an atmosphere of silence during office hours.
26. The ideal candidate to occupy the office farthest from
Mr. Brown would be
(1) Miss. Hardy (2) Mr. Mike
(3) Mr. Tim (4) Mr. Donald
27. The three employees who are smokers should be
seated in the offices?
(1) 1, 2 and 4 (2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 1, 2 and 6 (4) 2, 3 and 6
3
28. The ideal office for Mr. Mike would be
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 1
29. In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one
month since the assignment of the offices, would one
or more employees put a request for a change in office
forth?
(1) Mr. Donald quitting smoking
(2) Mr. Tim taking over the duties formerly taken care
of by Miss. Robert.
(3) Mr. Brown suffering from laryngitis
(4) The installation of a noisy teletype machine by
Miss. Hardy in her office
Directions for Questions 30 to 33 :
Nine individuals Z,
Y, X, W, V, U, T, S and R are the
only candidates, who can serve on three committees A,
B
and C, and each candidate should serve on exactly one of
the committees.
Committee A should consist of exactly one member more
than committee B. It is possible that there are no members of
committee C. Among Z, Y and X none can serve on committee
A. Among W, V and U none can serve on committee G. Among
T, S and R none can serve on committee C.
30. In case T and Z are the individuals serving on
committee B, how many of the nine individuals should
serve on committee C?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4 ) 6
31. Of the nine individuals, the largest number that can
serve together on committee C is
(1) 9 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 6
32. In case any of the nine individuals serves on committee
C, which among the following should be the candidate
to serve on committee A?
(1) Z (2) Y
(3) W (4) S
33. Among the following combinations which could
constitute the membership of committee C?
(1) X and U (2) Y and T
(3) Y, X and W (4) Z, X, U and R
Directions for Questions 34 to 35 :
(M, N, O and P are all different individuals)
I. M is the daughter of N.
II. N is the son of O.
III. O is the father of P.
34. Among the following statements, which is true?
(1) If B is the daughter of N then M and B are sisters
(2) O is the uncle of M
(3) If C is the granddaughter of O, then C and M are
sisters
(4) P and N are brothers
35. Which among the following statements is
contradictory to the above premises?
(1) O has three children
(2) M has one brother
(3) P is the father of M
(4) Another party C, could be the mother of M
Directions for Questions 36 to 38 :
A bus has exactly six stops on its route. The bus first
stops at stop one and then at stops two, three, four, five and
six respectively. After the bus leaves stop six, the bus turns
and returns to stop one and repeats the cycle. The stops are
at six building that are, in alphabetical order L, M, N, O, P
and Q.
P is the third stop.
M is the sixth stop.
The stop O is the stop immediately before Q.
N is the stop immediately before L.
36. In case N is the fourth stop, which among the following
must be the stop immediately before P?
(1) O (2) N
(3) L (4) Q
37. In case L is the second stop, which among the
following must be the stop immediately before M?
(1) L (2) P
(3) Q (4) O
38. In case passenger gets on the bus at O, rides past one
of the stops, and gets off at P, which of the following
must be true?
(1) O is stop one (2) Q is stop three
(3) P is stop four (4) N is stop five
4
39. What is the greatest integer that divides 4 p –1 for
every prime number p greater than 5?
(1) 240 (2) 30
(3) 120 (4) 48
40. The coefficient
of 3 x in the expansion of
( )( ) 10 3 2 1 2 x x + + is
(1) 31 (2) 14 2
(3) 3 1 3 10 C C + (4) 9
1 2 *10C
41. How many continuous realvalued
functions f are there
with domain (–1, 1) such that ( ) 2 2 f x x = é ù ë û for each x
in (–1, 1)?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
42. The inside of a certain water tank is cubic measuring
10 feet on each edge and having vertical sides and no
top. Let h (t) denote the water level in feet, above the
floor of the tank at time t seconds. Starting at time t = 0,
water pours into the tank at a constant rate of 1 cubic
foot per second and simultaneously, water is removed
from the tank at a rate of 0.25 h (t) cubic feet per second.
As , t ®¥ what is the limit of the volume of the water
in the tank?
(1) 600 cu feet (2) 1000 cu feet
(3) 400 cu feet (4) The limit does not exist
43. Let x and y be uniformly distributed, independent
random variable on [0, 1]. The probability that the
distance between x and y is less than
1
2
is
(1)
2
3 (2)
1
4
(3)
3
4
(4)
1
3
44. For 0 < t < , p will the matrix given below has distinct
complex eigen values 1 l and 2 l . For what value of t,
0 < t < p , is 1 2 1? l l + =
cos sin
sin cos
t t
t t
(1) 3
p
(2) 6
p
(3)
2
p
(4)
4
p
45. A fair coin is to be tossed 8 times. What is the
probability that more of the tosses will result in heads
than will result in tails?
