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Old June 13th, 2014, 04:55 PM
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Default Previous year question papers of All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination

Cab you please give me the previous year question papers of All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination in PDF format?

As you want to get the previous year question papers of All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination in PDF format so here is the information of the same for you:

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1. ALL is predisposed to by
a. Blooms syndrome
b. Fanconi’s syndrome
c. Ataxic telengectasia
d. Turners syndrome
e. Diamond blackfan syndrome
2. Klinefelters syndrome is associated with
a. XXY
b. Male phenotype
c. Infertility
d. Azoospermia
e. Bar body absent
3. True about testicular feminization is/are
a. Testes present
b. Female phenotype
c. XY
d. Secondary amennorhea
e. Uterus present

4. The activity of the following enzymes is decreased in starvation
a. Acy carnitine tranferase
b. Lipoprotien lipase
c. Citrate cleavage enzyme
d. Fatty acid synthase
e. Phosphoglucomutase
5. Regarding laryngomalacia true is/are
a. Most common cause of stridor in newborn
b. Sigma shaped epiglottis
c. Inspiratory stridor
d. Most require surgery
e. Stridor worsens on lying in prone position
6. When acute appendicitis is suspected it can be confirmed by
a. Clinical examination
b. Ultrasound
c. CT scan
d. TLC and DLC
e. Upper GI endoscopy
7. A female presenting with history of rash and polyarthritis. It is associated with
a. Antinuclear antibody
b. RA factor is positive
c. Bad obstetric history
d. Increased PTT
e. HLA B 27
8. All of the following are blood buffers except
a. Phosphates
b. Plasma proteins
c. Bicarbonates
d. Oxygen
e. Heamoglobin
9. Supine hypotension is seen in
a. Obesity
b. Ascites
c. Abdominal tumors
d. Pregnancy
e. Bradycardia

10. Lipid lowering drugs act on
a. HMG coA synthetase
b. HMG coA reductase
c. Mevalonate kinase
d. Lipase
e. Acyl coA transferase
11. Sterilizing agents include
a. Cyclohexidene
b. Ethelyne oxide
c. Diethyl ether
d. Gallamine
12. A patient presenting with a fasting blood sugar of 180 and post prandial sugar of 260. The management in his case include
a. Glibenclamide
b. Diet therapy + exercise
c. Diet therapy + exercise + metphormin
d. Insulin
e. Chlorpropamide
13. IgE is secreted by
a. Mast cells
b. Eosinophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Basophils
e. Neutrophils
14. Classical complement pathway is activated by
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgD
15. 3rd nerve palsy is caused by
a. Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
b. Mid brain infarct
c. Lateral medullary lesions
d. Pons infarct
e. Cerebellar tumors
16. Bilateral enlarged kidneys are seen in
a. Chronic glomerulonephritis
b. Pyelonephritis
c. Benign nephrosclerosis
d. Polycystic kidneys
e. Amylodosis
17. Trophic ulcers are caused by
a. Leprosy
b. Deep vien thrombosis
c. Burgers disease
d. Secondary syphilis
18. Burgers disease is associated with
a. Smoking
b. Poor nutrition
c. Alcoholic
d. Prolonged standing
e. Superficial thrombophlebitis
19. Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla are
a. Glucagon
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Insulin
e. Thyroxine
20. Hemithorax opacity with contralateral shift of mediastinum is
a. Massive pleural effusion
b. Consolidation
c. Collapse of lung
d. Large mass
e. Pneumothorax
21. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in association with
a. Succinate dehydrgenase
b. Alpha ketogluterate dehydrogenase
c. Succinate thiokinase
d. Malanate dehydrogenase
e. Cis-aconitase
22. Alkylating agents include
a. Doxorubicin
b. Chlorambucil
c. Vincristine
d. Nitrogen mustard
e. Busulphan

23. Submucous glands are present in
a. Oesophagus
b. Doudenum
c. Stomach
d. Ascending colon
e. Ileum
24. True regarding Pendreds syndrome is
a. Consistently associated with deafness
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Mutation in the connexion coding region
d. Mutation in chromosome 21 causing reecptor defect
25. True about carotid body tumor is
a. Non chromaffin paraganglioma
b. Good prognosis
c. Rarely metastasize
d. Is similar to mixed parotid tumor
26. Burkits lymphoma is associated with
a. B cell lymphoma
6-14 translocation
b. Can present with abdominal mass
c. Raditherapy is used in treatment
27. Hepatic infarcts are seen in
a. Preeclampsia
b. Chronic venous congestion
c. Budd chiarri syndrome
d. Sepsis
e. Extrahepatic biliary atresia
28. Anti psychotics used in treatment of shizophrenia are
a. Halopredol
b. Chlorpromozine
c. Immipramine
d. Olanzapine
e. Resperidone

29. Interventricular septum is developed from
a. Conus septum
b. Endocardial cushion defect
c. Left horn of sinus venosus
d. Ostium septum
e. Truncus septum
30. Physiological changes in pregnancy are
a. Insulin level is increased
b. There is increased BMR
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Growth hormone levels are decreased
31. High hepatic extraction ration is seen
a. Propranolol
b. Lidocaine
c. Diazepam
d. Phenytoin
e. Theophylline
32. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis
a. Arginine
b. Homocysteine
c. Cysteine
d. Tryptophan
e. Alanine
33. Varicose viens are seen in
a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Superficial venous thrombosis
c. AV fistula
d. Prolonged standing
e. Hypertension

34. Superficial perineal muscles include
a. Superficial transverse peroneii
b. Bulbospongiosis
c. Ischiocavernosis
d. Iliococcygeous
e. Pubococcygeous
35. The visual pathway consists of all of the following except
a. Optic tract
b. Geniculocalcerine fissure
c. Lateral geniculate body
d. Inferior colliculous
e. Pretectal region
36. Plantar flexion is brought about by which of the following muscles
a. Plantaris
b. Flexor hallucis longus
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Peroneus brevis
e. Soleus
37. Adductors of the vocal cords include
a. Posterior cricoaretenoids
b. Cricothyroid
c. Anterior cricoaretenoids
d. Aretenoepiglottis
e. Transverse cricoaretenoids
38. Branches of anterior internal iliac arteries include
a. Posterior gluteal
b. Uterine
c. Obturator
d. Pudendal
e. Iliolumbar
39. In a CT scan cut section at the level of the celiac trunk, which of the following structures can be identified
a. Pancreas
b. Gall bladder
c. Inferior vena cava
d. Duodenum
e. Portal vien
40. In oculomotor nerve palsy, which of the following causes can be implicated
a. Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
b. Tolosa Hunt syndrome
c. Midbrain infarct
d. Pons Infarct
e. Lateral medullary lesions
41. Branches of the basilar artery include
a. Posterior inferior cerebral artery
b. Posterior cerebral artery
c. Middle cerebral artery
d. Posterior communicating artery
e. Anterior cerebral artery
42. Regarding acid secretion in the stomach
a. Increased gastrin secretion increases secretion
b. Secretin decreases secretion
c. Fractional test meal is the best screening index
d. H2 receptor blockers block acid secretion
e. Total acid secretion reflects on the functional parietal cell mass
43. In a patient with transplanted heart which of the following are reasons for increased cardiac output in him during exercise
a. Reinnevation of the heart by the vagus
b. Intrinsic mechanisms
c. Increased epinephrine released from medulla
d. Bainbridge reflex
e. Due to Starlings effect

44. Regarding the renal excretion
a. Sodium reabsorption occurs in the DCT
b. Pottassium is both excreted and reabsorbed in the tubules
c. Heamoglobin is not excerted in the glomerulus as it is a large molecule
d. Glucose is reabsorbed in the DCT
e. Amino acids are reabsorbed in the collecting ducts
45. The histopathological features of Shock include
a. Acute tubular necrosis
b. Lung infarcts
c. Depletion of lipids in adrenal medulla
d. Periportal hepatic necrosis
e. Depletion of lymphocytes
46. In a patient which of the following would cause rhabdomyolisis and myoglobulinuria
a. Hyperpyrexia
b. Viper snake venom
c. Multiple hornet stings
d. Prolonged coma
e. Anemia
47. In the body bilirubin is obtained from
a. Heamoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Muscle
d. Cholestrol
e. Amino acids
48. All of the following are required for fat digestion except
a. Bile pigment
b. Gastric lipase
c. Colipase
d. Bile salts
e. Pancreatic lipase
49. Causes of sterile pyuria without urinary tract infection include
a. Cortical tubercular abcess
b. Pyelonephritis
c. Fungal infection
d. Gonococcal infection
e. Urolithiasis
50. Criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma include
a. Plasma cells in bone marrow greater then 30%
b. Bence jones proteins
c. Lytic bone lesions
d. Decreased beta 2 microglobulins
e. Rouleux formation in the blood
51. In a patient with acute arsenic poisoning which of the following strictures would show accumulation of arsenic
a. Liver
b. Bone marrow
c. Skin
d. Kidney
e. Brain
52. Both hepatic and renal failures can be caused by which of the following
a. Paracetamol toxicity
b. Carbon tetrachloride
c. Arsenic
d. Copper sulphate
e. Silver nitrate
53. Chronic arsenic poisoning causes
a. Pure sensory neuropathy
b. Pure Motor neuropathy
c. Mixed motor and sensory neuropathy
d. Painful neuropathy
e. Hyperkeratosis
54. Widmarks formula is used for estimation of
a. Cocaine
b. Arsenic
c. Alcohol
d. Carbon monoxide
e. Lead
55. McNaughtens rule is applicable in
a. Calculating length of fetus
b. In estimating stature
c. In insanity
d. In dactylography
e. To detect metals
56. Not seen in Wrights stain is
a. Reticulocytes
b. Basophilic stippling
c. Heinz bodies
d. Howell jolly bodies
e. Clot rings

57. Motor neuropathy is caused by
a. Dapsone
b. Cisplatin
c. Arsenic
d. Lead
e. Hypothyroidism
58. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is caused by
a. Supracondylar #
b. Lateral condyle #
c. Olecranon #
d. Distal radioulnar dislocation
e. Medial condylar #
59. Hb A2 is increased in
a. Alpha thallessemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Beta thallessemia
d. Sickle cell trait
e. Megaloblastic anemia
60. Metaphysical lesions seen commonly are
a. Metaphyseal fractures
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Ewings sarcoma
e. Osteoclastoma
61. True regarding salmonella gastroenteritis include
a. Mainly diagnosed by serology
b. Blood and mucous are present in stools
c. Caused via animal products
d. Symptoms appear between 8 -48 hours
e. The features are mainly due to exotoxin released
62. True regarding E-Coli is/are
a. The LT labile toxin in ETEC acts via cAMP
b. In those types causing urinary infections the organism attaches by pili antigen
c. The ST stable toxin of ETEC is responsible for causation of HUS
d. The EIEC invasiveness is under plasmid control
e. In EPEC the toxin helps in invasion of the organism
63. The sputum examination under district TB control programme is done when the patient presents with which of the following
a. Cough for 1-2 weeks
b. Cough for 3-4 weeks
c. Heamoptysis
d. Chest pain
e. Intermittent fever
64. In cryptoccocal infection the organism can be readily demonstrated by
a. Albert’s stain
b. India ink stain
c. Giemsa stain
d. Grams stain
e. Zeil Niehlson stain
65. Regarding HSV 2 infection which of the following are correct
a. Primary infection is usually wide spread
b. Recurrent attacks occur due to latent infection
c. Encephalitis is commonly caused by it
d. Newborn acquires the infection via the birth canal or at the time of labor
i. Treatment is by acyclovir
66. IgE is secreted by
a. Mast cells
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Plasma cells
e. Neutrophils
67. The T helper cell subtype attach to which of the following sites
a. MHC I cells
b. MHC II cells
c. Processed peptide
d. CD8
e. Delta region

68. Apart from B cells, T cells there is a distinct third type of lymphocytes. They are
a. MHC cells
b. NK cells
c. Macrophages
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils
69. All of the following are antigen presenting cells except
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Fibroblasts
d. Dendritic cells
e. Langerhans cells
70. All of the following are true regarding H pylori except
a. Gram negative bacilli
b. Strongly associated with Duodenal ulcer
c. Associated with lymphoma
d. C14 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis
e. It should be eradicated in all cases when ever detected
71. Breast cancer is seen more commonly in women who
a. Consume non vegetarian food
b. Have early menopause
c. Smoke
d. Have multiple sex partners
e. Who did not breast feed their babies
72. Predisposing factors in colonic cancer is/are
a. Animal fat consumption
b. Familial adenomatous polyposis
c. Ulcerative colitis
d. Crohns disease
e. Tuberculosis
73. Abdominoperineal resection is preferred in colorectal cancer based on which of the following
a. Age of patient
b. Distance from anal verge
c. Fixity of tumor
d. Hepatic metastasis
e. Extent of tumor
74. Predisposing factors for skin cancer are
a. Lichen planus
b. Leukoplakia
c. Bowens disease
d. Psoriasis
e. Behcets disease
75. True regarding ankylosing spondylitis is
a. More common in men
b. Associated with HLA B 27
c. Associated with B8
d. Affects only small joints
76. Squamous cell carcinoma in bladder is predisposed to by
a. Urolithiasis
b. Shistosomiasis
c. Persistent urachus
d. Polyp
e. Smoking
77. Restrictive Fragment Length Polymorphism is used in the diagnosis of
a. Thallessemia
b. Sickle cell trait
c. Gilbert’s syndrome
d. Phenylketonuria
e. Von Gierke’s disease
78. True regarding Gilberts syndrome is/are
a. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
b. Increased liver transaminases
c. Bleeding tendencies
d. Autoantibodies are present

79. Regarding cholestasis of pregnancy which of the following is/are true
a. Deep jaundice is present
b. Pruritus is the 1st symptom
c. Maximum during the third trimester
d. Raised liver transaminases
80. Purpuric rashes are seen in
a. Dengue
b. Borrelia
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Measles
e. Typhoid
81. The most sensitive structure in a cell for radiotherapy is
a. Cell membrane
b. Mitochondria membrane
c. DNA
d. Plasma membrane
e. Cell enzymes
82. In spectroscopy nucleotides absorb at 260 nm wavelength. This absorption is due to
a. Purines and pyrimidines
b. Deoxyribose
c. Ribose
d. Histones
e. Phosphates
83. Regarding oncogenesis
a. Topoisomerase II causes break in both strands
b. P53 is the most common oncogene mutation causing cancer in humans
c. At G2-M phase there is loss of inhibitors controlling cell cycle
d. Decrease in telomerase activity causes antitumor effect
84. The investigation of choice in acute cholecystitis is
a. Ultrasound
b. HIDA scan
c. CT scan
d. Oral cholestogram
e. MRI

85. All can cause hyperglycemia except
a. Growth hormone
b. Cortisol
c. Epinephrine
d. Glucagon
e. Insulin
86. Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by
a. Parathyroid hyperplasia
b. Parathyroid adenoma
c. MEN syndrome
d. Thyrotoxicosis
e. Chronic renal failure
87. Hyperphosphatemia with hypocalcemia is seen in
a. CRF
b. Pseudohypoparathyroidsim
c. Tumor lysis syndrome
d. Vitamin D intoxication
e. Sarcoidosis
88. Raised calcium and phosphate is seen in
a. Chronic renal failure
b. Vitamin D intoxication
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
e. Sarcoidosis
89. Hypokalemia is associated with
a. Furesemide
b. Cortisol
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Amiloride
e. Addison’s disease
90. VIPOMA is associated with
a. Watery diarrhea
b. Hypochlorhydria
c. Hyperchlorhydria
d. Hyperkalemia
e. Hypokalemia
91. Universal finding in Asthma is
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypercarbia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Respiratory acidosis
e. Metabolic acidosis
92. Which of the following are seen in DIC
a. Increased PT
b. Increased BT
c. Decreased fibrinogen degradation products
d. Normal platelet count
e. Decreased fibrinogen
93. True regarding postmenopausal osteoporosis is/are
a. Decreased Vitamin D
b. Decreased calcium
c. Normal serum chemistries
d. Decreased Vitamin C
e. Ammenorrhea
94. Varicose veins are seen in
a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Superficial venous thrombosis
c. AV fistula
d. Prolonged standing
e. Hypertension
95. Trendlenburgs test is positive in
a. Saphenofemoral incompetence
b. Perforator incompetence above knee
c. Deep vein incompetence
d. Perforator incompetence below knee
e. Superficial thrombophlebitis
96. True regarding A-V fistula is/are
a. Leads to cardiac failure
b. Local gigantism
c. Causes ulcers
d. Causes excess bleeding on injury
e. Closes spontaneously
97. The causes of dilated cardiomyopathy are
a. Viral myocarditis
b. Amylodosis
c. Alcohol
d. Lofflers endocarditis
e. Post partum cardiomyopathy