(1)
1
4
(2)
93
256
(3)
87
256 (4)
1
3
46. The function ( ) 3 3 , f x y xy x y = - - has a relative
maximum at the points
(1) (0, 0) (2) (1, 1)
(3)
1 1 ,
2 2
æ ö
ç ÷
è ø
(4)
1 1 ,
3 3
æ ö
ç ÷
è ø
47. How many integers from 1 to 1000 are divisible by 30
but not by 16
(1) 31 (2) 32
(3) 29 (4) 38
48. When 20 children in a classroom line up for lunch,
Ramu insists on being somewhere ahead of Somu. If
Ramu’s demand is to be satisfied, in how many ways
can the children line up?
(1)
20!
2
(2) 20!
(3) 19! (4)
19!
2
49. Which of the following will NOT be a root of the
polynomial in x of the form 5 3 9 , x ax b + + where a and
6 are integers?
(1) –9 (2) –5
(3)
1
4
(4)
1
3
50. If S is a nonempty
finite set with k elements then the
number of onetoone
functions from S onto S is
(1) k! (2) 2 k
(3) 2 k (4) 1 2 k+
51. What comes in this series?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5
52. What comes in this series?
53. What comes in this series?
54. What comes in this series?
55. What comes in this series?
Directions : Question numbers 56 to 60 are based on
the following formation :
i. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle
and are facing the center
ii. G is second to the left of C, who is immediate left
of F
iii. A is third to the left of E
iv. B is between D and E
56. Which of the following is true?
(1) B is second to the right of G
(2) D is second to the left of E
(3) A is to the immediate right of G
(4) C is fourth to the left of B
57. Which of the following has the middle person sitting
between the remaining two?
(1) EFB (2) DEB
(3) GDA (4) None of the above
58. Which of the following is false?
1. F is third to the right of D
2. B is to the immediate left of D
3. G is to the immediate right of D
4. A is fourth to the right of E
59. Which of the following is the position of F?
(1) To the immediate left of C
(2) Fourth to the right of D
(3) Between A and E
(4) To the immediate right of A
60. Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting
to the immediate left of the second person?
(1) BE (2) GD
(3) CA (4) DG
61. Which of the following have the same relationship
between them as is there between OT : PS?
(1) PN : PM (2) BE : FC
(3) IL : HK (4) None of the above
62. A is the uncle of B, who is the daughter of C and C is
the daughterinlaw
of P. How is A related to P?
(1) Son (2) Soninlaw
(3) Brother (4) Data inadequate
: :: :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
X X X
X X X X
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6
63. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as
‘IJCNMWP’ AND ‘MISRULE’ is written as ‘OGUSSNC’
then how will ‘TOPICAL’ be written in that code?
(1) VMRJACJ (2) VNRJABJ
(3) VMRHACJ (4) VMRJECN
63. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as
‘IJCNMWP’ and ‘MISRULE’ is written as ‘OGUSSNC’
then how will ‘TOPICAL’ be written in that code?
(1) VMRJACJ (2) VMRJABJ
(3) VMRHACJ (4)VMRJECN
64. Waves are related to Air in the same way as Ripples
are related to
(1) World (2) Water
(3) Storm (4) Smoke
65. Earth : Axis : Wheel :?
(1) Tyre (2) Care
(3) Road (4) Hub
66. Pava is bigger than Java. Java is bigger than Mava.
Rava is not as big as Sava, but is bigger than Java.
Mava is not as big as Java. Who is the smallest?
(1) Java (2) Pava
(3) Rava (4) Mava
67. If Ritu runs less faster than Gopa and Gopa runs as
fast but not faster than Masha, then Masha runs
(1) As fast as Ritu
(2) Faster than Gopa
(3) Faster than Ritu
(4) Less faster than Ritu
68. Poles : Magnet :: ………… : Battery
(1) Cells (2) Power
(3) Terminals (4) Energy
69. ACFJ : ZXUQ :: EGJN :?
(1) VUSQ (2) VTRP
(3) VRPM (4) VTQM
Directions Questions 70 to 72 : Select the one which
is different from the other three responses:
70. (1) BFIK (2) DHKM
(3) MQTV (4) PRVX
71. (1) UAVBWC (2) CHIDJE
(3) XLYMZN (4) PEQFRG
72. (1) Madam (2) Eye
(3) Hand (4) Malayalam
73. By looking in the mirror, it appears that it is 6 : 30 in the
clock. What is the real time?