98. In comparison between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis they are differentiated as in constrictive pericarditis
a. The diastolic pressures are equalized
b. There is mild pericardial effusion
c. The pulmonary artery pressure is lesser then 50 mmHg
d. Presence of right heart failure
e. Associated with septal hypertrophy
99. True regarding inverted papilloma is
a. Common in children
b. Arises from the lateral wall
c. Always benign
d. Can be premalignant
e. Causes obstruction in nose
100. Which of the following are true about carcinoma larynx
a. The glottic carcinoma is the MC
b. Supraglottic has the best prognosis
c. Lymphatic spread is most common in the subglottic type
d. T1 tumor involving the glottis is best treated with radiotherapy only
e. Lymphatic spread is most common in supraglottic type
101. A 14 year old boy presented with epistaxis and a swelling in the cheek. Which of the following is true regarding his condition
a. Diagnosis is nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
b. Contrast CT is used to see the extent
c. Has high propensity to spread to lymphnodes
d. It arises from the roof of the nasopharynx
e. Surgery is treatment of choice

102. Metabolites of tryptophan can give rise to which of the following symptoms
a. Hypotension
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Sweating
d. Predispose to albinism
e. Increase phenylketonuria
103. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis
a. Arginine
b. Homocysteine
c. Cysteine
d. Tryptophan
e. Alanine
104. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in which of the following
a. Carbon monoxide poisoning
c. Anaerobic infection
d. Septicemia
e. Pneumonia
105. Predisposing factors for gastric cancer include
a. Atrophic gastritis
b. Hyperplastic polyp
c. Adenomatous polyp
d. Achlorhydria
e. Animal fat consumption
106. Which of the following are seen in apoptosis
a. Membrane blebs
b. Inflammation
c. Nuclear fragmentation
d. Spindle formation
e. Cell swelling
107. True regarding recurrent thrombophlebitis (migratory thrombophlebitis) is
108. Which of the following investigations would U do for a case of strangulated hernia
a. Xray abdomen
b. Ultrasound abdomen
c. Aspiration of the contents of the sac
d. Correction of volume for hypovolemia
e. Prepare the OT for urgent surgery
109. True regarding carcinoma gall bladder is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type
b. Presents with jaundice
c. Good prognosis
d. Gall stones predispose
e. 65% survival after surgey
110. Genetic abnormalities in the fetus can be diagnosed by
a. Maternal serum
b. Maternal urine
c. Amniotic fluid
d. Choroinic villi
e. Fetal blood
111. Membranous glomerulonephritis is associated with
a. Renal vein thrombosis
b. Hodgkins disease
c. Subepithelial dense deposits
d. Heamturia
e. Acute nephritis
112. Sensorineural deafness is seen in
a. Alports syndrome
b. Pierre Robins syndrome
c. Pendreds syndrome
d. Treacher Collins syndrome
e. Gauchers syndrome

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Old June 14th, 2014, 01:56 PM
Super Moderator
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Default Re: Previous year question papers of All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examina

113. Heamoptysis is seen in
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Pneumonia
e. Empyema
114. Morphine can be administered as
a. Inhalation
b. Rectal
c. Subcutaneous
d. IV
e. Intramuscular

115. Properties making cardioselective beta blockers desirable are
a. Lesser Bronchoconstriction
b. No adverse effect on lipid profile
c. Less glucose intolerance
d. Can be used in Raynauds disease
e. Lesser AV block
116. Arteriolar dilators used in the treatment of congestive heart failure include
a. Hydralizine
b. Nifedipine
c. Prazosin
d. Enalapril
e. Nitrates
117. Diseases caused by EBV include
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
e. Herpangina
118. High hepatic extraction ration is seen
a. Propranolol
b. Lidocaine
c. Diazepam
d. Phenytoin
e. Theophylline
119. The drugs which increase level of theophilline include
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Barbiturates
c. Cimetidine
d. Allopurinol
e. Phenytoin
120. Antipsychotics with lesser extrapyramidal side effects include
a. Clozapine
b. Respiridone
c. Thioridazine
d. Chlorpromazine
e. Haloperidol

121. Which of the following is true
a. Imipramine is used in the treatment of Endogenous depression
b. Diazepam has lesser sedative propensity as compared to barbiturates
c. Fluvaxamine is associated with weight gain
d. Thioridazine causes lesser extrapyramidal side effects
122. Drugs used in the treatment of Schizophrenia include
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Haloperidol
c. Olanzapine
d. Imipramine
e. Resperidone
123. Shizophrenia has which of the following features in common with depression
a. Formal thought disorder
b. Social withdrawal
c. Poor personal care
d. Decreased interest in sex
e. Inappropriate behavior
124. Suicidal tendencies are seen in
a. Shizophrenia
b. Post traumatic stress disorder
c. Depression
d. OCD
e. Anxiety disorder
125. Features seen in Obsessions and compulsions is/are
a. Repetetiveness
b. Irresistiblility
c. Unpleasant
d. Social withdrawal
e. Poor personal care
126. Pleural fibrosis is caused by
a. Phenytoin
b. Methysegide
c. Amiodarone
d. Ergotamine
e. Ranitidine

127. True regarding bromocriptine
a. Natural derivative
b. Synthetic derivative
c. Also has alpha blocking property
d. Decreases GI motility
e. Acts on both D1 and D2
128. A lady with 16 weeks pregnancy presents with acute appendicitis. Management includes
a. Conservative treatment
b. Do early surgery
c. Appendecectomy with termination of pregnancy
d. Appendecectomy following child birth after 3rd trimester
e. Medical treatment with surgery on recurrence
129. A lady with 4 months ammenorhea presents with pain abdomen, constipation, and vomiting. What will be done in her management
a. X ray abdomen
b. USG
c. CT scan
d. Complete obstetrical evaluation
130. True regarding hirshsprungs disease is/are
a. Seen in infants and children only
b. Absence of auerbachs plexus in the involved segment
c. The involved segment is the dilated colon
d. Bleeding per rectum is a presenting feature
e. Surgery is used in the treatment
131. True about achalasia cardia is/are
a. Dysphagia is a presenting feature
b. Absence of auerbachs plexus is the cause
c. Eosophagectomy is used in treatment
d. Barium swallow shows irregular filling defect in the lower esophagus
e. Motility improving agents are used in treatment

132. Bone marrow transplantation is indicated in
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Heamophilia
c. Mucopolysacharidosis
d. Ineffective erythropoeisis
e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome
133. Pancytopenia is seen in
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Myelofibrosis
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome
e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome
134. Massive splenomegaly is associated with
a. Gauchers
b. Chronic kala azar
c. CML
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome
e. Splenic infarcts
135. Intravenous gammaglobulins are used in
a. Myasthenia Gravis
b. Multiple myeloma
c. ITP
d. Takayasu’s arteritis
e. HUS
136. Perurethral catheterization is indicated in which of the following conditions
a. Prostatic carcinoma
b. Urethral trauma
c. Urethral stricture
d. Before taking the patient in for appendecectomy
e. Post op retention

137. The antigen binding region on the antibody is/are
a. Hinge region
b. Constant region
c. Variable region
d. Hypervariable region
e. Idiotype region
138. ANCA is associated with
a. Wegeners granulomatosis
b. Churg struas disease
c. Microscopic Polyangitis
d. Takayasu’s arteritis
e. SLE
139. Find the correct match among the following
a. ANCA - Takayasu’s arteritis
b. Antihistone antibodies - SLE in the newborn
c. Naproxone - Pseudoporphyria
d. Antimitochondrial antibody-PBC
140. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with all except
a. Sub aortic stenosis
b. Takayasu’s arteritis
c. William’s syndrome
d. Coarctation of aorta
e. Rubella
141. Wide split S2 is seen in
a. Endocardial cushion defect
b. Ebstien anomaly
c. Transposition of great vessels
d. Anomalous origin of pulmonary artery
e. Truncus arteriosis
142. True about Hepatocellular carcinoma is/are
a. Most commonly associated with HBV/HCV
b. Cirrhosis is usually predisposing
c. Fibrolamellar variety is not associated with cirrhosis
d. Less propensity of vascular invasion
e. Alcoholic cirrhosis does not predispose to cancer
143. Immunoflourence test in skin is positive in
a. Scabies
b. Lichen planus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Erythema Multiforme
e. Atopic dermatitis
144. Mucous lesions are seen in
a. Secondary syphilis
b. Dermatitis herpetiformis
c. Psoriasis
d. Pemphigus
e. Porphyria
145. Loosers zones are seen
a. Osteoporosis
b. Hyperparathyrodism
c. Osteomalacia
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Pagets
146. Osteoarthritis commonly involves
a. Proximal interphalengeal joint
b. Distal interphalyngeal joint
c. 1st carpophalegeal joint
d. Wrist joint
e. Distal radioulnar joint
147. Early morning stiffness is seen in
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. SLE associated arthritis
e. Psoriasis
148. Fracture of talus without displacement in X ray would give rise to
a. Avascular necrosis of Body of talus
b. Avascular necrosis of neck of talus
c. Osteoarthritis of ankle
d. Osteonecrosis of head of talus

149. McMurray’s test is positive in damage to
a. Anterior cruciate ligament
b. Posterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial semilunar cartilage
d. Lateral semilunar cartilage
e. Popliteal bursa
150. In anterior cruciate ligament tear which of the following tests are positive
a. Lachmans Test
b. Mcmurray’s test
c. Pivot test
d. Anterior drawers test
151. The bone density is increased in all of the following except
a. Avascular necrosis of bone
b. Uric acid deposition in the bone
c. Fracture and collapse of cancellous bone
d. Periosteal reaction
e. Flourosis
152. Regarding brucella all of the following are true except
a. Man to man transmission
b. It is a zoonosis
c. Blood culture is used for diagnosis
d. Brucella miletensis is the commonest cause
e. Transmitted through animal products
153. Disease transmitted by arboviral include
a. Yellow fever
b. Japanese encephalitis
c. Trench fever
d. Epidemic typhus
e. Dengue
154. Diseases transmitted by louse include
a. Epidemic typhus
b. Endemic typhus
c. Trench fever
d. Rocky mountain fever
e. Scrub typhus
155. True regarding point source epidemic include
a. Rapid rise
b. Rapid fall
c. Secondary peaks do not occur
d. Slow rise
e. Slow fall
156. In patients with substance abuse for maintenance drugs used is/are
a. Naltrexone
b. Naloxone
c. Disulfiram
d. Clonidine
e. Lithium
157. Ondansetron acts by
a. Acts directly on the CTZ
b. 5 HT3 antagonist
c. Acts on D1, D2 receptors
d. Inhibits vomiting center
e. Increases GIT motility
158. True about gout is
a. Occurs due to accumulation of urea crystals in the joints
b. Can be precipitated by pyrazinamide
c. Birefringent crystals are present in the joints
d. Occurs more in females
e. Due to decreased excretion of uric acid
159. Diabetes Mellitus can lead to the following complications
a. Vitreous hemorrhage
b. Rubeosis Iridis
c. Primary retinal detachment
d. 3,4th and 6th nerve palsy
e. Hypermetropia

160. Posterior subcapsular cataract is diagnosed by
a. Direct ophthalmoscopy
b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
c. Distant direct opthalmoscopy
d. Slit lamp microscopy
e. Examination with aplain mirror at a distance of 1 m
161. Refractive power of the eye can be changed by
a. Radial keratotomy
b. Keratomileusis
c. Intraocular lens
e. Photocoagulation
162. In angle closure glaucoma, treatment given to the fellow is
a. Pilocarpine eye drops
b. Atropine eye drops
c. Laser iridotomy
d. Trabeculoplasty
e. Physostigmine eye drops
163. Parenchymatous xerosis of the conjuctiva is caused by
a. Trachoma
b. Vitamin A deficiency
c. Vernal catarrh
d. Phlyctenular conjuctivitis
e. Alkali burns
164. Charcots joint is caused by all of the following except
a. Arnold chiarri malformation
b. Syrngomyelia
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Leprosy
e. Hydrocephalus
165. Short stature is seen in
a. Maternal deprivation syndrome
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Bulimia
d. Paternal smoking

166. True regarding acute osteomyelitis in child is/are
a. Diagnosis is by Xray after 8-10 days of onset of infection
b. Diagnosis must be suspected on all cases of subcutaneous cellulites
c. There is diffuse tenderness at the site
d. Treatment should be for at least 4 weeks
e. Salmonella is the most common cause
167. True about mycobacterium tuberculosis is/are
a. Can produce visible colonies in a weeks time on LJ media
b. Decolorized with 20% suphuric acid
c. Facultative aerobes
d. It is niacin positive
168. Anterior scalloping of the vertebrae is seen in
a. Aortic aneurysm
b. Tuberculosis
c. Renal tumors
d. Sarcoidosis
169. Regarding aqueous humor which of the following is correct
a. It is secreted 2-3 ml/min
b. It is secreted by ciliary processes
c. It has less protein then plasma
d. It has less vitamin C then plasma
e. Provides nutrition
170. Which of the following drugs is associated with least causation of raised intraocular tension
a. Hydrocortizone
b. Prednisolone
c. Fluvamethezone
d. Triamcinolone
e. Rexamethasone

171. Which of the following are associated with increased risk of colorectal cancer
a. Increased intake of animal fat
b. Aspirin intake
c. Enteric colitis
d. Amoebic colitis
e. Ulcerative colitis
172. True about amoebic colitis is/are
a. Commonly caused by entameoba histolytica
b. Cyst found in soil contains 8 nuclei
c. Flask shaped ulcers are found
d. Most common site is the ceacum
e. Is premalignant
173. Premalignant lesions of skin include
a. Leukoplakia
b. Bowens disease
c. Pagets disease of nipple
d. Psoriasis
e. Pemphigus
174. In the diagnosis of filariasis the blood sample collected for identification of microfilaria is stored in/as
a. Citrated blood
c. Oxalated blood
d. Heparinized blood
e. Defibrinogenated blood
175. Secondary messengers include
a. cAMP
b. IP3
c. DAG
d. cGMP
e. ADP
176. Increased severity of mitral stenosis is demonstrated by
a. Loud S1
b. Increased S2-OS gap
c. Prolonged diastolic murmur
d. S3
e. S4
177. Left sided pleural effusion is seen
a. Pancreatitis
b. Rheumatoid lung
c. Hypoproteinosis
d. CHF
e. Pulmonary artery obstruction due to emboli
178. True about Quinsy is/are
a. Penicillin is used in treatment
b. Abcess is located within the capsule
c. Occurs bilaterally
d. Immediate tonsillectomy is advised
e. Patient presents with toxic features and drooling of saliva
179. Transudative pleural effusion is seen
a. Renal artery stenosis
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. SLE
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
180. Live attenuated vaccines are
a. Sabin vaccine
b. BCG
c. Varicella
d. H.Infleunza
e. HBV
181. HIV infection is associated with
a. Glandular like fever illness
b. Generalized lymphadenopathy
c. Gonococcal septicemia
d. Sinus disease
e. Presenile dementia
182. Volume of air taken in and given out during normal respiration is referred to as
a. Inspiratory reserve volume
b. Tidal volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Vital capacity
e. Inspiratory capacity
183. True regarding idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is
a. Decreased FEV1
b. Decreased FEV/FVC
c. Decreased DLco
d. Decreased residual volume
e. Decreased TLC
184. Choose the correct match
a. Mumps -RA 27/3
b. Rubella -Jeryl lynn strain
c. Measles -Edmonston Zagreb strain
d. BCG -Danish 1331 strain
e. Polio -shwartz strain
185. Regarding Hypoxemia, it is seen in
a. Hypoventilation
b. Decreased FiO2
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Pulmonary emboli
e. Diazepam over dose
186. SSPE is associated with
a. Mumps
b. Measles
c. Rubella
d. Typhoid
e. Diphtheria
187. In a patient with CRF which of the following drugs are to be given with caution
a. Spirinolactone
b. Amlodipine
c. Amiloride
d. Pottasium binding resins
e. Furesemide
188. Acute pancreatitis is caused by
a. Gall stones
b. Alcohol intake
c. Starvation
d. Hyperparathyroid phenomenon
e. Thyrotoxicosis
189. A patient was started on antihypertensive treatment develops renal insufficiency, the drug/drugs implicated are
a. Beta blocker
b. Alpha blocker
c. Calcium channel blocker
d. AT1 antagonist
e. Enalapril
190. Woods lamp is used in the diagnosis of
a. Tinea capatis
b. Tinea versicolor
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Psoriasis
e. Lichen planus
191. 13 –cis retinoic acid is used in as
a. Chemoprophylactic
b. Chemotherapeutic
c. Radiosensitive
d. Radioprotective
e. Immuno stimulant
192. In patient suffering through CML the heamoglobin level falls from 11gm% to 4 gm%, in a short span of time. Also the spleen shows an increase in size. The cause for this could be
a. Accelerated CML
b. CML in blast crisis
c. Ineffective erthropoiesis
d. Myelofibrosis
e. Infection
193. True regarding Legionella pneumonia include
a. It occurs in epidemics
b. It is treated by penicillin
c. It is associated with splenomegaly
d. Can be easily diagnosed from sputum
e. More common in children