(1) 6 : 30 (2) 5 : 30
(3) 6 : 00 (4) 5 : 00
74. A man walks 6 km towards the north, then turns towards
his left and walks for 4 km. He again turns left and
walks for 6 km. At this point, he turns to his right and
walks for 6 km. How many km and in what direction is
he from the starting point?
(1) 10 km and West
(2) 6 km and South
(3) 4 km and South
(4) 8 km and West
75. Find out from the set of numbers that does not belong
to the group for lack of common property
(1) 22, 4, 5 (2) 34, 4, 8
(3) 37, 4, 9 (4) 54, 4, 13
76. What does ISP stand for?
1. Internet Standard protocol
2. Integrated Standard Processing
3. Internet Service Provider
4. International Services Provision
77. In the email ID checkthisout.server.com, checkthisout
part is known as
(1) URL (2) User ID
(3) Network address (4) com address
78. Which of the following are considered as the three
categories of ecommerce?
1. Electronic markets, Electronic Data Interchange
and Internet Commerce
2. Internet, web services and search engines
3. Web serves, corporate servers and share markets
4. Emails,
esecurity
and etransactions
79. Which of the following poultry farms has deployed
OSS/Linux to meet its daily computing?
(1) Red hat Poultry Farms
(2) Microsoft Poultry Farms
(3) Reliance Poultry Farms
(4) Suguna Poultry Farms
7
80. What is RFID?
(1) Radar Frequency Intensive Devices
(2) Radio Frequency Identification
(3) Redundant Fault Indicating Devices
(4) Rapid Fault Identifying Devices
81. The advertising company that Google purchased
recently is
(1) Rainbow show (2) Bridge game
(3) Mouse click (4) Double click
82. What is CMM?
(1) Cooperative Management Model
(2) Coexisting Manual Method
(3) Capability Maturity Model
(4) Consistent Modeling Methodology
83. Which one among the following is not an antivirus
company?
(1) McAfee (2) Norman
(3) Symantec (4) Microsoft
84. Intel’s latest processors are
(1) multicore
processors
(2) embedded processors
(3) DSP processors
(4) Graphics processors
85. Bluetooth technology helps to transfer files between
(1) Clients and web servers
(2) Multiple Internet servers
(3) Multiple mobile devices
(4) Sensor nodes and web servers
86. What is a firewall?
(1) It protects the network from unwanted traffic
(2) It prevents the system from generating excessive
heat
(3) It detects the occurrence of any fault in the
functioning of the network
(4) It analyses the failure rate of the system
87. The company that has proposed to make IP phones in
Chennai is
(1) Norton (2) CISCO
(3) IBM (4) Intel
88. Which one among the following is not a Router
manufacturer?
(1) Jumper systems (2) CISCO
(3) Susi (4) Jumper and CISCO
89. The system software that translates high level language
to machine language is called
(1) Interpreter (2) Compiler
(3) Assembler (4) Translator
90. Flash memory is
(1) a nonvolatile
memory
(2) an expensive memory
(3) a mass storage memory
(4) used to store frequently used data
91. A database is
(1) the basis of all data stored in the computer
(2) structured collection of records
(3) an organized collection of system data
(4) a repository of information from the internet
92. Which one of the following search engine is for kids?
(1) Northern Light (2) CyberSleuth
(3) Zoom (4) Bang
93. Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a subfield of
(1) Linguistics and computing
(2) AI and linguistics
(3) Databases and linguistics
(4) Internet and linguistics
94. Expand w3c
(1) web computing, commercializing and canvassing
(2) web conferences, computing and corporates
(3) web computing ver. 3
(4) world wide web consortium
95. Which one of the following is not a programming
language?
(1) Rube (2) Small talk
(3) Python (4) Snake
96. What is WSDL?
(1) Web Specification and Description Logic
(2) Web Support and Distribution Limited
(3) Web Systems and Data Labs
(4) Web Services Definition Language
8
97. Which one of the following were used in 1st
generation computers?
(1) Vacuum tubes
(2) Transistors
(3) Integrated circuits
(4) Microprocessors
98. IEEE 802.11 denotes standards for
(1) Ethernet
(2) Wireless LAN/WAN
(3) Campus network
(4) Global network
99. USB
(1) Uniform System Bus
(2) Utility and Support Board
(3) Universal Synchronous Bus
(4) Universal Serial Bus
100. IPods are
(1) mobile storage devices
(2) small interface devices
(3) portable media players
(4) tiny computing devices