194. Chordoma commonly involves which of the following sites
a. Dorsal spine
b. Clivus
c. Lumbar spine
d. Sacrum
e. Cerical spine
195. True about oocyte is
a. It is also called primordial follicle
b. Formed after a single meiotic division
c. Maximum in number during the 5th month fetus
d. It is in prophase arrest
e. Also known as blastocyst
196. Ovary develops from
a. Mullerian duct
b. Genital ridge
c. Genital tubercle
d. Mesonephric duct
e. Sinovaginal bulbs
197. Turcots syndrome is associated with
a. Duodenal polyps
b. Familial adenosis
c. Brain tumors
d. Villous adenomas
e. Hyperplastic polyps
198. Black gun powder all of the following are found except
a. Charcoal
b. Pottassium nitrate
c. Sulphur
d. Lead peroxide
e. Arsenic
199. Haab’s straie is seen in
a. Angle closure glaucoma
b. Infantile glaucoma
c. Stargardt’s disease
d. Disciform keratitis
e. Leber’s disease
200. In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous heamorrage
a. Eales disease
c. Proliferative retinopathy
d. Coats disease
e. Episcleritis
201. LMN lesion includes
a. Dorsal horn cells
b. Sympathetic ganglia
c. Peripheral nerve
d. Gasserian ganglia
e. Anterior horn cells
202. Functions of basal ganglia include
a. Gross motor
b. Skilled movements
c. Emotion
d. Maintaining equilibrium
e. Co-ordination of movements
203. Central muscle relaxant acts by
a. Decreasing nerve conduction
b. Inhibits spinal polysynaptic reflexes
c. Blocks conduction across nerve muscle junction
d. CNS depression
e. Decreases muscle excitation
204. Preaneasthetic medication is used for which of the following reasons
a. It decreases the autonomic reflexes
b. It helps in anesthesia
c. Reduce anesthetic side effects
d. Decrease blood pressure
e. Prevent tachycardia
205. In myasthenia gravis which of the following should not be given
a. Gallamine
b. Neostigmine
c. Aminoglycoside antibiotics
d. Metronidazole
206. WHO ORS contains
a. Na+ 2.5 gms
b. K+ 1.5 gms
c. Glucose 20 gm
d. Sucrose 108 gm %
e. Potassium bisulphate- 90

207. In IV hyperalimentation given is/are
a. Hypertonic saline
b. Fats
c. Amino acids
d. Dextrose
e. Low molecular weight dextran
208. Health is associated by
a. Mental peace
b. Adequate nutrition
c. Daily moderate physical activity
d. Yearly blood and urine examination
e. Less stress
209. CA-125 is associated with
a. Carcinoma colon
b. Ca breast
c. Ca ovary
d. Ca lung
e. Ca pancreas
210. CEA as a tumor marker is useful in carcinoma colon
a. Levels give an indication of prognosis after surgery
b. Extent of tumor
c. Post op fall in CEA reflects complete clearance of tumor
d. Follow up after surgery for recurrence
e. High levels reflect metastasis
211. True about septal heamatoma is /are
a. Common in adults
b. Occurs commonly due to trauma
c. Can lead to saddle nose deformity
d. Conservative management
e. Leads to formation of abscess after sometime
212. In management of head injury
a. Antibiotics are given for upto 48 hours
b. CT scan of head is done
c. Hydrocortisone is given
d. Complete clinical examination is required
e. Diazepam is given
213. True about CSF rhinorrhea
a. Commonly occurs due to break in cribriform plate
b. Decreased glucose content confirms diagnosis
c. Contains less amount of proteins
d. Immediate surgery is required
214. True about Fox Fordyce spot is
a. It is more common in females
b. Reflects presence of internal malignancy
c. Is premalignant
d. Present in axilla and groin
e. Presents with itching
215. Carcinoma of the right colon presents as
a. Anemia
b. Mass in the right iliac fossa
c. Bleeding PR
d. Alternate constipation and diarrhea
e. Presents with obstruction commonly
216. Immediate surgery is required in
a. Adhesions
b. Volvolus
c. Perforated appendix with paralytic ileus
d. Intestinal obstruction
e. Tubercular stricture
217. In external beam radiotherapy used is/are
a. I-123
b. Cesium 137
c. Co-60
d. Tc 99
e. Iridium –191

218. All of the following iodine isotopes are in use except
a. I 131
b. I 123
c. I 125
d. I 122
e. I 129
219. Breech presentation with hydrocephalous is managed by
a. Ceasarian section
b. Transabdominal CSF decompression
c. Pervaginal decompression of after coming head
d. Craniotomy of after coming head
220. A postmenopausal woman presenting with bleeding PV has a mass in the fornix measuring 3*3 cms. Which of the following can be considered in the diagnosis
a. Carcinoma Endometrium of uterine body
b. Tuboovarian mass
c. Ovarian theca tumors
d. Dermoid tumor of ovary
e. Subserous fibroid
221. Non irritant gas causing systemic toxicity include
a. Ammonia
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Nitrogen
e. Chlorine
222. True about adenoids is/are
a. Failure to thrive
b. Mouth breathing
c. CT scan is done to assess size
d. Immediate surgery is required for even mild symptoms
e. Glottic arch palate is seen
223. Nocardia is differentiated from actinomycosis by
a. Gram stain
b. Acid stain
c. Different clinical features
d. Facultative anaerobe
224. True about Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is
a. Inheritable disease
b. Corneal implants transmit disease
c. It is transmitted by RNA containing organism
d. Transmitted by DNA containing organism
e. Arthropod borne disease
225. Prominent a waves are seen in all of the following except
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Tricuspid stenosis
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Right atrial myxoma
e. ASD
226. Uterine fibromyoma is associated with
a. Endometriosis
b. PID
c. Ca ovary
d. Amennorhea
e. Tamoxifen
227. True about hepatitis A include
a. IgG anti Hep A is used in diagnosis
b. Boiling for 5 minutes kills the virus
c. Spread by faeco-oral route
d. Incubation period is 45-180 days
e. Predisposes to cirrhosis
228. Arlt’s line is seen in
a. Opthalmia neonatorum
b. Trachoma
c. Angular conjunctivitis
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
e. Vernal catarrh

229. Dietary cholesterol is transported to extra hepatic tissues by
a. IDL
c. Chylomicrons
d. LDL
e. HDL
230. True regarding fibomyoma uterus is/are
a. Estrogen dependant
b. Capsulated
c. Can lead to red degeneration in pregnancy for which immediate surgery is required
d. Danazol is used in treatment
e. Pressure symptoms when present at the cervix
231. In rheumatoid arthritis
a. More common in females
b. Disease primarily affects cartilage
c. Involves small and large joints
d. Presence of RA factor is diagnostic
232. Hepatic infarcts are seen in
a. Chronic passive venous congestion
b. Acute Budd Chiarri syndrome
c. Septicemia
d. Hepatoveno-occlusive disease
e. Extra hepatic biliary obstruction
233. The surgical lobes of liver are divided on the basis of
a. Hepatic vein
b. Hepatic artery
c. Bile ducts
d. Hepatic portal vein
e. Central vein
234. Most important diameters of pelvis during labor is/are
a. Interspinous diameter in mid pelvis
b. Oblique diameter in inlet
c. AP diameter at outlet
d. Transtubercular diameter
e. Intertubercular diameter
235. Pubertal menorrhagia is managed by
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen and progesterone
c. GnRH
d. Danazol
e. Surgery
236. Bilateral breast carcinoma is caused by
a. Scirrhous carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Lobular carcinoma
d. Intra ductal carcinoma
e. Paget’s disease
237. Enucleation is done in all of the following except
a. Retinoblastoma with glaucoma
b. Dystoma of ciliary body
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. Malignant melanoma
e. Malignant glaucoma
238. Familial Retinoblastoma is associated with
a. Presents at later age
b. More commonly bilateral
c. Associated with other malignancies
d. Better prognosis
e. Is due to mutation
239. Continous variables are depicted graphically as
a. Histogram
b. Pie chart
c. Frequency polygan
d. Bar chart
e. Olgive
240. True regarding DIC is
a. Increased PT
b. Increased PTT
c. Decreased fibrinogen degradation products
d. Decreased fibrinogen
e. Normal platelet count

241. Glucose intolerance is caused by
a. Thiazides
b. Enalapril
c. Propranolol
d. Furesemide
e. AT1 antagonist
242. True about oxytocin is/are
a. It is secreted by anterior pituitary
b. It acts on the myoepithelial cells of breast
c. It causes contraction of uterus in labor
d. It causes retention of water
e. Also has sympathetic activity
243. True about HCG is/are
a. Glycoprotien
b. Has 2 subunits
c. Increased to maximum level in 3rd trimester
d. Secreted by trophoblastic tissue
e. The alpha subunit is specific

244 The antigen-binding region on the antibody is/are
a. Hinge region
b. Constant region
c. Variable region
d. Hyper variable region
e. Idiotype region

245 Prominent a waves are seen in all of the following except
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Tricuspid stenosis
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Right atrial myxoma
e. ASD
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Old June 14th, 2014, 01:57 PM
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Join Date: Mar 2012
Default Re: Previous year question papers of All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examina

1. Cystic artery is a branch of
a. Common hepatic
b. Right hepatic
c. Left hepatic
d. Gastroduodenal
e. Left gastric
2. Stomach is supplied by
a. Short gastric artery
b. Left GA
c. Sup pancreaticoduodenal
d. Right G epiploieic
e. Inf pancreatico duodenal
3. regarding pituitary gland
a. sphenoidal air sinus lie inf to it
b. supplied by ICA
c. sept from third ventricle by pars art
d. lies within the sella turcica
e. hangs down from 3rd ventricle
4. true about trachea is
a. lies post to oesophagus
b. cranine reach to T6 in deep respi
c. left bronchus is wide & obtuse than right
d. arch of aorta is anterior to trachea
e. supplied by branch of vagus nerve
5. true about female pelvis A/E
a. acute suprapubic angle
b. wide and shallow true pelvis
c. narrow sacrosciatic notch
d. gracious and lighter bone
6. physiological calcification is seen in
a. choroid plexus
b. pineal gland
c. lens
d. basal ganglion
7. tracts of post column
a. spino rubral
b. tract of gracilis
c. spino cerebellar
d. lat spinothalamic
e. tract of cuniatus
8. BMR in a 40 kg man is
a. 1000 K
b. 1500 K
c. 2000 K
d. 2500 K
e. 3000 K
9. True about BMR
a. starvation decreases BMR by 50%
b. starvation increases BMR
c. independent of hormonal influence
d. independent of energy expenditure
10. All hormones increase after trauma
a. Adrenaline
b. Insulin
d. Glucagon
e. Aldosterone
11. Ca+2 metabolism organs do not take part
a. Skin
b. Lung
c. Spleen
d. GIT
e. Renal
12. thyroxin is carried by
a. globulin
b. pre albumin
c. transferrin
d. ceruloplasmin
e. albumin
13. hyperkalemia is seen in
a. in sec mets to bone
b. m.myeloma
c. hyper parathyroidism (primary)
d. thyrotoxicosis
14. functions of basal ganglion
a. co-ordination of sensory function
b. co-ordination of motor function
c. planning and motor co-ordination
d. short term memory
15. CO2 retention is seen in
a. Mountain climbing
b. CO poisoning
c. Respi failure
d. Lung failure
e. Drowning
16. all are used for separating protein acc to size
a. iron exchange chromatograph
b. high performance chromatograph
c. affinity chromatograph
d. SDS poly ceramide gel electrophoresis
e. Electrophoresis
17. reducing sugar in urine found in
a. fanconis
b. lactose intolerance
c. galactosemia
d. phenylketonuria
e. salicylate poisoning
18. western blot test is
a. for proteins using nitrocellulose
b. for DNA
c. for RNA
19. Gluconeogenic key enzymes are
a. Pyruvate carboxylase
b. Fructose 1,6 biphosphate
c. phosphoglucomutaze
20. phopholipid in cell have following functions except
a. cell-cell recognition
b. signal transduction
c. DNA repair
21. iron containing enzymes
a. peroxidase
b. SOD
c. Glutathione peroxidase
d. Cytochrome
22. gene therapy technic used
a. electrofocussing
b. electrooperation
c. intranuclesr injection
23. Regulation of TCA Cycle is by
a. ATP
b. Acetyl coA
c. CoA
d. Citrate
24. True about genes coding for light & heavy chains
a. ****
b. *****
25. Egg shell calcification seen in
a. Silicosis
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Bronchogenic Carcinoma
26. Palindrome is
a. highly repetitive
b. local symmetry
c. local asymmetry
d. site of action of restriction endonuclease

27. Nephrotic syndrome occurs in
a. gold
b. Amphotericin B
28. Renal vein thrombosis seen in
a. MCP
b. Membranous
c. Amyloid
d. Post streptococcal GN
e. HUS
29. pericarditis is seen in all except
a. amidrione
b. procainamide
c. brytellium
d. methyserzide
e. hydralizine
30. all of the following pigments are seen in hepatocytes except
a. iron
b. bile pigments
c. lipofuschine
d. pseudomelanine
e. malaria pigments
31. von villibrand disease is diagnosed by
a. BT
c. APTT + BT + VIIIc: roc cofactor
d. Prothrombin time
e. CT
32. multiple mycloma shows
a. preformed increase B cell in marrow
b. B cell in settle in pl marrow
33. vegetation of RHD
a. along closure of values
b. calcification of mitral annular ring
c. monoclonal proliferation of B cell in matured state
d. monoclonal proliferation of B cell in early stage
34. AFP- is increased in
a. Ca prostate
b. Ca liver
c. Ca colon
d. Ca lung
e. Germ cell tumor
35. mitochondrial abnormality
a. oncocytomas
b. mitochondrial dystrophies
36. glycogen storage disease are
a. von gerkeis
b. fabrys
c. macarld’s
d. krabbes
37. rib notching is seen in
a. marfans syndrome
b. coarctation of aorta
c. blalock Taussing shunt
d. Aneurysm arch of aorta
38. klinefelter syndrome
a. 47 XXY
b. mental retardation
c. hypogonadism
d. * FSH
39. turner syndrome true is
a. XO
b. Cubitus valgus
c. Subnormal intelligence
d. Streek ovaries
e. Shield chest with ill develop breast
40. gene imprinting is
a. paternal slicing
b. maternal slicing
c. prader villi syndrome
d. angelmans syndrome
41. features of mesothelioma
a. Microvilli
b. Desmosomes
42. True about Bronchiolitis obliterans
a. protinaceous exudates
b. fibrinous exudates
43. Following are true of Sarcoma botyroides
a. c layer seen
b. grape like appearance
c. associated with DES consumption in pregnancy
44. Thrombotic microangiopathy most likely resembles
a. Diabetes
b. Malignant Hypertension
c. Acute Graft rejection
45. cefepine
a. is a IVth generation cephalosporin
b. on O.d dose
c. Pro drug
d. Dose decreases in liver failure
e. Active against pseudomonas
46. b-blocker + CCB causes
a. AV block
b. hypotension
c. Ppt CCF
47. in acute severe asthma which can be given to induce sleep
a. nitrazepam
b. morphine
c. phenobarbitone
d. choral hydrate
e. all hypnotics are safe
48. mefiprestone is
a. also called RU-486
b. it is a non steroid 21 progestone
c. used as inter captive
d. used for menstrual regulation
49. teratogenic drugs are
a. heparin
b. warfarin
c. phenytoin
d. valproate
e. steroids
50. safe in pregnancy
a. Rmy
b. INH
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
e. pyrizinamide
51. K + sparing diuretics
a. Amiloride
b. Spironolactone
c. Triamterene
52. metabolic alkalosis is caused by
a. acetazolomide
b. spironolactone
c. bemetemide
53. NO is
a. Vasoconstrictor
b. Used in pul HTN
c. Sympathomimetics
d. Decreases MAC of desoflurane
54. methicillin resistant staph is treatment by
a. vancomycin
b. ampicillin clavulonic acid
c. cephalosporins
d. ciprofloxacillin
e. naladixic acid
55. Drugs used in attention deficit disorder
a. Imipramine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Amphetamine
56. Drugs effective against S typhi
a. Tetracycline
b. Clotrimazole
c. Ciprofloxacin
57. Drugs causing pigmentation
a. Minocycline
b. Clofazamine
c. R Cin
d. Phenytoin
e. Hydroxyurea
58. young male presents with diarrhoea and pus cells, following causes
a. E.toxigenic coli
b. E.invasive coli
c. Shigella
d. V.cholera
e. El-tor cholera
59. true about anthrax
a. humans are relatively resistant
b. less no of spores sufficient for pulmonary anthrax
c. primarily disease of carnivorous animals
d. mac fadyen reactions is characteristic capsular swelling reactions
60. all are zoonotic except
a. brucellosis
b. leptospirosis
c. anthrax
d. typhoid
e. Q-fever
61. taxonomically this is a bacteria
a. chlymidia
b. rickettsia
c. bacteriophage
d. prion
e. mycoplasma
62. staphylocci found in stools in large number in
a. staph food poisoning
b. TSS
c. Ischiorectal abscess
d. Is a normal phenomenon
e. As a commensal
f. Pseudomembraneous colitis
63. culture of causative organisms from lesion can be done from
a. diptheria from myocarditis
b. meningoccus from skin lesions (pustules)
c. CSF in tetanus
d. Staph from rheumatic valve
64. hydatid cyst is caused by
a. E. granulosus
b. E.multilocularis
c. T.solium
d. T.saginata
65. larva in stool are seen in case of
a. A.duodenale
b. N.Americans
c. Strongyloides
d. Trichuris trichura
66. chlamydia is cultured in
a. Hel 2
b. Hela
c. Me Coy cell
d. kidney
e. human fibroblast
67. di george syndrome shows
a. decreased T cells in paracortial areas of lymp node
b. decreased t cells in red pulp
c. facial dymorphim
68. secretory IgA
a. by epithelial cells
b. by plasma cells
69. Media for TB Bacilli are
a. LJ medium
b. Dorset
70. Pin point pupil is seen in
a. Morphine
b. OP poisoning
c. Dhatura poisoning
71. PM staining disappears on
a. 2-3 days
b. 3-4 days
c. 12-24 hrs
d. merges with putrefaction
72. paraphillia is
a. bisexuallity
b. bestiality
c. fretturism
d. homosexuality
e. sodomascohaism
73. strangulation shows
a. dribbling of saliva
b. froth in the nostril
c. ligature mark
d. bruising and ecchymosis below the ligature mark
e. cyanosis
74. hanging

75. Consumption of tobacco causes
a. buccal cancer
b. lung cancer
c. bladder
d. breast
e. cervix
76. two important test in a patient with polyuriaand polydipsia
of 30 yrs excreting 6 l per day
a. water loading
b. water deprivation
c. urines and plasma osmality
d. skull x ray
77. gullian-barre syndrome
a. proximal motor weakness
b. distal motor weakness
c. involves facial n
78. samtire’s triad
a. B asthma
b. Nasal polyps
c. Broncheictasis
d. Aspirin hypersentitively
79. least diff between systolic BP of both limbs that is abnormal
a. 5mm
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
80. NIDDM fundoscopy is done at
a. At diagnosis
b. 5 yrs after diagnosis
c. 10 yrs after diagnosis
81. huge cardiomegaly is seen in
a. anemia
b. pericardial effusion
c. multiple valvular diseases
d. TOF
e. CCF
82. B asthma diagnosed by
a. Wheeze
b. Dypnoea
c. CXR
d. Reversible airway flow obstruction
83. only chemotherapy is treatment in
a. lymphoma
b. ALL
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. RCC
e. Nephroblastoma
84. barter syndrome seen in
a. hyperkalemia
b. hyporeninemia
c. HTN
d. Hypokalemia
e. Alkalosis
85. In CPR organs systems supported are
a. Heart
b. Respi
c. CNS
d. GIT
e. Renal
86. what occurs in CPR,injuries seen in all except
a. liver rupture
b. stomach rupture
c. DIC
d. Rib#
e. Lung rupture
87. in emphysema
a. lung compliance increased
b. FEV1 normal
c. Increased VC
d. Diffusion capairty decreased
88. severe MR is indicated by
a. atrial fibrillation
b. systemic embolism
c. SV3
d. Loud S1
e. Long murmurs
89. In MI done is
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Alteplase
d. Oral anticoagulants
e. ACE inhibitors
90. parkinsonism is caused by
a. bromocriptine
b. carbidopa
c. haloperidol
d. phenothiazines
91. lepromatous leprosy
a. > 10 lesion
b. bilat symmetrical
c. BI + to ++
d. Loss of eyebows
e. Ear lobules infiltration
92. leprosy
a. palpable nerves
b. hot and moist area involved
93. butyomycosis is caused by
a. staph aureus
b. streptococcus
c. sporotrichosis
d. Pseudomonads
e. Staph epidermidis
94. renal failure is caused by
a. amyloidosis
b. HUS
c. Interstitial nephritis
d. Post step GN
e. ATN
95. IDDM
a. Mostly occurs in children
b. Need insulin to prevent ketoacidosis
c. Predictable inheritance
d. Strong family history
96. celiac sprue patient can be given
a. rice
b. rye
c. soyabeen
d. corn
e. barley
97. splenectomy patient seen in
a. howel jowel bodies
b. eosinophilia
c. megakaryocytosis
d. neutrophilia
e. neutropenia
98. aplastic anemia leads to
a. AML
b. Myelodysplastic syndrome
c. PNH
99. ineffective erythropoiesis is seen in
a. iron def
b. megaloblastic anemia
c. aplastic anemia
d. myelodysplastic syndrome
e. all anemias
100. risk factors for CAD
a. smoking
b. homocystinuria
c. increases HDL
d. female is more prone than mal
101. raynaud’s disease seen in
a. systemic sclerosis
b. mixed connective tissue disease
c. behcet’s syndrome
d. reiters syndrome
102. renal vein thrombosis seen in
a. Membranous glomerulonephritis
b. OC
c. Amyloidosis
d. DIC

103. cyanosis is seen in
a. TOF
b. Eissenmenger’s
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. VSD
e. PDA
f. Coarctation of aorta
104. IQ of 50 child can do
a. Study upto 8
b. Can handle money
c. Obey simple instruction
d. Recognize family members
e. Can look after himself
105. post streptocococal GN
a. follows throat and skin infection
b. antibiotics prevent recurrence
c. lead to chronic renal damage
d. low compliment level
106. hypoglycemia in new born is seen in
a. erythroblastosis foetalis
c. Macrosomia
d. Hypo thyroid
e. Hyperthyroid
107. genralised seizure can be cause by
a. Viral encephalitis
b. Hypo natraemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
e. hypokalemia
108. hypothyroidism in newborn
a. presents as goiter
b. decreased level of T4
c. prolongation of physiological jaundice
d. MC in patient from endemic region
e. Can be diagnosed by TSH
109. maintained body proportion with decreased bone maturity
a. hypothyroidism
b. malnutrition
c. achondroplasia
d. Mariques
110. 8 week old child can do
a. turn head 180 deg to bright light
b. social smile
c. hold head in vertical suspension
111. periphery of retina is seen in
a. direct opthalmoscopy
b. in direct opthalmoscopy
c. + 90 diopter lens
d. gold man’s lens
e. ruby lens
112. cornea epithelium is
a. str squamous keratinized
b. pseudo stratified
c. columnar
d. transitional
e. str-sq non keratinized
113. Advantage of posterior capsule preservation in ECCE
a. cystoid macular odema
b. endoopthalmitis
c. endothelial damage
d. retinal detachment
114. photoopthalmia done is
a. saline irrigation
b. steroids eye drops
c. reassurance
d. eye patching
115. cataract is caused by all except
a. UV waves
b. Infrared
c. Microwave radiation
d. Ionizing radiation
e. MRI
116. staphylococcal blephritis causes all except
a. vernal keratoconjunctivitis
b. phlyctenular conjunctivitis
c. marginal corneal ulcer
d. follicular conjunctivitis
e. predisposes to basal cell Ca
117. chalazion is a
a. true retension cyst
b. staphylococcal infection
118. fovea true is
a. lowest light threshold
b. highest no of cones
c. max no of rods
d. present over optic head
e. max visual acquity
119. true about dendritic ulcer is
a. caused by HSV
b. steroid decreases the severity
c. oral acyclovir is effective
d. topical acyclovir is effective
e. heals spontaneously
120. to reduce infection after cataract surgery best method is
a. intra op antibiotic
b. pre Op topical antibiotic
c. sub corneal inj of antibiotic
d. post op systemic antibiotic
121. LMA-laryngeal mask airway
a. Is used in short neck
b. For short surgical procedure
c. Prevent gastric aspiration
d. Where intubation is CI
e. Difficult airways
122. headache of dural puncture
a. prevented by small bore needle
b. blood patch is treatment of choice at initial stage
c. early ambulation increases headache
d. common in old age
123. anesthetic with less analgesia
a. thiopentone
b. ketamine
c. NO
d. Propofol
e. Methohexitone
124. CPR drugs used
a. Xylocaine
b. Adr
c. O2
d. Magnesium
e. noradrenaline
125. fungal sinusitis
a. x ray shows hazy opacity
b. amp-B is given iv
c. surgical removal of fungus
d. a niger is most common cause
e. aspergillus niger is MC
126. recurrent laryngeal has an abberent course
a. in carotid sheath
b. posterior to inferior thyroid A
c. anterior to inferior thyroid art
d. between the branches of inferior thyroid
e. passes through sternocleidomastoid
127. nasophayngeal Ca
a. MC is adeno ca
b. Arises in fossa of rosenmullar
c. RT is treatment of choice
d. EBV virus is causative
e. Secretory otitis media is a present in adults
128. pre cancerous lesion of larynx are
a. hyperplastic laryngitis
b. lichen planus
c. leucoplakia
d. papilloma vocal cords
129. DNS treatment is done in case of
a. Severe DNS
b. Severe sinusitis
c. With bony spur
d. Severe rhinorrhea
e. Recurrent epistaxis
130. structure seen in indirect laryngoscopy
a. pyriformis fossa
b. arylenoid cartilage
c. lingual surface of epiglottis
131. recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies
a. cricothyroid
b. omohyoid
c. vocalis
d. post arrytenoid
e. Stylopharyngeus
132. True about syphilis congenital from present as snuffles
a. involves cartilagenous part
b. presentation of sec syphilis
c. collapse of nasal bridge
133. radium emits
a. n-rays
b. b-rays
c. a-rays
d. c-rays

134. all are live vaccine
a. measles
b. BCG
c. polio
d. rabies
e. pertussis
135. AIDS defining condition
a. Western blot +
b. CD4 /CD5 ratio 1
c. CD4 <500
d. CD4 <200
e. Opportunistic infection with TB , P.carini
136. Diarrhoea in AIDS is caused by
a. Isospora belli
b. Microsporidium
c. Cryptococcus
d. Giardia
e. Cryptosporidium
137. AIDS WHO defining conditions
a. diarrhoea fever weight loss
b. generalized lymphadenopathy
c. opportunistic infn with TB , P. carini
138. central tendencies
a. median
b. mean
c. mode
d. std deviation
e. range
139. blood transfusion transmits
a. hep A
b. hep B+C
c. CMV
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Syphilis
140. chicken pox true is
a. infective periodic is 2 weeks
b. prevented by giving immuno globulins
c. pleomorphic rash
d. adult chicken pox is less severe
141. WHO ORS true is
a. 4.5 gm NaCl
b. 3.5 gm NaCl
c. 1.5 gm KCl
d. 2.9 g in Na citrate
142. cholera is diagnosed by
a. watery stool
b. many cases from same locality
c. dysentry
d. abdominal pain
e. fever
143. rights of children are protected by article
a. 24
b. 28
c. 48
d. 42
144. Schiller Dural inclusion bodies seen in
a. Brumer’s tumor
b. yolk salk tumor
c. choricarcinoma
d. granulosa cell tumor
145. insulin resistance is increase in pregnancy in presence of
a. HPL
b. Oestrogen
c. Progesterone
146. progesterone withdrawal bleeding indicates
a. adequate progesterone
b. adequate estrogen
c. ovarian failure
d. intact endometrium
147. factors initiating lactation
a. oxytocin
b. polactin
c. FSH
d. LH
148. all are used for treatment of DUB
a. danazol
c. Oestrogen
d. Progesterone
e. Mifeperistone
149. hydatiform mole true is
a. more common in develop country
b. complete is seen in 46 XX
c. maternal in origin
d. associated with theca luteal cyst
150. OCP causes
a. Ca breast
b. Ca hepatic adenoma
c. Ca Cx
151. PCOD all are seen
a. Hirsutism
b. Insulin resistance
c. Streak ovaries
d. Increased FSH
152. polyhydroamnios are caused by
a. renal agenesis
b. oesophageal atresia
c. maternal diabetes
d. preeclampsia
e. hydrops
153. hydrocephalus seen
a. breech presentation
b. diabetic mothers
c. spinabifida
154. Ca breast is predisposed by
a. Family history
b. OCP
c. Multiparity
d. Nulliparty
e. First pregnancy at 30 yrs
155. Ca Cx is predisposing factor
a. Family history
b. Caused by HPV
c. OCP predisposes
d. Multiparity
e. Nulliparity
156. pre eclampsia seen in
a. HTN
b. Proteinuria
c. Convulsions
d. Pedal odema
157. antiphospholipid syndrome seen in
a. recurrent arterial thrombosis
b. recurrent abortion
c. rec IUD
d. thrombocytopenia
158. causes of DUB s
a. irregular ripening
b. irregular shedding
c. ca endometrium
d. granulosa cell tumour
159. manning scoring include
a. breathing 3 episodes in30 mts
b. feotal movement
c. fetal tone
160. breast conserving surgery CI in all except
a. poor socioeconomic
b. age > 40
c. multicentric disease
d. axillary LN involvement
161. gas under both sides of diaph seen in
a. peptic perforation
b. appendix perforation
c. meckel’s perforation
d. uterine perforation
e. amoebic lives abscess
162. sphincter saving operation in Ca rectum is CI in all except
a. age > 50
b. < 4 cm from anal verge
c. high grade tumor
163. 30 yr old hypotensive patient comes in shock USG shows splenic tear treatment Mn
a. iv fluids and blood
b. adv CECT
c. laprotomy and splenectomy
d. observation
e. diagnostic peritoneal lavage
164. fq .of USG (diagnostic )
a. 1-20 hz
b. 20-30 hz
c. 30-40 hz
d. 40-50 hz
165. reflux esophagitis is prevented by
a. long abd esophagus
b. increased abd pressure
c. increased thoracic pressure
d. right crux of diaphragm
e. left crux of diaphragm
166. x-ray lat decubitus is indicated in
a. dependent hydrothorax
b. pneumothorax
c. middle lobe pnemonitis
d. pleural effusion
167. gonococcal arthritis
a. females more severe than men
b. single dose of ciplox is treatment of choice
c. commonly leads to arthritis
168. trendlenberg’s operation is
a. stripping of long saphenous vein
b. ligation of sapheno femoral perforation
c. flush ligation of sapheno femoral junction
d. proximal 5 cm stripping of sap vein
169. varicose surgical treatment is indicated if
a. involves superficial system
b. if size > 3mm
c. if size < 3m
d. if ass with DVT
e. is not ass with DVT
170. Schuller Duval inclusion bodies found in
a. Bremer’s
b. yolk salk tumor
c. granulosa cell tumor
d. choriocarcinoma
171. long standing gastric outlet obstruction causes
a. hypokalemia
b. hyponatremia
c. hypochloremia
d. metabolic acidosis
172. burger’s disease involves A/E
a. small sized arteries
b. median sized veins
c. median sized arteries
d. small sized veins
e. large sized arteries
173. for diagnosis of intestinal obstruction
a. x-ray supine abd
b. CXR
c. X-ray Abd erect
d. Barium study
e. CT scan
174. perforated peptic ulcer treatment includes
a. iv fluids +
b. drainage of paracolic gutters
c. immediate surgery
d. antacid
e. iv pentocid
175. immediate surgery is indicated in
a. DU perforation
b. Post op adhesions
c. Volvulus of sigmoid
d. Paralytic ileus
176. in traumatic transection of ent femoral A and vein
a. repair of A & vein
b. repair of A & ligation of vein
c. repair of A & contralateral sympathectomy
d. amputation below knee
177. premalignant lesions are
a. ulcerative colitis
b. crohns
c. TB
178. ulcerative colitis involves
a. circular muscles
b. longitudinal muscles
c. mucosa
d. submucosa
e. serosa
179. in ulcerative colitis malignancy is mostly likely in
a. child hood onset
b. present of crypt abscess with cell abnormal cytology
c. length of involvment
180. rigid esophagoscopy is C/I in
a. aneurysm
b. lung abscess
c. cervical spine damage
d. ca esophagus
181. CBD stone is managed by
b. Stenting with T tube
c. Direct surgical incision
182. complication of gall stones
a. pancreatitis
b. ca stomach
c. cholecystitis
183. charcot’s triad
a. fever
b. pruritis
c. jaundice
d. pain
184. in strangulated inguinal hernia investigation done is all except
a. USG serotum
b. Needle biopsy
c. X-ray abd
185. which is premalignant
a. FAP
b. Villous adenoma
c. Hyperplastic polyp
186. acalculous cholecystitis is seen in
a. crohn’s disease
b. diabetes mellitus
187. medulary Ca of thyroid
a. secrete calcitonin
b. familial
c. amyloid strauma
d. hormone dependent
188. which of the following arise in epiphysis
a. ewings
b. osteosarcoma
c. giant cell tumor
d. chondroblastoma
e. osteoblastoma
189. true about osteochondromatosis
a. autosomal dominant
b. also known as multiple endostosis
c. occur in diaphysis
d. involves long bones & skull
190. paraosteal osteosarcoma
a. x-ray diagnostic
b. rarely invades medullary cavity
191. stance muscles
a. quadriceps
b. hamstring
c. anterior tibial
d. peroneus longus
e. gastrocnermins
192. bow leg is due to
a. bowing of tibia
b. both tibias & femur
c. mild degree in children needs no treatment
193. Osgood sheller syndrome osteochondritis of
a. Upper tibia
b. Lower tibia
c. Femur
d. Patella
e. Scaphoid
194. tallipo equino varus is due to A/E
a. spina bifida
b. idiopathic
c. aruopyogyrosis
d. neurologic disorders
195. mallet finger is due to avulsion of extensor tendon of
a. proximal phalynx
b. middle phalynx
c. distal phalynx
d. meta carpel
e. any of phalynx
196. Cough #
a. occurs in COPD
b. Mid scapular line
c. Needs strapping
d. Associated with pain
197. pitryasis rubra pillaris
a. cephals caudal spread
b. more common in females
c. hyperkeratosis of palms and soles
d. cydosporme is effective
198. Morbilliform rash is seen in
a. scarlet fever
b. rubella
c. toxic shock syndrome
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Old March 13th, 2020, 06:45 PM
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What are timings for hrm short term course?
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